Module 1 Intro, Cell Comp & Function, Communication, Transport etc. Flashcards

1
Q

the study of the body’s response to altered function or disease

A

Pathophysiology

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2
Q

“disease,” and is the study of the structural and functional changes that occur in cells, tissues, and organs of the body as a result of disease processes.

A

Pathology

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3
Q

the study of body function

A

Physiology

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4
Q

an illness leading to abnormal physiological function of an organ, body structure, or an entire system

A

Disease

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5
Q

the causes of a disease

A

Etiologic Factors

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6
Q

List Etiologic factors

A

physical forces
chemical agents
biologic agents
genetic predisposition
nutritional excesses or deficiencies

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7
Q

Give an example of Etiologic factors for physical forces

A

trauma, burns, radiation

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8
Q

Give an example of Etiologic factors for chemical agents

A

poisons, alcohol

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9
Q

Give an example of Etiologic factors for biologic agents

A

bacteria, viruses

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10
Q

predispose someone to a given disease

A

Risk factors

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11
Q

What are the 2 categories of Risk factors & what do they mean?

A

Congenital = present at birth
Acquired = occur after birth

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12
Q

the development of a disease process

A

Pathogenesis

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13
Q

At what level does pathogenesis occur?

A

at the cellular & tissue level

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14
Q

the structure of cells or tissues

A

Morphology

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15
Q

the study of cells at the tissue level

A

Histology

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16
Q

a pathologic or traumatic injury of an organ or tissue

A

lesion

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17
Q

the ways a disease presents itself

A

Clinical Manifestations

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18
Q

How can you obtain clinical manifestations?

A

it can be seen
heard through physical examination
and taking patient history

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19
Q

What terms are used to describe the changes that coincide with a disease?

A

signs & symptoms

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20
Q

an objective manifestation that can be seen and/or measured by the observer

A

Sign

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21
Q

a subjective complaint as told by the person experiencing them

A

Symptom

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22
Q

What’s an example of a symptom?

A

the experience of pain, difficulty breathing, sensation of dizziness

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23
Q

What’s an example of a clinical sign?

A

fever, edema of an extremity or joint, changes in pupil size, or heightened/diminished reflexes

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24
Q

a group of multiple signs and symptoms occurring together

A

Syndrome

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25
potential adverse effects of a disease and/or treatment
Complications
26
lesions or impairments that follow or are caused by a particular disease
Sequela
27
the process of identifying the cause of a given health problem or disease
Diagnosis
28
List some the diagnostic process
a careful and thorough patient history, physical examination (PE), and sometimes diagnostic testing
29
How is confirmation of a diagnosis made?
through the use of laboratory tests and appropriate imaging techniques including X-ray, MRI, and computed tomography (CT) scans etc.
30
statistically determined from test results obtained from a select sample of the population
"normal" value for a lab test
31
What are the lab parameters?
reliability, validity, sensitivity, and specificity of the measurement
32
how a tool measures what it is intended to measure
Validity
33
the likelihood of the same result occurring with repeated testing
Reliability
34
the proportion of people with a disease who test positive for that disease
Sensitivity
35
people without the disease who test negative for that disease
Specificity
36
Which is considered a "true-positive" result? a) normal b) validity c) reliability d) sensitivity e) specificity
d) sensitivity
37
Which is considered a "true-negative" result? a) normal b) validity c) reliability d) sensitivity e) specificity
e) specificity
38
the ability of a test result or observation to predict the presence of a given disease or condition
Predictive value
39
What is a positive predictive value?
the proportion of true-positive results that occurs in a given population
40
What is a negative predictive value?
the true negatives in a given population
41
Predictive values rely on what? (list all that apply) a) normal b) validity c) reliability d) sensitivity e) specificity
d & e (sensitivity & specificity)
42
the development of a disease
clinical course
43
What are the categories for clinical course?
1) acute, 2) chronic 3) subacute
44
somewhat severe, but self-limiting
acute disorder
45
long-term, usually continuous, with exacerbations of symptoms and remissions
chronic disease
46
in between the two, not as severe or prolonged as acute or chronic
subacute disease
47
the study of disease occurrence in human populations
Epidemiology
48
Name somethings epidemiology tracks
It tracks age, race, dietary habits, lifestyle, or geographic location.
49
a measurement used to predict whether a disease is on the rise or in decline
Disease frequency
50
What is a disease case?
it can either be an existing case or the number of new episodes of an illness
51
What 2 things that help measure disease frequency?
Prevalence & Incidence
52
What is the number of people with the disease in a population in a given time?
Prevalence
53
How is prevalence calculated?
by dividing the number of existing cases by the current population
54
What is the number of new cases in a population at risk during a specified time?
Incidence
55
How is incidence determined?
by dividing the number of new cases of a disease by the population at risk for getting the disease in a time frame
56
How are incidence and prevalence reported as?
rates – cases per 100 or cases per 100,000
57
What is the difference between incidence and prevalence?
Incidence is the number of new cases in a population at risk during a specified time. Prevalence is the number of people with the disease in a population in a given time.
58
What is the effect of an illness on one's life called?
Morbidity
59
What statistics deal with the cause of death in a population called?
Mortality
60
What is the progression of that particular disease when no treatment is provided called?
The natural history of a disease
61
What does the natural history of a disease do?
Information regarding the natural history of a disease guides the formulation of effective treatment plans as well as the development of preventative measures
62
What is the predicted outcome and likelihood of recovery from a disease called?
Prognosis
63
What 3 ways is disease prevention categorized?
1) primary 2) secondary 3) tertiary prevention
64
What is Primary prevention do?
attempts to eliminate risk factors in order to prevent disease from occurring
65
What's an example of primary prevention?
-daily multi-vitamin to prevent nutritional deficiencies -vaccinating children to prevent disease -having a yearly wellness check up with your primary care physician etc.
66
What is Secondary prevention do?
aims to detect and treat disease early, usually while the disease is asymptomatic and curable
67
What's an example of secondary prevention?
-going to the doctor for an annual Pap smear to detect early cervical cancer -colonoscopy screenings beginning at a certain age for all and earlier if it runs in one’s family - education to promote smoking cessation, or monitoring blood pressure and cholesterol levels through yearly wellness exams
68
What is Tertiary prevention do?
occurs after a diagnosis has been made, and clinical intervention is needed to reduce complications and/or deterioration
69
What's an example of tertiary prevention?
the use of prescribed medication after a heart attack to reduce the risk of a future event or death
70
the conscientious reliance on current best, scientific evidence in making decisions regarding the care of individual patients
Evidence-based practice
71
What's the point for Evidence-based practice?
This is to counteract “the way things have always been done,” and to practice based on clinical research findings. Clinical practice guidelines are algorithms and written directives aimed to inform practitioners on how to best deliver health care in certain circumstances.
72
What is the smallest functional unit of life?
the cell
73
Cells that share similar functions are organized into what?
tissues
74
List the 3 primary structures that are considered the functional components of eukaryotic cells
1) the nucleus 2) the cytoplasm 3) the plasma membrane
75
What is the command center of the cell and contains hereditary material in the form of DNA and RNA?
nucleus
76
it's essential for the life of the cell. Its genes encode information necessary for protein synthesis
deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
77
What 3 types of houses does the nucleus house of ribonucleic acid?
1) messenger RNA (mRNA) 2) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) 3) transfer RNA (tRNA)
78
What moves to the cytoplasm and carry out the synthesis of proteins?
ribonucleic acids
79
What is the complex structure of DNA-associated proteins contained in the nuclear matrix called?
Chromatin
80
Evidence suggesting that an alteration in WHAT along with DNA hypermethylation, leads to the progression of neoplasms
chromatin
81
Where can the nucleolus be found?
inside the nucleus
82
It is here that rRNA is processed and assembled into ribosomes
nucleolus
83
What are nucleoli comprised of?
chromosomes; each containing part of the genetic code
84
How many different chromosomes is nucleoli comprised of?
5
85
What surrounds the nucleus and contains two nuclear membranes?
nuclear envelope
86
What does the nuclear envelope do?
Certain materials will move in both directions through its nuclear pores
87
What kind of materials can move in both directions through the nuclear envelope?
fluids, electrolytes, RNA, proteins, and hormones
88
Where are most cellular functions carried out?
in the cytoplasm
89
The cytoplasm is a solution containing what?
water, electrolytes, proteins, fats, and glycogen molecules
90
What 5 organelles are found within the cytoplasm?
1) the ribosomes 2) the ER 3) the Golgi complex 4) the mitochondria 5) the lysosomes
91
What is the site of protein synthesis in the cell?
ribosomes
92
What is an extensive system of interconnected membranes and flat vesicles that connect various parts of the cell?
endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
93
It functions as a transportation system for substances throughout the cell
endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
94
What can the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) be subdivided into?
the rough & smooth ER
95
What carries ribosomes and functions to synthesize lysosomal enzymes?
rough ER
96
Where are lipids, lipoproteins, and steroid hormones are made?
smooth ER
97
Does the smooth ER carry ribosomes?
no
98
Digestive enzymes from the pancreas and plasma proteins from the liver cells are both made in the rough ER or smooth ER?
rough ER
99
What has enzymes that synthesize lipid molecules, regulate intracellular calcium, and metabolize and detoxify certain hormones and drugs? The rough or smooth ER?
smooth ER
100
T/F If proteins accumulate faster than they can be processed, the ER can become damaged. If the cell cannot slow down protein production to a point where homeostasis is restored, inflammation and cell death can occur.
TRUE
101
What are some diseases have been linked to damaged ER?
inflammatory bowel disease, myositis, and a genetic form of diabetes mellitus.
102
What takes the substances produced in the ER, modify them, and package them into secretory granules or vesicles?
Golgi apparatus/Golgi complex
103
What is the Golgi apparatus or Golgi complex composed of?
stacks of thin, flattened vesicles or sacs
104
What serves as the digestive capacity of the cell?
lysosomes
105
How does lysosomes digest and what?
Their small sacs contain powerful hydrolytic enzymes that can break down cell excess, worn cellular components, and foreign substances
106
What happens when a lysosome is in a diseased state?
it results in the inability to digest certain cellular substances which then leads to a potentially toxic accumulation within the cell
107
When fully functional, what vital role do lysosomes play?
in the normal metabolism of certain substances
108
What 2 ways do lysosomes break down phagocytosed material?
heterophagy or autophagy
109
What is heterophagy?
digestion of a substance phagocytosed from outside of the cell
110
How does heterophagy work?
The cell membrane folds inward taking the external materials into the cell to form a phagosome.
111
What cells use heterophagy (this type of phagocytosis)?
Neutrophils & macrophages
112
Where are neutrophils & macrophages found?
white blood cells
113
What is autophagy?
the digestion of damaged cellular organelles
114
How does autophagy work?
Secondary lysosomes can break down most proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids
115
Where is autophagy best seen in?
cells undergoing atrophy
116
What happens to those they (secondary lysosomes that use autophagy) can't break down?
remains in the cytoplasm as residual bodies and leave the cell via exocytosis.
117
What is an aid in the control of free radicals?
peroxisomes
118
Are peroxisomes larger or smaller than lysosomes?
smaller
119
What would happen if peroxisomes didn't do their job?
these highly unstable chemical compounds would damage other cytoplasmic molecules
120
What else do peroxisomes do?
They break down hydrogen peroxide to water, long-chain fatty acids, and help in the formation of bile acids.
121
What small organelles are made of protein complexes that are also involved in the breakdown of proteins?
proteasomes
122
What do proteasomes target?
mis-formed proteins or polypeptide chains that do not meet quality control of the cell
123
What transforms organic compounds (energy in food) into cellular energy?
mitochondria
124
What is the process called when organic compounds (energy in food) into cellular energy?
cellular respiration (AKA aerobi metabolism)
125
What does cellular respiration need in order to work?
oxygen
126
What is ATP (adenosine triphosphate) used for?
to fuel cellular activities
127
Do mitochondria play a role in apoptosis or programmed cell death?
yes
128
What happens if apoptosis isn't appropriately regulated (damaged or malfunctioning cells are not removed)?
disease states will occur
129
What diseases is apoptosis often seen in?
cancers where cells are allowed to abnormally divide due to low rate of apoptosis
130
Where does a high rate of apoptosis occur?
in degenerative disease processes
131
What is a network of microtubules, microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and thick filaments which work together to control cell shape and movement?
cytoskeleton
132
What are microtubules made of?
subunits called tubulin
133
What do the subunits of microtubules do?
they can disassemble in one location and reassemble in another
134
What are the 3 functions of microtubules's subunits?
1) the maintenance of cell form 2) intracellular transport 3) the formation of cellular structures such as centrioles, basal bodies, cilia, and flagella
135
What are centrioles & basal bodies made of?
they are structurally identical organelles made of microtubules
136
What do centrioles do?
During cell division, centrioles form the mitotic spindle that helps to separate and move the chromosomes
137
What do basal bodies do?
help to form the organized microtubules found in cilia and flagella
138
What are cilia & flagella?
microtubule-filled cellular extensions
139
What do cilia & flagella do?
they function in cell motility
140
What's the difference in the amount of cells between ciliated cells and flagellated cells?
Ciliated cells have many cilia, while flagellated cells typically only have one flagellum, often seen as a whip-like tail.
141
In the human body what only contains flagella?
male sperm
142
Where in the human body can cilia be found?
cilia can be found: -on many epithelial linings such as: -the nasal sinuses and bronchi in the upper respiratory system -photoreceptors of the eye -odorant receptors of the olfactory system -hair cells in the inner ear
143
What happens if cilia become immotile?
diseases can occur
144
What are microfilaments?
thin, threadlike structures that provide support to the cell
145
How many types of microfilaments are there?
3
146
What are the 3 types of microfilaments?
-Thin microfilaments -Intermediate filaments -Thick myosin filaments
147
Where are thick myosin filaments primarily found?
in muscle cells
148
What is the plasma cell membrane?
a semipermeable membrane that separates the intracellular contents of the cell from the extracellular environment
149
What is the function of the plasma cell membrane?
-regulating the movement of materials in and out of the cell -aiding in the regulation of cell growth and division -housing hormone receptors which facilitate the conduction of electrical currents in nerve and muscle cells
150
What is the cell membrane comprised of?
lipids, carbs, proteins
151
Approx. 75% of lipids in the cell membrane are what?
phospholipids
152
While lipids give structure to the cell membrane, proteins do what?
carry out the cellular functions
153
Integral proteins are also called what?
transmembrane proteins
154
What is the function of integral proteins?
to transport molecules across
155
Do Peripheral proteins pass through?
no
156
What do peripheral proteins do?
they serve as receptors and intracellular signaling systems
157
What is the glycocalyx?
the "cell coat"
158
How does glycocalyx appear under a microscope?
a fuzzy layer surrounding the cell surface
159
What is the function of the glycocalyx?
the cell coat functions in cell-to-cell recognition and adhesion
160
What surrounds the nucleus and contains 2 nuclear membranes?
nuclear envelope
161
What is the site of protein synthesis in the cell?
ribosomes
162
What takes the substances produced in the ER, modify them, and package them into secretory granules or vesicles?
Golgi apparatus
163
What is the site where rRNA is processed and assembled into ribosomes?
Nucleolus
164
What is the Complex structure of DNA-associated proteins contained in the nuclear matrix?
Chromatin
165
What is the Transportation system for substances throughout the cell?
Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
166
What serves as the digestive capacity of the cell?
Lysosomes
167
What is the tightly regulated system of transmitting information between cells called?
cell signaling
168
What depends on hormones carried in the bloodstream to act on cells throughout the body?
Endocrine signaling
169
What occurs when enzymes metabolize chemical mediators, producing a change in neighboring cells?
Paracrine signaling
170
What occurs when a cell releases a chemical into the extracellular fluid that affects its own activity?
Autocrine signaling
171
What is a specialized system that occurs in the nervous system as neurotransmitters act on adjacent nerve cells through synapses, which are small gaps or junctions between the nerve cells?
Synaptic signaling
172
Once a signal is received, a process referred to as what happens?
receptor activation
173
What's the next step after receptor activation?
the signal generates a cascade of events leading to a physiological response.
174
Receptors can be activated by what?
- neurotransmitters - steroids - protein hormones - growth factors - and/or other chemical messengers
175
Primary activators are referred to as what?
first messengers
176
What is required when the initial activation of the receptor is insufficient for carrying out the signaling pathway?
a secondary messenger
177
What describes the additional intracellular mechanisms employed by the cell to achieve the physiological response?
second messengers
178
What can also be used to increase the specificity of the signal, ensuring only the areas within a tightly regulated system are activated?
second messengers
179
Many secondary messengers are proteins and have the unique ability to do what?
change shape (confirmation)
180
What process is when there are too many chemical messengers present, the number of active receptors decreases?
down-regulation
181
When the messengers are lacking, the number of active receptors increases through what?
up-regulation
182
What are the 3 known classes of cell surface receptor proteins?
1) G-protein-linked 2) enzyme-linked 3) ion-channel-linked
183
What cell surface receptor protein are the largest in number?
G-protein-linked receptors
184
What are the G proteins function?
as an on-off switch to convert external signals (first messengers) into internal signals (second messengers)
185
What receptors are also involved in the function of growth factors?
Enzyme-linked receptors
186
What also have their ligand-binding site on the outside of the cell membrane?
Enzyme-linked receptors
187
What respond to increased sodium-potassium exchange, calcium influx, and stimulation of glucose and amino acid uptake?
Enzyme-linked receptors
188
What receptors can be found in nerve cells and muscle cells?
Ion-channel-linked receptors
189
These cells are considered “excitable cells”
Ion-channel-linked receptors
190
Neurotransmitters use this type of signaling to open or close ion channels formed by integral proteins in the cell membrane.
Ion-channel-linked receptors
191
What receptors have rapid synaptic signaling?
Ion-channel-linked receptors
192
What often reside in the cytoplasmic side of the membrane?
Intracellular receptors
193
What are often activated by hormones capable of by moving directly across the membrane, rather than binding to surface receptors?
Intracellular receptors
194
What acts as a barrier, controlling what substances can enter and leave the cell?
cell membrane
195
T/F movement through the cell can occur passively or actively
TRUE
196
What does passive cell movement mean?
without using energy
197
What does active cell movement mean?
using energy
198
Does the cell membrane have the capacity to engulf a particle?
Yes
199
By what can the cell membrane engulf a particle so it can be moved in or out of a cell?
endocytosis (in) or exocytosis (out)
200
A difference in the number of particles on either side of the membrane creates a what?
chemical gradient
201
A difference in charged particles or ions creates a what?
electrical gradient
202
As particles can influence both, they are collectively referred to as a(n) what?
electrochemical gradient
203
What are the 3 processes of passive movement?
1) diffusion 2) osmosis 3) facilitated diffusion
204
What is the process by which molecules move from an area of higher concentration on one side of the membrane to an area of lower concentration on the other side?
Diffusion
205
What flow of molecules continues until they are equally distributed (their concentrations are equal) on both sides of the membrane?
Diffusion
206
What process through the membrane often occurs easily with lipid-soluble molecules like oxygen, alcohol, carbon dioxide, and fatty acids?
Diffusion
207
The number of openings in the cell membrane can determine how fast or slow transport occurs is for what passive movement?
Diffusion
208
T/F Temperature also affects diffusion, as diffusion rates increase in direct proportion to increased temperatures.
True
209
What is the movement of water from an area of low solute (few substances dissolved in water) to an area of high solute (many particles in the water) concentration until an equilibrium is achieved?
Osmosis
210
What are the channels called that water moves through during osmosis?
aquaporins
211
What is the pressure that water generates as it moves through the membrane?
osmotic pressure
212
What uses a transport protein to help lipid insoluble or large molecules pass through the membrane, that otherwise would not be able to pass through?
Facilitated diffusion
213
What are made of integral proteins that span the width of the cell membrane?
Ion channels
214
What is used when cells use energy to move ions against an electrical or chemical gradient?
Active transport
215
This pump moves sodium from inside the cell to the extracellular region and returns potassium to the inside of the cell.
the sodium-potassium (Na+/K+)-ATPase pump
216
Energy used for this process occurs by splitting the high-energy phosphate bond in ATP by the enzyme ATPase
the sodium-potassium (Na+/K+)-ATPase pump
217
If the active transport process used for the the sodium-potassium (Na+/K+)-ATPase pump did not occur, what would happen?
sodium would remain in the cell and water would follow, causing the cell to swell
218
What are the 2 types of active transport systems?
Primary active transport & Secondary active transport
219
What uses ATP directly to transport a substance?
Primary active transport
220
What uses energy that is derived from the primary active transport of one substance, usually sodium, for the cotransport of a second substance?
Secondary active transport
221
What is developed when sodium leave the cell by a primary active transport?
a concentration gradient
222
What are the 2 groups of secondary active transport?
Cotransport (support) & Counter-transport (antiport)
223
What systems consist of sodium ions and the solute being transported in the same direction?
Contransport (symport)
224
What system consist of sodium ions and the solute being transported in the opposite direction?
Counter-transport (antiport)
225
What transport is used in the intestine when glucose and amino acid absorption is paired with sodium transport?
counter-transport (antiport)
226
What occurs when a molecule outside of the cell is enclosed in an invagination of the cell membrane forming a vesicle inside the cell?
Endocytosis
227
Endocytosis includes what 2 processes?
pinocytosis & phagocytosis
228
What is considered “cell drinking”?
pinocytosis
229
What is considered "cell eating"?
phagocytosis
230
What process engulfs small solid or fluid particles such as proteins and electrolytes?
pinocytosis
231
What process is when the membrane engulfs and then kills microorganisms or other particulate matter?
phagocytosis
232
What type of white blood cells are programmed to use phagocytosis?
Macrophages and leukocytes (particularly neutrophils)
233
What is the difference in voltage between the inside and outside of a cell?
A membrane potential
234
What is needed in in nerve and muscle cells are needed to generate nerve impulses, or action potentials and muscular contractions?
membrane potentials
235
In other cells, changes in the membrane potential can cause what?
hormone secretion
236
What is defined as the ability of separated electrical charges of opposite polarity (+ and -) to do work and is measured in volts (V)?
Electrical potential
237
What is the difference between the separated charges?
Potential difference
238
The accumulation of the ions on the surface of the membrane contributes to what?
the resting membrane potential (RMP)
239
What describes the voltage generated by ions that diffuse across the cell membrane?
diffusion potential
240
What occurs when the diffusion and electrical forces are balanced on both sides of the membrane?
an equilibrium potential
241
What are the collective organization of many cells with similar origin and/or function?
tissues
242
What are the 4 types of tissue?
1) Epithelial tissue 2) Connective tissue 3) Muscle tissue 4) Nervous tissue
243
What covers the body’s outer surface, lines the inner surfaces, and forms glandular tissue?
Epithelial tissue
244
What has 3 distinct surfaces and the basal surface is attached to an underlying basement membrane?
Epithelial tissue
245
What is avascular (lacking its own blood vessels)?
Epithelial tissue
246
What rests on connective tissue and draws oxygen and nutrients from the capillaries?
Epithelial tissue
247
What are the shapes of epithelial tissue?
1) squamous 2) cuboidal 3) columnar
248
What epithelial tissue is shaped resembling a column?
columnar
249
What epithelial tissue is shaped thin and flat?
squamous
250
What epithelial tissue is cube shaped?
cuboidal
251
What is a single layer of cells (epithelial tissue) classified as?
simple
252
What is more than one layer of cells (epithelial tissue) classified as?
stratified
253
What is epithelial tissue classified as when all cells are in contact with the basement membrane, but does not extend to the surface?
pseudostratified
254
What tissue produces the extracellular matrix that supports and holds tissues together?
connective tissue
255
What are the 2 types of connective tissue?
1) connective tissue proper 2) specialized connective tissue
256
What type of connective tissue includes cartilage, bone, and blood cells?
Specialized connective tissue
257
What are the 4 types of connective tissue proper?
1) loose (areolar) 2) adipose 3) reticular 4) dense connective tissue.
258
What functions to move the skeletal structures, pump blood through the heart and contract the blood vessels and visceral organs?
muscle tissue
259
What are the 2 types of fibers that produce contractions for muscle tissue?
thin & thick filaments
260
What filament are myosin?
thick
261
What filament are called actin?
thin
262
What are the 3 types of muscle tissue?
1) skeletal 2) cardiac 3) smooth
263
What is found throughout the body and is used for communication between peripheral tissues and the central nervous system?
nervous tissue
264
What provides the means for controlling body function and for sensing and moving about the environment in response to internal and external stimuli?
nervous tissue
265
What are the 2 types of nervous tissue?
neurons & glial cells
266
What nervous tissue's function is communication?
neurons
267
What cells support the neurons?
glial (meaning glue) cells
268
What are within tissues that hold cells together called?
cell junctions
269
What are spaces between cells that are filled with extracellular matrix?
cell junctions
270
Adhesion molecules form what?
intercellular contacts
271
What are important to form the shape of the body and to create pathways for communication?
cell junctions
272
What are made mostly of epithelial tissue?
cell junctions
273
What are the 3 basic types of intercellular junctions?
1) tight junctions 2) adhering junctions 3) gap junctions
274
What prevents cell separation by forming a strong adhesion between cells?
Adhering junctions
275
What join neighboring cell membranes by forming channels in the cytoplasm of each cell?
gap junctions
276
What are found in epithelial tissue. They keep fluids from entering the intercellular spaces by connecting neighboring cells?
tight junctions
277
T/F The cell is NOT able to adapt to changes in the internal environment when stressors arise.
False
278
T/F If the stress becomes too great, or the cell cannot adapt effectively, cell injury and death can occur.
True
279
What 3 ways can cells adapt?
1) changing in size 2) changing in number 3) changing type or form
280
What cell adaptation is metaplasia and dysplasia?
the changing of type or form
281
What cell adaptation is atrophy and hypertrophy?
the changing of size
282
What cell adaptation is hyperplasia?
the changing in number
283
What is a decrease in the size of an organ or tissue resulting from a decrease in the mass of pre-existing cells?
Atrophy
284
What is the result of disuse, nutritional or oxygen deprivation, aging, diminished endocrine stimulation, or denervation (lack of nerve stimulation in peripheral muscles caused by injury to motor nerves?
atrophy
285
What can be caused by a decrease in cell number or a decrease in cell size?
atrophy
286
What is an increase in the size of an organ or tissue due to the increase in size of the cells that comprise it?
Hypertrophy
287
Cell size is often related to what?
workload
288
An increase in workload (stress) brings about an increase in what?
cell size
289
During WHAT, protein synthesis and the size and/or number of intracellular organelles are all increased?
hypertrophy
290
What can occur under normal physiologic or pathologic conditions as seen with the enlargement of the left ventricle in someone with a diagnosis of heart disease?
hypertrophy
291
What is an increase in the size of an organ or tissue caused by an increase in the number of cells making up that organ or tissue?
Hyperplasia
292
What can progress to dysplasia and eventually cancer?
pathologic hyperplasia
293
What is the replacement of one differentiated tissue by another?
Metaplasia
294
What usually occurs in response to chronic irritation and inflammation?
metaplasia
295
What transformation of cells allows for a higher likelihood of survival in a less than optimal environment?
metaplasia
296
T/F metaplasia is NOT reversible
false
297
What is abnormal cellular growth, resulting in cells that vary in size, shape, and organization?
dysplasia
298
What can occur under persistent stress?
dysplasia
299
What is most often refers to proliferation of precancerous cells?
dysplasia
300
What is often a byproduct of longstanding pathologic hyperplasia or metaplasia secondary to chronic irritation and/or inflammation?
displasia
301
T/F Dysplasia is reversible
true
302
If stress persists, dysplasia progresses to what?
Carcinoma (irreversible)
303
What are the 5 common categories of cell damage?
1) Injury from physical agents 2) Injury from biologic agents 3) Chemical injury 4) Radiation injury 5) Injury from nutritional imbalances
304
What is the result of ionizing (cancer treatment), ultraviolet (sunburn), or nonionizing (thermal burns) radiation?
radiation injury
305
What is caused by nutrient excess or deficiency?
injury from nutritional imbalances
306
What injury includes mechanical forces, most notably seen in a fractured bone, extremes of temperature (burns), and electrical forces?
Injury from physical agents
307
What injury includes (but are not limited to) drug toxicities (alcohol, Rx/OTC drugs, street drugs), carbon tetrachloride, lead toxicity, and mercury toxicity?
Chemical injuries
308
What injury includes viruses, parasites, and bacteria?
Injury from biologic agents
309
What are the 3 types of injury (cell injury)?
1) free radical formation 2) hypoxia 3) disruption of intracellular calcium homeostasis.
310
What are highly reactive chemical species with an unpaired electron in their outer orbit?
free radicals
311
What are oxygen-containing molecules that include free radicals and nonradicals?
reactive oxygen species (ROS)
312
What occurs when the generation of ROS exceeds the body’s ability to neutralize and eliminate them?
Oxidative stress
313
What are some diseases Oxidative damage is seen?
- cancer - amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) - and age-related functional declines
314
What molecules that inhibit the reactions of ROS?
antioxidants (Vitamins A, C, E)
315
What injury is to low oxygen delivery to the tissues?
hypoxic cell injury
316
When decreased oxygen impairs oxidative metabolism, resulting in the decreased production of what?
ATP
317
List some Causes of of hypoxic cell injury.
- anemia (reduced oxygen-carrying red blood cells) - ischemia (obstruction of arterial blood flow) - carbon monoxide poisoning - decreased perfusion of tissues (heart failure, shock) - poor oxygenation of blood (from lung disease)
318
What functions as a second messenger for many cell reactions?
calcium
319
Under normal conditions, intracellular calcium levels are lower or higher than extracellular levels.
lower
320
A rise in what can inappropriately activate several enzymes leading to potentially damaging effects?
intracellular calcium
321
What is often referred to as programmed cell death?
apoptosis
322
What process eliminates cells that are worn out, have been produced in excess, have developed improperly, or are genetically damaged?
apoptosis
323
Webbed fingers and toes are examples of what?
apoptosis
324
What refers to cell death in an organ or tissues that is still part of a living person?
Necrosis
325
What sets off an inflammatory immune response in an organ or tissue?
necrosis
326
What is associated with cell death when it interferes with cell replacement and tissue regeneration?
necrosis
327
What happens when results most often from a sudden cutoff of blood supply to an organ (ischemia), particularly in the heart and kidney?
coagulative necrosis
328
What occurs when some of the cells die but their catalytic enzymes are not destroyed?
liquefactive necrosis
329
What is commonly seen with brain infarcts or abscesses?
liquefactive necrosis
330
What occurs as part of granulomatous inflammation and is most often associated with tuberculosis?
caseous necrosis
331
What is it called when a significant amount of tissue undergoes necrosis and can be characterized as either dry or moist?
Gangrenous necrosis
332
What occurs due to blockage of arterial blood supply and normally affects the lower extremities or the bowels?
Gangrenous necrosis
333
In dry gangrene, the affected tissue becomes what?
dehydrated
334
T/F dry gangrene does shrinks and becomes purple and black and spreads really fast.
false - it does shrink but it's brown and black and spreads slowly
335
What affected area is cold, swollen, and pulseless?
wet gangrene
336
T/F wet gangrene is moist, black and distended, and the spread is fast.
true
337
What has blebs (small blisters) form on the skin’s surface; liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial action.
wet gangrene
338