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Ana 2nd Yr > Module 1 Micro > Flashcards

Module 1 Micro Flashcards

1
Q

The relationship between the microorganism and the host

A

Symbiosis

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2
Q

The lactobacillus in the intestine exemplifies what symbiotic relationship?

A

Mutualism

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3
Q

The stapyloccocus on the skin exemplifies what symbiotic relationship?

A

Commensalism

Staphy feeds on dead cells of the skin

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4
Q

T or F: The host is axenic ( free of microorganism) during development in the womb

A

True

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5
Q

Normal microbiota mostly established during the 1st month of life and persist thruout life

A

Resident microbiota

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6
Q

Microbiota that remain only in the body for a short period of time

A

Transcient microbiota

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7
Q

These are organisms that always cause a disease

A

Strict pathogens

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8
Q

Normal microbiota that causes disease under certain conditions

A

Opportunistic pathogens

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9
Q

The ff are conditions that provide opportunities for pathogens except :
A.introduction into unusual site in the body
B. Immune suppression
C. Relative abundance of the microorganism
D. Increase phagocytic activity

A

D

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10
Q

An ongoing process by which a central system of power dominates a certain surrounding and components. Eg. Microbes in the body

A

Colonization

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11
Q

Invasion of bacteria,viruses, and microbes in the body

A

Infection

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12
Q

What are the 4 portals of entry of microbes into host

A

Skin
Mucous membrane
Placenta
Parenteral route

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13
Q

Group of microorganisms which cells stick to each other and adhere to a surface

A

Biofilm

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14
Q

The adherent cells of a biofilm are frequently embedded within a self-produced matrix of _____________

A

Extracellular polymeric substance ( EPS)

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15
Q

__________ is the invasion of the hist by a pathogen and is considered a _________ if it alters the normal fxn of the body

A

Infection; Disease

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16
Q

The ff is true of the koch’s postulates except:
A. Pathogen can be isolated and grown in pure culture
B. Can cause the disease when inoculated into healthy animal
C. Microorganism is present in only one case of the disease
D. Pathogen is the same when isolated from the new host

A

C

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17
Q

Koch’s postulates is not feasible in all cases because
A. Some pathogen cant be cultured in lab
B. Some diseases are caused by combination of pathogen and other cofactors
C. Ethical considerations on pathogens that require human host
D. AOTA

A

D

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18
Q

It us the ability of the organism to cause disease

A

Pathogenicity

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19
Q

It is the degree of pathogenicity

A

Virulence

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20
Q 
Whcih of the ff can pathogens can cross the placenta
A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Trepenoma pallidum
C. Lentivirus
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. AOTA
A

E

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21
Q

The absence of _______ explains why west africans do not have malaria?

A

Duffy antigen

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22
Q

Determine the tissue/organ the parasite can live on

A

Tissue tropism

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23
Q

Chemical that harm tissues or trigger host immune responses that cause damage

A

Toxins

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24
Q

Refers to toxins in the bloodstream that are carried beyond the site of infection

A

Toxemia

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25
Q

Bacteria produces this toxin and kill host’s cells

A

Exotoxins

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26
Q

Dead gram negative bacteria release this toxin from lipid which induces effects like fever and inflammation

A

Endotoxins

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27
Q

Antiphagocytic factors that directly destroy phagocytic white blood cells

A

Leukocidins

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28
Q

Subjective characteristics of disease felt only by the patient

A

Symptoms

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29
Q

Objective manifestations of disease observed or measured by others

A

Signs

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30
Q

Signs and symptoms that characterize a disease

A

Syndrome

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31
Q

First Stage in infectious disease that there is no apparent signs and symptoms

A

Incubation

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32
Q

Stage of infectious disease where there is vague and general symptoms like fever

A

Prodromal period

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33
Q

A disease of period of sickness where most severe signs and symptoms are observed affecting the body and mind

A

Illness

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34
Q

Declining signs and symptoms

A

Decline period

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35
Q

Gradual recovery of health and strength after illness or injury

A

Convalescence

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36
Q

Disease in which symptoms develop rapidly and runs its course rapidly

A

Acute disease

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37
Q

Dx with usually mild symptoms that develop slowly and last long

A

Chronic dx

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38
Q

Dx with time course and symptoms between acute and chronic

A

Subacute

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39
Q

Dx that appears a long time after infection

A

Latent dx

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40
Q

Disease transmitted from 1 host to another

A

Communicable

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41
Q

Communicable dx that is easily spread

A

Contagious

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42
Q

Dx arising from outside of host or from opportunistic pathogen

A

Noncommunicable

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43
Q

Infection confined to a small region of the body

A

Local infection

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44
Q

Widespread infection often travels in blood or lymph

A

Systemic infection

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45
Q

Infection that serves as a source of pathogens for infection at other site of the body

A

Focal infection

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46
Q

Initial infection within a given patient

A

Primary infection

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47
Q

Infections that follow a primary infection, often by opportunistic pathogens

A

Secondary

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48
Q

Sites where pathogens are maintained as a source of infection

A

Reservoir of infection

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49
Q

Diseases that are naturally spread from their usual host to humans

A

Zoonoses

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50
Q

The usual dead end host of zoonotic pathogens

A

Human

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51
Q

Infected individuals who are asymptomatic but infective to others

A

Human carriers

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52
Q

What are the 3 reservoir of infection

A

Animal
Human carrier
Non-living (soil,water,food)

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53
Q

Hat are the modes of transmission of infectious disease

A

Contact
Vehicle
Vector

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54
Q

Laboratory testing underlies approximately what percent of diagnoses and treatment decisions

A

60-70%

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55
Q

T or F : lab testing is not intended to replace clinical judgement but to support individualized decision-making

A

True

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56
Q

T or F: Pathogens may be from the environment and from inside the body.

A

True

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57
Q

Morphologic exam that identify the colony and cellular morphology, growth characteristics of the pathogen

A

Microbial identification

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58
Q

A high or rising titer of specific IgG ab or presence of IgM may suggest or confirm a diagnosis. Useful in viral infections

A

Serodiagnosis

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59
Q

Microorganisms Particularly bacteria are tested in vitro to determine whether they are susceptible to antimicrobial agents. Useful in testing resistant bacteria

A

Antimicrobial susceptibility

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60
Q

What are the 3 bacterial shape

A

Cocci
Bacilli
Spirochetes

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61
Q

Cocci are arranged in 3 patterns namely:

A

Pair- diplococci
Chains- strepto
Clusters- staphylo

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62
Q

What is the smallest bacterium

A

Mycoplasma sp

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63
Q

What is the largest bacterium

A

Thiomargarita namibiensis

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64
Q

The largest medically important bacterium that cause Lyme dx

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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65
Q

All bacteria have cell wall composed of peptidoglycan layer except

A

Mycoplasma

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66
Q

The peptidoglycan layer of cw is made up of sugar backbone and peptide side chains cross-linked by

A

Transpeptidases

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67
Q

Gram + or - : Teichoic acid is unique

A

Gram positive

68
Q

Gram + or - : Presence of endotoxin/Lipopolysaccharide outer membrane

A

Gram negative

69
Q

Holds together the thick peptidoglycan layer of gram + bacteria and also serves as an anchor to the cell membrane

A

Teichoic acid

70
Q

A space between the cell membrane and peptidoglycan of gram negative bacteria

A

Periplasmic space

71
Q

What is the only gram positive organism that has endotoxin?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

72
Q

The outer membrane of the gram neg bacteria contains

A

Endotoxins

73
Q

A gram _______ can cause inflammation because it consist of lipid A and O antigen that induce IL-1 and TNF

A

Negative

74
Q

Steps in gram staining

A

Primary stain
Mordant
Decolorizing agent
Counterstain

Remember: VIAS

75
Q

Mycobacteriae uses _________ stain because there is too juch lipid in cw so dye cannot penetrate

A

Acid-fast

76
Q

Used in spirochetes because they are too thin to see

A

Darkfield microscopy

77
Q

What organism is staining techniques are nit applicable bec of lacking cw

A

Mycoplasma spp

78
Q

Used in Legionella sp because of poor uptake of counterstain

A

Silver stain

79
Q

Staining used in Chlamydiae to observe inclusion bodies and Rickettsiae

A

Giemsa stain

80
Q

It is the propagation of microorganisms in media conducive to their growth

A

Culture

81
Q

A nutritive substance where culture of microorganisms are grown

A

Culture medium

82
Q

Agar used to isolate various gram positive cocci. Also determines pattern of hemolysis

A

Blood agar

83
Q

Agar has property of differentiating lactose fermenters and nonfermenters and select gram positive bacteria

A

MacConkey

Eosin methylene blue

84
Q

Agar distinguishes lactose fermenters from nonfermenters and H2S producers from non-producers

A

Triple sugar iron (TSI)

85
Q

Memorize: agars
Clostridium perfringens- egg yolk
Corynebacterium diphtheriae-tellurite
Strep group D - bile esculin
Staphy- mannitol salts
N. Meningitis and gonorrhoeae (sterile site)- chocolate
N. gonorrhoeae (nonsterile site) -Thayer- martin
H. Influenzae - chocolate + factors X and V

A

Memorize

86
Q

Media designed for the recovery of specific organisms that may be present in a mixture of other organisms.

A

Selective media

87
Q

Factor disks impregnanted with hemin and NAD used in the differentiation of Haemophilus species

A

Factors X & V

88
Q

What is the main component if chocolate agar

A

Heated and oxidized sheep’s blood

89
Q

Thus test determines whether antibodies are present in px serum and detect the antigens of organism in tissues or body fluids

A

Serologic test

90
Q

Test that is Highly specific, quite sensitive and much faster than culture useful for bacteria that are difficult to culture

A

Molecular test

91
Q

Diagnostic method that uses antigen-antibody rxn as the primary means of detection

A

Immunodiagnostics

92
Q

More specific and cumbersome to perform technique that uses flourescein- labeled antibodies used in rabies test

A

Immunoflourescent(IF) antibody staining

Direct and indirect

93
Q

Give example of nontreponemal screening tests for syphilis

A

VDRL( venereal dx research lab)

RPR( rapid plasma reagin)

94
Q

Confirmatory test that measure antibodies against T pallidum antigens

A

Treponemal antibody test

95
Q

More sensitive where each primary antibody contains several epitopes bound to secondary antibody allowing for signal amplification

A

Indirect ELISA

96
Q

Similar to ELISA but uses radiolabeled ab not enzyme and uses gamma counter to measure radioactive signal not spectro in measuring color change

A

RIA

97
Q

Primarily directed at the detection of carbohydrate antigens of encapsulated microorganism used in the diagnosis of gr A strep pharyngitis

A

Latex agglutination

98
Q

Performed to detect antibodies against specific antigen based upon the electrophoretic separation of major proteins in a 2-D agarose gel. Used for HIV confirmatory test

A

Western blot immunoassay

99
Q

Helically coiled protein subunit of flagella

A

Flagellin

100
Q

Pattern of flagella that surrounds the prokaryote

A

Peritrichous

101
Q

Flagella contain this antigen used for virulence

A

H antigen

102
Q

What are the functions of flagella

A

Chemotaxis
Phototaxis
Periplasmic flagella

103
Q

Organ of attachment for cells and surfaces

A

Fimbriae

104
Q

Appendage that facilitate transfer of DNA and cell adhesion with protein subunits called pilins

A

Pili

105
Q

Attachment of donor and recipient cells in bacterial conjugation

A

Sex pili

106
Q

Serves as protection from wall degrading enzymes

A

Slimy layer

107
Q

High tensile strength for osmotic protection. Composed of peptidoglycan and determines the shape of bacteria

A

Cell wall

108
Q

Gram positive bacteria have _______% of peptidoglycan cell wall

A

50%

109
Q

Component of the cell membrane that increase internal surface, cw synthesis, and guide in duplication of bacterial chromosome

A

Mesosomes

110
Q

What are the fxn of the cell membrane

A 
Regulate transport
Respiration
Release
Reproduction
Receptor
111
Q

What is the structure of Prokaryotic ribosome

A

70s ( 30s and 50s)

112
Q

Reservoir of structural building blocks

A

Inclusions, granules

113
Q

Rich in iron and nickel used in the orientation of south and north

A

Magnetosomes

114
Q

Aggregate of chromosome without nuclear membrane composed of Circular DNA

A

Nucleoid

115
Q

These are tiny, circular extra chromosomal structures used in modern genetic engineering techniques

A

Plasmids

116
Q

A polymer of ribitol or glyceroland phosphate embedded in the peptidoglycan of gram positive bacteria

A

Teichoic acid

117
Q

These are special outer membrane channels in gram neg bacteria

A

Porin proteins

118
Q

Phases of growth

A

Lag phase
Log/exponential
Stationary
Death

119
Q

The average time required for the population or biomass to double

A

Generation time or doubling time

120
Q

Rate of growth is equal to

A

Growth rate constant x biomass concentration

121
Q

A process of propagating organisms by providing the proper environmental condition

A

Cultivation

122
Q

He carried out experiments in an 8yr old boy that solidify the birth of immunology

A

Edward jenner

123
Q

Cell mediated immunity id mediated by

A

WBC or leukocytes

124
Q

Primary lymphoid tissues

A

Bone marrow

Thymus

125
Q

These are host macromolecules that are released during damage, injury or trauma

A

DAMPs

126
Q

Common molecular signatures found on the cell surface of pathogen

A

PAMPs

127
Q

Recognize DAMPs and PAMPs gives innate immune response. Broad recognition

A

Pattern recognition molecules(PRM)

128
Q

The speed and strength of response is exactly the same upon second exposure; no memory

A

Innate

129
Q

Enzyme that hydrolyzes bacterial cell wall found in tears and mucous

A

Lysozyme

130
Q

Small iron-chelating molecules produced by microbes attempting to grow under low iron conditions

A

Siderophores

131
Q

Protein that captures iron-bound bacterial siderophores

A

Lipocalin

132
Q

A collection of 30 serum proteins that make up co plex system of functionally related enzymes

A

Complement system

133
Q

4 principal outcomes of complement activation

A
  1. Lysis of pathogens
  2. Opsonization
    3 clearance of immune complexes
    4 generation of peptide by products in inflammatory response
134
Q

What is the key feature of the complement activation

A

Amplification

135
Q

B fragments are all enzymatic except

A

C2a

136
Q

Allows the terminal complement components to come together and assemble the MAC

A

C3b

137
Q

Classical pw, a more specific pw, is triggered when antigen present on parhogen surface bind to antibody, this abis bound by complement component ______

A

C1

138
Q

C1 is composed of what subunits

A

1 C1q
2 C1r
2 C1s

139
Q

What is the classical C3 convertase?

A

C4bC2a

140
Q

What is the classical C5 convertase

A

C4bC2aC3b

141
Q

What binds to CHO moities in pathogens in lectin pw

A

MBL

142
Q

What cleaves C4 and C2 in lectin pw

A

MASP

143
Q

What is the alternative C3 convertase

A

C3bBb

144
Q

What binds to C3 convertase complex forming alternative C3 convertase (C3bBbP)

A

Properdin

145
Q

What is the alternative C5 convertase

A

C3bBbPC3b

146
Q

What stabilizes the mac complex

A

C6

147
Q

Exposes hydrophobic regions facilitating penetration into the pathogens pm

A

C7

148
Q

Stabilizes complex within membrane and initiatespore formation

A

C8

149
Q

How many molecules of C9 complete the MAC

A

Atleast 4

150
Q

Other fxns of c3b

A

Opsonin (CR1)
Transport
Viral neutralization

151
Q

At high systemic conc it induces cv and bronchial effects that resemble anaphylaxis

A

Anaphylatoxins ( C3a, c4a, c5a)

152
Q

_____ is a powerful chemoattractant for neutrophils and stimulate the respi burst and degranulation and plays an indirect role in adaptive immunity

A

C5a

153
Q

______ and _____ increase the secretion of pro inflam cytokines IL1 and IL6

A

C5a and C3a

154
Q

What are the complement activation control

A

Serum zymogens
Short life
Numerous rca( reg of complement act pr oteins

155
Q

Initiates intracellular signalling

A

PRR

156
Q

What are the 2 pattern recog molecules that are extracellular

A

Collectins

Acute phase proteins

157
Q

First free cytoplasmic PRR identified as detecting PAMPs of intracellular pathogens

A

NOD1

NOD2

158
Q

Three basic domains of NLR

A

C terminal
Central
N- terminal

159
Q

Multimeric complexes rpthat activate caspases, proteases that routinely maintained within resting cells in zymogen form as procaspases

A

Inflammasomes

160
Q

Cytosolic prm taht specifically recognize intracellular viral rna taht are outside any mem-bound compartment

A

RIG1-like receptors (RLR)

161
Q

Act as lectins which bind to carb moities such as mannose and fucose

A

CLR

162
Q

CLr group containing members of mannose receptor family seen in Tb, pneumonia,hiv, dengue

A

Group I

163
Q

Bind to wide variety of lipid related ligands derived from pathogen or damaged cells

A

Scavenger receptors (SR)

164
Q

Fxn as adhesive receptor expressed on leukocyte,endothelial cells, non hematopeietic cells

A

RAGE

165
Q

Prm freely floating made up of collagen domain, mediate pathogen clearance by uptake of phagocytic cells or agglutination

A

Collectins

MBL most common

Ana 2nd Yr (1 decks)

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