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AAAE CM > Module 1, Section 1 > Flashcards

Module 1, Section 1 Flashcards

1
Q

airport sponsor

A

the governing body of an airport

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2
Q

airport executive

A

a particular individual such as an airport manager or airport director

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3
Q

airport operator

A

the overall airport management structure, including the sponsor, executive, and other personnel.

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4
Q

[HISTORY] Air Mail Act / Kelly Act (1925)

A

Authorized postmaster general to contract with private companies

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5
Q

[HISTORY] What important precedent did the Air Mail Act / Kelly Act of 1925 set?

A

that users of aviation should pay for it; aviation operations should be self-funded

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6
Q

fixed-base operator (FBO)

A

organization that provides services such as fueling, hangaring, tie-down, pilot lounges, flight instruction, etc.

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7
Q

[HISTORY] Air Commerce Act (1926)

A

Created aeronautics branch within Department of Commerce. Responsible for fostering air commerce, issuing and enforcing air traffic rules, licensing pilots, certifying aircraft, establishing airways, operating and maintaining NAVAIDs.

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8
Q

[HISTORY] What were the purposes of the Air Cargo Deregulation Act (1976) and Airline Deregulation Act (1978)?

A

allow airlines to set airfares and operate routes at will

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9
Q

[HISTORY] What were two effects of deregulation?

A

(1) expansion of some airports, service cuts at others; (2) hub-and-spoke operating model

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10
Q

[HISTORY] What events/programs began the practice of providing federal funding for building or improving airports?

A

The Great Depression and the Works Progress Administration (WPA)

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11
Q

[HISTORY] What portion of airport building or improvement costs were covered by WPA funds?

A

50%

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12
Q

[HISTORY] When was AAAE founded, and when did the AAE certification program begin?

A

1928; 1954

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13
Q

[HISTORY] Development of Landing Areas for National Defense (DLAND) appropriation

A

Enabled Secretary of War, Secretary of Commerce, and Navy to acquire land for WWII military use

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14
Q

[HISTORY] Federal Aid to Airports Act (1946)

A

created Federal Aid to Airports Program (FAAP) which provided 50% of funding to airports in the National Airports Plan on the condition that the airports remain publicly accessible

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15
Q

[HISTORY] Federal Aviation Act (1958)

A

Created Federal Aviation Agency to take over the following roles from the Civil Aeronautics Board: safety rulemaking, developing air navigation/air traffic control system common to civil and military. Transferred to DOT in 1966 and renamed Federal Aviation Administration.

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16
Q

[HISTORY] Airport and Airway Development Act (1970)

A

Established Airport Development Aid Program (ADAP) to expand the list of grant-eligible projects and the Planning Grant Program (PGP) to provide funding for master planning and system planning. Also created an airport certification program to issue operating certificates.

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17
Q

[HISTORY] Airport and Airway Improvement Act (1982)

A

Established Airport Improvement Program (AIP) and expanded list of eligible projects. Reorganized National Airport Plan as National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS)

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18
Q

What are the categories of airports in the National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS)?

A

Large hub, medium hub, small hub, non-hub, GA

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19
Q

How many annual enplanements must an NPIAS airport have to be considered a “hub” airport?

A

2,500

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20
Q

[HISTORY] What were some of the areas of airports impacted following 9/11?

A

terminal design, security screening, passenger experience

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21
Q

What are the four major classes of stakeholders at airports?

A

Government entities; aeronautical users; non-aeronautical users; community

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22
Q

What are the five general types of airports in the U.S.?

A

commercial service, cargo service, GA, military, private

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23
Q

Which types of airports are generally excluded from FAA planning or funding?

A

military, private

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24
Q

Which types of airports are regulated under Title 14 CFR Part 139?

A

commercial service, cargo service

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25
Q

Commercial service and cargo service airports are regulated by what legislation?

A

Title 14 CFR Part 139

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26
Q

What would cause a GA airport to become “regulated”?

A

Acceptance of federal funding via AIP grants

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27
Q

commercial service airport

A

public-use airport with >2,500 annual enplanements

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28
Q

GA airport

A

public-use airport with <2,500 annual enplanements

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29
Q

GA reliever airport

A

GA airport that is intended to concentrate GA traffic and remove it from nearby commercial service airport

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30
Q

cargo service airport

A

public-use airport with >100,000,000 pounds of landed weight delivered via freighter aircraft (i.e., excludes belly cargo)

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31
Q

joint-use airport

A

airport owned by Department of Defense at which both military and civil aircraft operate

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32
Q

shared-use airport

A

U.S. government-owned airport co-located with a civil airport

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33
Q

“industrial aviation” airport

A

unofficial designation for an airport at which activities such as aircraft assembly, aircraft parts manufacturing, maintenance repair and overhaul, etc. occur

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34
Q

Which airports are included on the National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS)?

A

airports that are eligible to receive AIP grants

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35
Q

Name the criteria for airports that are included in the NPIAS

A

publicly-owned; privately-owned but designated as reliever by FAA; privately-owned with >2,500 annual enplanements; GA reliever airports; airports with air carrier transport to an organization that contracts with USPS; public-use with a unit of National Guard or Reserve Armed Forces

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36
Q

If an airport does not meet the criteria to be included in the NPIAS, how else could it be included?

A

part of a state airport system plan; serving community >30 minutes from other NPIAS airport; forecast to have at least 10 based aircraft within 5 years; under consideration by public sponsor to undertake ownership and development; determination that benefits from airport development would exceed its costs; written documentation describing airport’s isolation; serving indigenous groups; supports recreation; needed to develop or protect national resources

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37
Q

How often is the NPIAS published?

A

every two years

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38
Q

How far into the future does the NPIAS look?

A

five years

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39
Q

Which airport projects are published with the NPIAS?

A

only those which are eligible for AIP funding

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40
Q

What are the three measurements that are used to gauge airport activity?

A

passenger enplanements, aircraft operations, cargo tonnage

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41
Q

How many annual enplanements must a commercial service airport have to be considered a primary hub?

A

> 10,000

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42
Q

A primary commercial service airport is classified as a “large hub” if it serves what percentage of total annual U.S. enplanements?

A

> 1%

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43
Q

A primary commercial service airport is classified as a “medium hub” if it serves what percentage of total annual U.S. enplanements?

A

Between 0.25% and 1%

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44
Q

A primary commercial service airport is classified as a “small hub” if it serves what percentage of total annual U.S. enplanements?

A

Between 0.05% and 0.25%

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45
Q

A primary commercial service airport is classified as a “nonhub” if it serves what percentage of total annual U.S. enplanements?

A

Less than 0.05%

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46
Q

A commercial service airport is classified as non-primary if it serves how many annual enplanements?

A

Between 2,500 and 10,000

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47
Q

What is the largest sub-category of airport classifications in the U.S.?

A

General aviation

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48
Q

A GA airport must satisfy one of two criteria in order to be classified as a “general aviation reliever” airport. What are these criteria?

A

> 100 aircraft or >25,000 annual itinerant operations

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49
Q

What are the five categories of GA airports?

A

national, regional, local, basic, unclassified

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50
Q

National GA airport

A

located in metropolitan areas near major business centers, support operations by most sophisticated GA aircraft

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51
Q

Regional GA airport

A

located in metropolitan areas serving large population centers, support interstate and intrastate flight

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52
Q

Local GA airport

A

typically located near metropolitan or micropolitan areas, mostly piston aircraft, flight tends to be within state or immediate region

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53
Q

Basic GA airport

A

typically only one runway/helipad/seaplane lane, mostly self-piloted operations with propeller aircraft

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54
Q

What organization governs flight operations globally, ensuring consistency and creating a common vocabulary?

A

International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)

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55
Q

What legislation regulates private flight operations?

A

Title 14 CFR Part 91

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56
Q

What topics does Title 14 CFR Part 91 cover?

A

Describes private flight operations; addresses General Operating and Flight Rules applicable to any aircraft operating in U.S. airspace

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57
Q

What legislation contains the requirements for an aircraft operator certificate?

A

Title 14 CFR Part 119

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58
Q

What legislation regulates air carrier certification?

A

Title 14 CFR Part 121

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59
Q

What legislation regulates public charters?

A

Title 14 CFR Part 380

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60
Q

What legislation regulates commuter/on-demand/air charter/air taxi operations?

A

Title 14 CFR Part 135

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61
Q

scheduled air carrier operation

A

An operation conducted under Title 14 CFR Part 121 and provides a schedule

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62
Q

An operation conducted under Part 121 can only operate at which airports?

A

Airports that meet Title 14 CFR Part 139 certification

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63
Q

An airport manager can only allow which types of aircraft and air carrier operations?

A

Those that have been approved in the airport’s operating certificate

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64
Q

Under what circumstances can air carriers operate at airports without Part 139 certification?

A

Operations outside the U.S.; domestic operations in Alaska with 10-30 seats; emergency situations; training flights; use of an airport designated as an alternate in air carrier operating certificate

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65
Q

What distinguishes the operators regulated under Part 121 (air carrier certification) from those regulated under Part 135 (commuter/air taxi)?

A

Part 135 operations are usually unscheduled

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66
Q

What period of time is covered during an “air carrier operation” at a Part 139 airport?

A

From 15 minutes prior to takeoff until 15 minutes after landing

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67
Q

What services must a Part 139 airport provide for an air carrier operation from 15 minutes prior to takeoff until 15 minutes after landing?

A

ARFF services, inspection, wildlife hazard management, snow removal, lighting system operation

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68
Q

direct air carrier

A

certificated domestic or foreign air carrier, air taxi operator, or commuter air carrier that directly engages in operation of aircraft under a certificate, permit, or exemption issued by DOT

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69
Q

indirect air carrier

A

person or organization that engages in services of a direct air carrier. Uses commercial air transportation to move cargo or people but does not own or control aircraft.

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70
Q

What legislation regulates the operation of aircraft not in common carriage (i.e., not sold to public) configured with 20+ seats or >6,000 lbs of cargo-carrying capacity?

A

Title 14 CFR Part 125

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71
Q

What legislation regulates public charter operations provided by a Part 121 air carrier?

A

Title 14 CFR Part 380

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72
Q

Under Title 14 CFR Part 91.103, what must a pilot do before beginning a flight?

A

Become familiar with all available information: reference Airport Facility Directory (A/FD); check weather at origin, destination, and en-route; and review any NOTAMs

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73
Q

Some air carriers or corporate departments may use what instead of pilots reviewing and preparing pre-flight information?

A

flight dispatch personnel who hold a valid Flight Dispatcher Certificate

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74
Q

Who has the final responsibility for the safety and security of a flight operation?

A

the Pilot In Command (PIC); also called the “power of the parking brake”

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75
Q

pilotage

A

navigating based on ground reference points visible from the air

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76
Q

dead reckoning

A

navigation using navigational beacons and radio transceivers to triangulate position, determine ground speed, and navigate to next fix

77
Q

VFR

A

visual flight rules; flying using visual references

78
Q

VMC

A

visual meteorological conditions; generally 1,000 feet ceiling and 3 miles visibility

79
Q

VFR can only be conducted below what altitude?

A

Below 18,000 MSL

80
Q

Is a flight plan required to be filed to fly in VFR?

A

No, but it may be filed

81
Q

flight plan

A

filing with the FAA that informs about the pilot’s identity, type of plane, number of people, departure/arrival locations and times

82
Q

IMC

A

instrument meteorological conditions; below VMC

83
Q

IFR

A

instrument flight rules; flights conducted during IMC or above 18,000 MSL

84
Q

Is a flight plan required to be filed to fly in IFR?

A

Yes; only pilots with training can fly IFR flights (i.e., in IMC or above 18,000 MSL)

85
Q

Is a flight plan required to be filed to fly above 18,000 MSL?

A

Yes

86
Q

What is the network of fixes and route connecting them called below and above 18,000 MSL, respectively?

A

Victor Airways (below), Jet Routes (above)

87
Q

What technology makes air navigation much more flexible?

A

GPS

88
Q

sectional chart

A

a chart of a route that identifies airport, weather, radio frequencies, NAVAIDs, city light patterns, terrain features, obstructions, airspace information, occasionally ground features

89
Q

Which types of flight operations use sectional charts?

A

VFR flights

90
Q

Do VFR aircraft need to follow Victor Airways?

A

No; doing so could even conflict with aircraft on IFR flight plans

91
Q

Low Altitude/High Altitude En Route charts

A

charts showing routes between NAVAIDs and minimum altitudes to maintain. Low altitude charts apply to IFR flights below 18,000 MSL; high altitude charts apply to IFR flights above 18,000 MSL

92
Q

Why do low altitude/high altitude en route charts contain little information on terrain or obstacles?

A

Because a flight plan has been filed, ATC directs pilots to avoid these

93
Q

What sources may a pilot consult for en-route weather?

A

weather stations, weather radar (if installed), communication with other pilots via pilot reports (PIREPs), airline base of operations

94
Q

What sources may a pilot consult for airport weather?

A

Airport Surface Observation Station (ASOS), Airport Weather Observation Station (AWOS), Automated Terminal Information System (ATIS) for tower-controlled airports

95
Q

visual approach

A

approach to a runway conducted during VMC that uses visual reference

96
Q

instrument approach

A

Approach to a runway conducted in either VMC or IMC in which pilot relies on avionics (instruments). Defined routes and altitudes from initial approach to landing.

97
Q

What are the FAA’s responsibilities with respect to instrument approaches?

A

establishes procedures, establishes missed approach routes, installs equipment, publishes information in instrument approach plates

98
Q

What are the two types of instrument approaches?

A

Precision and non-precision

99
Q

instrument departure procedures (DPs)

A

standard departure routes followed by pilots that intercept en-route paths

100
Q

standard terminal arrival routes (STARs)

A

standard arrival routes followed by pilots from en-route paths to airport approaches

101
Q

TERPs

A

Terminal Instrument Procedures; collection of approach procedures, instrument departure procedures, and STARs

102
Q

TERPS en-route segments typically have obstacle clearances starting at what altitude?

A

1,000 feet

103
Q

What is the standard TERPS glideslope?

A

3 degrees, or 20:1

104
Q

What is the obstacle clearance for an aircraft at the final approach fix?

A

700 feet

105
Q

What is the obstacle clearance for an aircraft at the runway threshold?

A

50 feet

106
Q

What is the most common type of airport sponsor?

A

Municipality (city or county)

107
Q

enterprise fund

A

a branch of (municipal) government that acts like a business

108
Q

Does the FAA require airports to be self-sustainable?

A

No, but it requires airports to strive toward such a goal.

109
Q

How do grant assurances restrict the use of funds generated using airport assets on airport property?

A

They require the funds to be used for airport operations and purposes.

110
Q

obligated airport

A

An airport that has accepted FAA grant money or is otherwise required (e.g., through property transfer) to adhere to to FAA grant assurances or other requirements

111
Q

Why do grant assurances exist?

A

To protect airports from political influence to the extent possible while allowing flexibility for airport to thrive in its community and act as an asset to the NAS

112
Q

What type of business relationship is common at airports but less common in municipal government?

A

Public-private partnership

113
Q

What are some of the key differences between airports as a business and private businesses?

A

Airports receive significant subsidies; airport sponsors can issue bonds; many decisions are made to serve community rather than to maximize profit

114
Q

Why are airports better able to engage in ventures such as speculative building (as opposed to municipalities)?

A

They are not dependent on local tax revenue

115
Q

What are the five most common types of airport sponsors?

A

municipality, airport authority, port authority, state, private

116
Q

What are some key questions that determine an airport sponsor’s roles and properties?

A

Who controls appointments to the sponsor’s governing body? Does the sponsor have control over budget, contracts, capital projects, and personnel? Can the sponsor levy taxes or issue bonds? Does the sponsor have the power of eminent domain?

117
Q

memorandum of understanding (MOU)

A

a legal document between multiple public agencies that defines the roles, responsibilities, and relationship between the various agencies

118
Q

What incentives for airport privatization were included in the Airport Privatization Program (1996)?

A

Congress authorized FAA to exempt the private sponsor from federal obligations to repay grants, return federally-acquired property, and use proceeds from sale or lease of land for airport purposes.

119
Q

If privatization happens outside of the Airport Privatization Program (1996), what grant assurance still applies?

A

Grant Assurance 25; sponsor may only use proceeds from sale or lease of of airport property for authorized purposes

120
Q

Which airport ownership structure has better access to local governmental resources?

A

municipality

121
Q

Which airport ownership structure can levy taxes?

A

municipality

122
Q

Which airport ownership structure may consist of decision-makers unfamiliar with the operation of airports or with split interests?

A

municipality

123
Q

Which airport ownership structure tends to be more isolated from political influence?

A

authority

124
Q

Which airport ownership structure can straddle multiple political jurisdictions?

A

authority

125
Q

Which airport ownership structure can be more business-focused?

A

authority

126
Q

Which airport ownership structure may encounter difficulties in having readily available resources and finances?

A

authority

127
Q

Which airport ownership structure may be more likely to make decisions that are not favorable to both the airport and the community?

A

municipality

128
Q

What are the three (four) groups at the top of the airport sponsor organization chart?

A

airport executive, legal counsel, auditor, (engineering)

129
Q

What are the four broad groups under the airport executive on the airport sponsor organization chart?

A

finance and administration; planning and engineering; operations, security, and maintenance; community relations, marketing, air service development

130
Q

What is another name for Title 14 CFR’s?

A

FAR’s (Federal Aviation Regulations)

131
Q

FAR Part 77

A

Safe, Efficient Use and Preservation of Navigable Airspace

132
Q

FAR Part 107

A

Small Unmanned Aircraft Systems (UAS)

133
Q

FAR Part 139

A

Topic: airport certification

134
Q

FAR Part 150

A

Topic: noise and compatibility

135
Q

FAR Part 151

A

Topic: federal aid to airports

136
Q

FAR Part 152

A

Topic: airport aid program

137
Q

FAR Part 156

A

State Block Grant Program

138
Q

FAR Part 157

A

Notice of Construction, Alteration, Activation, and Deactivation of Airports

139
Q

FAR Part 158

A

Passenger Facility Charges

140
Q

FAR Part 161

A

Notice of Approval of Airport Noise and Access Restrictions

141
Q

FAR Part 420

A

License to Operate a Launch Site

142
Q

What general topic does the Title 49 CFR Part 1500 series cover?

A

airport security regulations

143
Q

FAR Part 169

A

Expenditure of Federal Funds for Nonmilitary Airports or Air Navigation Facilities Thereon

144
Q

FAR Part 36

A

Noise Standards: Aircraft Type and Airworthiness Certification

145
Q

PAR Part 71

A

Topic: designation of Class A-E airspace, airways, routes, and reporting points

146
Q

FAR Part 73

A

Special Use Airspace

147
Q

FAR Part 91

A

Topic: aircraft operating rules (incl. private aircraft)

148
Q

FAR Part 93

A

Special Air Traffic Rules and Airport Traffic Patterns

149
Q

FAR Part 97

A

Standard Instrument Approach Procedures

150
Q

FAR Part 121

A

Topic: air carrier operating requirements

151
Q

FAR Part 125

A

Topic: certification for aircraft with 20+ pax capacity or 6,000+ payload capacity

152
Q

FAR Part 129

A

Topic: foreign air carriers

153
Q

FAR Part 135

A

Topic: commuter and on-demand operations

154
Q

NPRM

A

Notice of Proposed Rulemaking

155
Q

Notice of Proposed Rulemaking

A

Process by which an independent agency desires to add, change, or remove a federal regulation

156
Q

What are the steps in the NPRM process?

A

Draft regulations; publish in Federal Register; public comment period; responses to comments and make adjustments; re-publish in Federal Register

157
Q

When in the NPRM process does an added/modified regulation become enforceable?

A

Following the second publication in the Federal Register

158
Q

How long is the public comment period of the NPRM for minor changes? Major changes?

A

30 days; 60 days

159
Q

When is the NPRM process not required?

A

For emergency rulemaking

160
Q

What was the earliest inception of the “FAA”, created by the Air Commerce Act (1926)?

A

Aeronautics Branch of the Department of Commerce

161
Q

In 1934, the Aeronautics Branch of the Department of Commerce was renamed what?

A

Bureau of Air Commerce

162
Q

The Federal Aviation Act transferred the Civil Aeronautics Authority’s functions to which agency?

A

Federal Aviation Agency

163
Q

In 1966, the Federal Aviation Agency was renamed to what and reorganized under what federal agency?

A

Federal Aviation Administration; Department of Transportation

164
Q

How many FAA regional offices are there?

A

Nine

165
Q

What are the nine FAA regional offices?

A

New England, Eastern, Southern, Great Lakes, Central, Southwest, Northwest, Western-Pacific, Alaska

166
Q

What are the five lines of business in the FAA?

A

Airports (ARP), Air Traffic Organization (ATO), Aviation Safety (AVS), Commercial Space Transportation (AST), NextGen (ANG)

167
Q

Which FAA line of business is responsible for air traffic control and NAVAID maintenance?

A

Air Traffic Organization (ATO)

168
Q

Which FAA line of business is responsible for pilot, mechanic, and other professional certification?

A

Aviation Safety (AVS)

169
Q

Which FAA line of business approves grant and PFC applications?

A

Airports (ARP)

170
Q

Through what office do airport operators primarily interact with the FAA?

A

Airport District Office (ADO)

171
Q

What are the two methods of informal dispute resolution that an ADO may use?

A

FAA Investigative and Enforcement Procedures; Alternate Dispute Resolution (ADR)

172
Q

Flight Standards District Office (FSDO)

A

Local office that enforces regulations for aircraft and airmen certification and licensing

173
Q

Which FAA line of business does the Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) fall under?

A

Aviation Safety (AVS)

174
Q

Advisory Circular (AC)

A

Document issued by FAA to explain intent of federal regulation, to provide guidance and information, and to show acceptable methods/practices for complying with regulations

175
Q

Are Advisory Circular guidelines binding?

A

No, unless they are incorporated with reference to a regulation

176
Q

incorporation by reference

A

mentioning a second document within a document such that the terms and content of the second document apply

177
Q

Advisory Circular materials are often treated as law due to what practice?

A

Incorporation by reference of other federal aviation regulations

178
Q

Why Advisory Circulars binding for Airport Improvement Program grants?

A

AC’s are incorporated by reference in AIP grants

179
Q

Which FAA Advisory Circular series addresses airports?

A

AC/150 series

180
Q

FAA Orders

A

directives on specific subjects and programs which remain in effect until they are rescinded

181
Q

FAA Order 5190.6A

A

Airport Compliance Handbook; provides policies and procedures to follow in carrying out FAA functions related to airport compliance

182
Q

Which organization is the Airport Cooperative Research Program (ACRP) under?

A

Transportation Research Board (TRB)

183
Q

Which organization is the Program for Applied Research in Airport Security (PARAS) under?

A

National Safe Skies Alliance

184
Q

Which organization publishes Standards for Security Access Control Systems?

A

Radio Technical Commission for Aeronautics (RTCA)

185
Q

What do ACRP and PARAS research projects provide?

A

best practices for many airport operational issues

186
Q

What do RTCA standards provide?

A

regulatory requirements for airport security

187
Q

What is the main difference in content/objectives between TSA Service Directives and Information Circulars

A

Service Directives provide changing requirements to an airport’s security program, whereas Information Circulars contain intel or best practices.

188
Q

Are TSA Service Directives and Information Circulars publicly available?

A

No; they are considered sensitive security information

AAAE CM (1 decks)

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