Module 1 Intro, Cell Comp & Function, Communication, Transport etc. Flashcards

1
Q

the study of the body’s response to altered function or disease

A

Pathophysiology

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2
Q

“disease,” and is the study of the structural and functional changes that occur in cells, tissues, and organs of the body as a result of disease processes.

A

Pathology

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3
Q

the study of body function

A

Physiology

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4
Q

an illness leading to abnormal physiological function of an organ, body structure, or an entire system

A

Disease

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5
Q

the causes of a disease

A

Etiologic Factors

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6
Q

List Etiologic factors

A

physical forces
chemical agents
biologic agents
genetic predisposition
nutritional excesses or deficiencies

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7
Q

Give an example of Etiologic factors for physical forces

A

trauma, burns, radiation

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8
Q

Give an example of Etiologic factors for chemical agents

A

poisons, alcohol

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9
Q

Give an example of Etiologic factors for biologic agents

A

bacteria, viruses

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10
Q

predispose someone to a given disease

A

Risk factors

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11
Q

What are the 2 categories of Risk factors & what do they mean?

A

Congenital = present at birth
Acquired = occur after birth

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12
Q

the development of a disease process

A

Pathogenesis

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13
Q

At what level does pathogenesis occur?

A

at the cellular & tissue level

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14
Q

the structure of cells or tissues

A

Morphology

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15
Q

the study of cells at the tissue level

A

Histology

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16
Q

a pathologic or traumatic injury of an organ or tissue

A

lesion

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17
Q

the ways a disease presents itself

A

Clinical Manifestations

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18
Q

How can you obtain clinical manifestations?

A

it can be seen
heard through physical examination
and taking patient history

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19
Q

What terms are used to describe the changes that coincide with a disease?

A

signs & symptoms

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20
Q

an objective manifestation that can be seen and/or measured by the observer

A

Sign

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21
Q

a subjective complaint as told by the person experiencing them

A

Symptom

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22
Q

What’s an example of a symptom?

A

the experience of pain, difficulty breathing, sensation of dizziness

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23
Q

What’s an example of a clinical sign?

A

fever, edema of an extremity or joint, changes in pupil size, or heightened/diminished reflexes

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24
Q

a group of multiple signs and symptoms occurring together

A

Syndrome

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25
Q

potential adverse effects of a disease and/or treatment

A

Complications

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26
Q

lesions or impairments that follow or are caused by a particular disease

A

Sequela

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27
Q

the process of identifying the cause of a given health problem or disease

A

Diagnosis

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28
Q

List some the diagnostic process

A

a careful and thorough patient history, physical examination (PE), and sometimes diagnostic testing

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29
Q

How is confirmation of a diagnosis made?

A

through the use of laboratory tests and appropriate imaging techniques including X-ray, MRI, and computed tomography (CT) scans etc.

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30
Q

statistically determined from test results obtained from a select sample of the population

A

“normal” value for a lab test

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31
Q

What are the lab parameters?

A

reliability, validity, sensitivity, and specificity of the measurement

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32
Q

how a tool measures what it is intended to measure

A

Validity

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33
Q

the likelihood of the same result occurring with repeated testing

A

Reliability

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34
Q

the proportion of people with a disease who test positive for that disease

A

Sensitivity

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35
Q

people without the disease who test negative for that disease

A

Specificity

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36
Q

Which is considered a “true-positive” result?
a) normal
b) validity
c) reliability
d) sensitivity
e) specificity

A

d) sensitivity

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37
Q

Which is considered a “true-negative” result?
a) normal
b) validity
c) reliability
d) sensitivity
e) specificity

A

e) specificity

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38
Q

the ability of a test result or observation to predict the presence of a given disease or condition

A

Predictive value

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39
Q

What is a positive predictive value?

A

the proportion of true-positive results that occurs in a given population

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40
Q

What is a negative predictive value?

A

the true negatives in a given population

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41
Q

Predictive values rely on what? (list all that apply)
a) normal
b) validity
c) reliability
d) sensitivity
e) specificity

A

d & e (sensitivity & specificity)

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42
Q

the development of a disease

A

clinical course

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43
Q

What are the categories for clinical course?

A

1) acute,
2) chronic
3) subacute

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44
Q

somewhat severe, but self-limiting

A

acute disorder

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45
Q

long-term, usually continuous, with exacerbations of symptoms and remissions

A

chronic disease

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46
Q

in between the two, not as severe or prolonged as acute or chronic

A

subacute disease

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47
Q

the study of disease occurrence in human populations

A

Epidemiology

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48
Q

Name somethings epidemiology tracks

A

It tracks age, race, dietary habits, lifestyle, or geographic location.

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49
Q

a measurement used to predict whether a disease is on the rise or in decline

A

Disease frequency

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50
Q

What is a disease case?

A

it can either be an existing case or the number of new episodes of an illness

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51
Q

What 2 things that help measure disease frequency?

A

Prevalence & Incidence

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52
Q

What is the number of people with the disease in a population in a given time?

A

Prevalence

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53
Q

How is prevalence calculated?

A

by dividing the number of existing cases by the current population

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54
Q

What is the number of new cases in a population at risk during a specified time?

A

Incidence

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55
Q

How is incidence determined?

A

by dividing the number of new cases of a disease by the population at risk for getting the disease in a time frame

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56
Q

How are incidence and prevalence reported as?

A

rates – cases per 100 or cases per 100,000

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57
Q

What is the difference between incidence and prevalence?

A

Incidence is the number of new cases in a population at risk during a specified time. Prevalence is the number of people with the disease in a population in a given time.

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58
Q

What is the effect of an illness on one’s life called?

A

Morbidity

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59
Q

What statistics deal with the cause of death in a population called?

A

Mortality

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60
Q

What is the progression of that particular disease when no treatment is provided called?

A

The natural history of a disease

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61
Q

What does the natural history of a disease do?

A

Information regarding the natural history of a disease guides the formulation of effective treatment plans as well as the development of preventative measures

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62
Q

What is the predicted outcome and likelihood of recovery from a disease called?

A

Prognosis

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63
Q

What 3 ways is disease prevention categorized?

A

1) primary
2) secondary
3) tertiary prevention

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64
Q

What is Primary prevention do?

A

attempts to eliminate risk factors in order to prevent disease from occurring

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65
Q

What’s an example of primary prevention?

A

-daily multi-vitamin to prevent nutritional deficiencies
-vaccinating children to prevent disease
-having a yearly wellness check up with your primary care physician
etc.

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66
Q

What is Secondary prevention do?

A

aims to detect and treat disease early, usually while the disease is asymptomatic and curable

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67
Q

What’s an example of secondary prevention?

A

-going to the doctor for an annual Pap smear to detect early cervical cancer
-colonoscopy screenings beginning at a certain age for all and earlier if it runs in one’s family
- education to promote smoking cessation, or monitoring blood pressure and cholesterol levels through yearly wellness exams

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68
Q

What is Tertiary prevention do?

A

occurs after a diagnosis has been made, and clinical intervention is needed to reduce complications and/or deterioration

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69
Q

What’s an example of tertiary prevention?

A

the use of prescribed medication after a heart attack to reduce the risk of a future event or death

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70
Q

the conscientious reliance on current best, scientific evidence in making decisions regarding the care of individual patients

A

Evidence-based practice

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71
Q

What’s the point for Evidence-based practice?

A

This is to counteract “the way things have always been done,” and to practice based on clinical research findings.
Clinical practice guidelines are algorithms and written directives aimed to inform practitioners on how to best deliver health care in certain circumstances.

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72
Q

What is the smallest functional unit of life?

A

the cell

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73
Q

Cells that share similar functions are organized into what?

A

tissues

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74
Q

List the 3 primary structures that are considered the functional components of eukaryotic cells

A

1) the nucleus
2) the cytoplasm
3) the plasma membrane

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75
Q

What is the command center of the cell and contains hereditary material in the form of DNA and RNA?

A

nucleus

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76
Q

it’s essential for the life of the cell. Its genes encode information necessary for protein synthesis

A

deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

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77
Q

What 3 types of houses does the nucleus house of ribonucleic acid?

A

1) messenger RNA (mRNA)
2) ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
3) transfer RNA (tRNA)

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78
Q

What moves to the cytoplasm and carry out the synthesis of proteins?

A

ribonucleic acids

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79
Q

What is the complex structure of DNA-associated proteins contained in the nuclear matrix called?

A

Chromatin

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80
Q

Evidence suggesting that an alteration in WHAT along with DNA hypermethylation, leads to the progression of neoplasms

A

chromatin

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81
Q

Where can the nucleolus be found?

A

inside the nucleus

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82
Q

It is here that rRNA is processed and assembled into ribosomes

A

nucleolus

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83
Q

What are nucleoli comprised of?

A

chromosomes; each containing part of the genetic code

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84
Q

How many different chromosomes is nucleoli comprised of?

A

5

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85
Q

What surrounds the nucleus and contains two nuclear membranes?

A

nuclear envelope

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86
Q

What does the nuclear envelope do?

A

Certain materials will move in both directions through its nuclear pores

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87
Q

What kind of materials can move in both directions through the nuclear envelope?

A

fluids, electrolytes, RNA, proteins, and hormones

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88
Q

Where are most cellular functions carried out?

A

in the cytoplasm

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89
Q

The cytoplasm is a solution containing what?

A

water, electrolytes, proteins, fats, and glycogen molecules

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90
Q

What 5 organelles are found within the cytoplasm?

A

1) the ribosomes
2) the ER
3) the Golgi complex
4) the mitochondria
5) the lysosomes

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91
Q

What is the site of protein synthesis in the cell?

A

ribosomes

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92
Q

What is an extensive system of interconnected membranes and flat vesicles that connect various parts of the cell?

A

endoplasmic reticulum (ER)

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93
Q

It functions as a transportation system for substances throughout the cell

A

endoplasmic reticulum (ER)

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94
Q

What can the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) be subdivided into?

A

the rough & smooth ER

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95
Q

What carries ribosomes and functions to synthesize lysosomal enzymes?

A

rough ER

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96
Q

Where are lipids, lipoproteins, and steroid hormones are made?

A

smooth ER

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97
Q

Does the smooth ER carry ribosomes?

A

no

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98
Q

Digestive enzymes from the pancreas and plasma proteins from the liver cells are both made in the rough ER or smooth ER?

A

rough ER

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99
Q

What has enzymes that synthesize lipid molecules, regulate intracellular calcium, and metabolize and detoxify certain hormones and drugs? The rough or smooth ER?

A

smooth ER

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100
Q

T/F If proteins accumulate faster than they can be processed, the ER can become damaged. If the cell cannot slow down protein production to a point where homeostasis is restored, inflammation and cell death can occur.

A

TRUE

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101
Q

What are some diseases have been linked to damaged ER?

A

inflammatory bowel disease, myositis, and a genetic form of diabetes mellitus.

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102
Q

What takes the substances produced in the ER, modify them, and package them into secretory granules or vesicles?

A

Golgi apparatus/Golgi complex

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103
Q

What is the Golgi apparatus or Golgi complex composed of?

A

stacks of thin, flattened vesicles or sacs

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104
Q

What serves as the digestive capacity of the cell?

A

lysosomes

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105
Q

How does lysosomes digest and what?

A

Their small sacs contain powerful hydrolytic enzymes that can break down cell excess, worn cellular components, and foreign substances

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106
Q

What happens when a lysosome is in a diseased state?

A

it results in the inability to digest certain cellular substances which then leads to a potentially toxic accumulation within the cell

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107
Q

When fully functional, what vital role do lysosomes play?

A

in the normal metabolism of certain substances

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108
Q

What 2 ways do lysosomes break down phagocytosed material?

A

heterophagy or autophagy

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109
Q

What is heterophagy?

A

digestion of a substance phagocytosed from outside of the cell

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110
Q

How does heterophagy work?

A

The cell membrane folds inward taking the external materials into the cell to form a phagosome.

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111
Q

What cells use heterophagy (this type of phagocytosis)?

A

Neutrophils & macrophages

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112
Q

Where are neutrophils & macrophages found?

A

white blood cells

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113
Q

What is autophagy?

A

the digestion of damaged cellular organelles

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114
Q

How does autophagy work?

A

Secondary lysosomes can break down most proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids

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115
Q

Where is autophagy best seen in?

A

cells undergoing atrophy

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116
Q

What happens to those they (secondary lysosomes that use autophagy) can’t break down?

A

remains in the cytoplasm as residual bodies and leave the cell via exocytosis.

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117
Q

What is an aid in the control of free radicals?

A

peroxisomes

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118
Q

Are peroxisomes larger or smaller than lysosomes?

A

smaller

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119
Q

What would happen if peroxisomes didn’t do their job?

A

these highly unstable chemical compounds would damage other cytoplasmic molecules

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120
Q

What else do peroxisomes do?

A

They break down hydrogen peroxide to water, long-chain fatty acids, and help in the formation of bile acids.

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121
Q

What small organelles are made of protein complexes that are also involved in the breakdown of proteins?

A

proteasomes

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122
Q

What do proteasomes target?

A

mis-formed proteins or polypeptide chains that do not meet quality control of the cell

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123
Q

What transforms organic compounds (energy in food) into cellular energy?

A

mitochondria

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124
Q

What is the process called when organic compounds (energy in food) into cellular energy?

A

cellular respiration (AKA aerobi metabolism)

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125
Q

What does cellular respiration need in order to work?

A

oxygen

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126
Q

What is ATP (adenosine triphosphate) used for?

A

to fuel cellular activities

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127
Q

Do mitochondria play a role in apoptosis or programmed cell death?

A

yes

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128
Q

What happens if apoptosis isn’t appropriately regulated (damaged or malfunctioning cells are not removed)?

A

disease states will occur

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129
Q

What diseases is apoptosis often seen in?

A

cancers where cells are allowed to abnormally divide due to low rate of apoptosis

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130
Q

Where does a high rate of apoptosis occur?

A

in degenerative disease processes

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131
Q

What is a network of microtubules, microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and thick filaments which work together to control cell shape and movement?

A

cytoskeleton

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132
Q

What are microtubules made of?

A

subunits called tubulin

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133
Q

What do the subunits of microtubules do?

A

they can disassemble in one location and reassemble in another

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134
Q

What are the 3 functions of microtubules’s subunits?

A

1) the maintenance of cell form
2) intracellular transport
3) the formation of cellular structures such as centrioles, basal bodies, cilia, and flagella

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135
Q

What are centrioles & basal bodies made of?

A

they are structurally identical organelles made of microtubules

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136
Q

What do centrioles do?

A

During cell division, centrioles form the mitotic spindle that helps to separate and move the chromosomes

137
Q

What do basal bodies do?

A

help to form the organized microtubules found in cilia and flagella

138
Q

What are cilia & flagella?

A

microtubule-filled cellular extensions

139
Q

What do cilia & flagella do?

A

they function in cell motility

140
Q

What’s the difference in the amount of cells between ciliated cells and flagellated cells?

A

Ciliated cells have many cilia, while flagellated cells typically only have one flagellum, often seen as a whip-like tail.

141
Q

In the human body what only contains flagella?

A

male sperm

142
Q

Where in the human body can cilia be found?

A

cilia can be found:
-on many epithelial linings such as:
-the nasal sinuses and bronchi in the upper respiratory system
-photoreceptors of the eye
-odorant receptors of the olfactory system
-hair cells in the inner ear

143
Q

What happens if cilia become immotile?

A

diseases can occur

144
Q

What are microfilaments?

A

thin, threadlike structures that provide support to the cell

145
Q

How many types of microfilaments are there?

A

3

146
Q

What are the 3 types of microfilaments?

A

-Thin microfilaments
-Intermediate filaments
-Thick myosin filaments

147
Q

Where are thick myosin filaments primarily found?

A

in muscle cells

148
Q

What is the plasma cell membrane?

A

a semipermeable membrane that separates the intracellular contents of the cell from the extracellular environment

149
Q

What is the function of the plasma cell membrane?

A

-regulating the movement of materials in and out of the cell
-aiding in the regulation of cell growth and division
-housing hormone receptors which facilitate the conduction of electrical currents in nerve and muscle cells

150
Q

What is the cell membrane comprised of?

A

lipids, carbs, proteins

151
Q

Approx. 75% of lipids in the cell membrane are what?

A

phospholipids

152
Q

While lipids give structure to the cell membrane, proteins do what?

A

carry out the cellular functions

153
Q

Integral proteins are also called what?

A

transmembrane proteins

154
Q

What is the function of integral proteins?

A

to transport molecules across

155
Q

Do Peripheral proteins pass through?

A

no

156
Q

What do peripheral proteins do?

A

they serve as receptors and intracellular signaling systems

157
Q

What is the glycocalyx?

A

the “cell coat”

158
Q

How does glycocalyx appear under a microscope?

A

a fuzzy layer surrounding the cell surface

159
Q

What is the function of the glycocalyx?

A

the cell coat functions in cell-to-cell recognition and adhesion

160
Q

What surrounds the nucleus and contains 2 nuclear membranes?

A

nuclear envelope

161
Q

What is the site of protein synthesis in the cell?

A

ribosomes

162
Q

What takes the substances produced in the ER, modify them, and package them into secretory granules or vesicles?

A

Golgi apparatus

163
Q

What is the site where rRNA is processed and assembled into ribosomes?

A

Nucleolus

164
Q

What is the Complex structure of DNA-associated proteins contained in the nuclear matrix?

A

Chromatin

165
Q

What is the Transportation system for substances throughout the cell?

A

Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)

166
Q

What serves as the digestive capacity of the cell?

A

Lysosomes

167
Q

What is the tightly regulated system of transmitting information between cells called?

A

cell signaling

168
Q

What depends on hormones carried in the bloodstream to act on cells throughout the body?

A

Endocrine signaling

169
Q

What occurs when enzymes metabolize chemical mediators, producing a change in neighboring cells?

A

Paracrine signaling

170
Q

What occurs when a cell releases a chemical into the extracellular fluid that affects its own activity?

A

Autocrine signaling

171
Q

What is a specialized system that occurs in the nervous system as neurotransmitters act on adjacent nerve cells through synapses, which are small gaps or junctions between the nerve cells?

A

Synaptic signaling

172
Q

Once a signal is received, a process referred to as what happens?

A

receptor activation

173
Q

What’s the next step after receptor activation?

A

the signal generates a cascade of events leading to a physiological response.

174
Q

Receptors can be activated by what?

A
  • neurotransmitters
  • steroids
  • protein hormones
  • growth factors
  • and/or other chemical messengers
175
Q

Primary activators are referred to as what?

A

first messengers

176
Q

What is required when the initial activation of the receptor is insufficient for carrying out the signaling pathway?

A

a secondary messenger

177
Q

What describes the additional intracellular mechanisms employed by the cell to achieve the physiological response?

A

second messengers

178
Q

What can also be used to increase the specificity of the signal, ensuring only the areas within a tightly regulated system are activated?

A

second messengers

179
Q

Many secondary messengers are proteins and have the unique ability to do what?

A

change shape (confirmation)

180
Q

What process is when there are too many chemical messengers present, the number of active receptors decreases?

A

down-regulation

181
Q

When the messengers are lacking, the number of active receptors increases through what?

A

up-regulation

182
Q

What are the 3 known classes of cell surface receptor proteins?

A

1) G-protein-linked
2) enzyme-linked
3) ion-channel-linked

183
Q

What cell surface receptor protein are the largest in number?

A

G-protein-linked receptors

184
Q

What are the G proteins function?

A

as an on-off switch to convert external signals (first messengers) into internal signals (second messengers)

185
Q

What receptors are also involved in the function of growth factors?

A

Enzyme-linked receptors

186
Q

What also have their ligand-binding site on the outside of the cell membrane?

A

Enzyme-linked receptors

187
Q

What respond to increased sodium-potassium exchange, calcium influx, and stimulation of glucose and amino acid uptake?

A

Enzyme-linked receptors

188
Q

What receptors can be found in nerve cells and muscle cells?

A

Ion-channel-linked receptors

189
Q

These cells are considered “excitable cells”

A

Ion-channel-linked receptors

190
Q

Neurotransmitters use this type of signaling to open or close ion channels formed by integral proteins in the cell membrane.

A

Ion-channel-linked receptors

191
Q

What receptors have rapid synaptic signaling?

A

Ion-channel-linked receptors

192
Q

What often reside in the cytoplasmic side of the membrane?

A

Intracellular receptors

193
Q

What are often activated by hormones capable of by moving directly across the membrane, rather than binding to surface receptors?

A

Intracellular receptors

194
Q

What acts as a barrier, controlling what substances can enter and leave the cell?

A

cell membrane

195
Q

T/F movement through the cell can occur passively or actively

A

TRUE

196
Q

What does passive cell movement mean?

A

without using energy

197
Q

What does active cell movement mean?

A

using energy

198
Q

Does the cell membrane have the capacity to engulf a particle?

A

Yes

199
Q

By what can the cell membrane engulf a particle so it can be moved in or out of a cell?

A

endocytosis (in) or exocytosis (out)

200
Q

A difference in the number of particles on either side of the membrane creates a what?

A

chemical gradient

201
Q

A difference in charged particles or ions creates a what?

A

electrical gradient

202
Q

As particles can influence both, they are collectively referred to as a(n) what?

A

electrochemical gradient

203
Q

What are the 3 processes of passive movement?

A

1) diffusion
2) osmosis
3) facilitated diffusion

204
Q

What is the process by which molecules move from an area of higher concentration on one side of the membrane to an area of lower concentration on the other side?

A

Diffusion

205
Q

What flow of molecules continues until they are equally distributed (their concentrations are equal) on both sides of the membrane?

A

Diffusion

206
Q

What process through the membrane often occurs easily with lipid-soluble molecules like oxygen, alcohol, carbon dioxide, and fatty acids?

A

Diffusion

207
Q

The number of openings in the cell membrane can determine how fast or slow transport occurs is for what passive movement?

A

Diffusion

208
Q

T/F Temperature also affects diffusion, as diffusion rates increase in direct proportion to increased temperatures.

A

True

209
Q

What is the movement of water from an area of low solute (few substances dissolved in water) to an area of high solute (many particles in the water) concentration until an equilibrium is achieved?

A

Osmosis

210
Q

What are the channels called that water moves through during osmosis?

A

aquaporins

211
Q

What is the pressure that water generates as it moves through the membrane?

A

osmotic pressure

212
Q

What uses a transport protein to help lipid insoluble or large molecules pass through the membrane, that otherwise would not be able to pass through?

A

Facilitated diffusion

213
Q

What are made of integral proteins that span the width of the cell membrane?

A

Ion channels

214
Q

What is used when cells use energy to move ions against an electrical or chemical gradient?

A

Active transport

215
Q

This pump moves sodium from inside the cell to the extracellular region and returns potassium to the inside of the cell.

A

the sodium-potassium (Na+/K+)-ATPase pump

216
Q

Energy used for this process occurs by splitting the high-energy phosphate bond in ATP by the enzyme ATPase

A

the sodium-potassium (Na+/K+)-ATPase pump

217
Q

If the active transport process used for the the sodium-potassium (Na+/K+)-ATPase pump did not occur, what would happen?

A

sodium would remain in the cell and water would follow, causing the cell to swell

218
Q

What are the 2 types of active transport systems?

A

Primary active transport & Secondary active transport

219
Q

What uses ATP directly to transport a substance?

A

Primary active transport

220
Q

What uses energy that is derived from the primary active transport of one substance, usually sodium, for the cotransport of a second substance?

A

Secondary active transport

221
Q

What is developed when sodium leave the cell by a primary active transport?

A

a concentration gradient

222
Q

What are the 2 groups of secondary active transport?

A

Cotransport (support) & Counter-transport (antiport)

223
Q

What systems consist of sodium ions and the solute being transported in the same direction?

A

Contransport (symport)

224
Q

What system consist of sodium ions and the solute being transported in the opposite direction?

A

Counter-transport (antiport)

225
Q

What transport is used in the intestine when glucose and amino acid absorption is paired with sodium transport?

A

counter-transport (antiport)

226
Q

What occurs when a molecule outside of the cell is enclosed in an invagination of the cell membrane forming a vesicle inside the cell?

A

Endocytosis

227
Q

Endocytosis includes what 2 processes?

A

pinocytosis & phagocytosis

228
Q

What is considered “cell drinking”?

A

pinocytosis

229
Q

What is considered “cell eating”?

A

phagocytosis

230
Q

What process engulfs small solid or fluid particles such as proteins and electrolytes?

A

pinocytosis

231
Q

What process is when the membrane engulfs and then kills microorganisms or other particulate matter?

A

phagocytosis

232
Q

What type of white blood cells are programmed to use phagocytosis?

A

Macrophages and leukocytes (particularly neutrophils)

233
Q

What is the difference in voltage between the inside and outside of a cell?

A

A membrane potential

234
Q

What is needed in in nerve and muscle cells are needed to generate nerve impulses, or action potentials and muscular contractions?

A

membrane potentials

235
Q

In other cells, changes in the membrane potential can cause what?

A

hormone secretion

236
Q

What is defined as the ability of separated electrical charges of opposite polarity (+ and -) to do work and is measured in volts (V)?

A

Electrical potential

237
Q

What is the difference between the separated charges?

A

Potential difference

238
Q

The accumulation of the ions on the surface of the membrane contributes to what?

A

the resting membrane potential (RMP)

239
Q

What describes the voltage generated by ions that diffuse across the cell membrane?

A

diffusion potential

240
Q

What occurs when the diffusion and electrical forces are balanced on both sides of the membrane?

A

an equilibrium potential

241
Q

What are the collective organization of many cells with similar origin and/or function?

A

tissues

242
Q

What are the 4 types of tissue?

A

1) Epithelial tissue
2) Connective tissue
3) Muscle tissue
4) Nervous tissue

243
Q

What covers the body’s outer surface, lines the inner surfaces, and forms glandular tissue?

A

Epithelial tissue

244
Q

What has 3 distinct surfaces and the basal surface is attached to an underlying basement membrane?

A

Epithelial tissue

245
Q

What is avascular (lacking its own blood vessels)?

A

Epithelial tissue

246
Q

What rests on connective tissue and draws oxygen and nutrients from the capillaries?

A

Epithelial tissue

247
Q

What are the shapes of epithelial tissue?

A

1) squamous
2) cuboidal
3) columnar

248
Q

What epithelial tissue is shaped resembling a column?

A

columnar

249
Q

What epithelial tissue is shaped thin and flat?

A

squamous

250
Q

What epithelial tissue is cube shaped?

A

cuboidal

251
Q

What is a single layer of cells (epithelial tissue) classified as?

A

simple

252
Q

What is more than one layer of cells (epithelial tissue) classified as?

A

stratified

253
Q

What is epithelial tissue classified as when all cells are in contact with the basement membrane, but does not extend to the surface?

A

pseudostratified

254
Q

What tissue produces the extracellular matrix that supports and holds tissues together?

A

connective tissue

255
Q

What are the 2 types of connective tissue?

A

1) connective tissue proper
2) specialized connective tissue

256
Q

What type of connective tissue includes cartilage, bone, and blood cells?

A

Specialized connective tissue

257
Q

What are the 4 types of connective tissue proper?

A

1) loose (areolar)
2) adipose
3) reticular
4) dense connective tissue.

258
Q

What functions to move the skeletal structures, pump blood through the heart and contract the blood vessels and visceral organs?

A

muscle tissue

259
Q

What are the 2 types of fibers that produce contractions for muscle tissue?

A

thin & thick filaments

260
Q

What filament are myosin?

A

thick

261
Q

What filament are called actin?

A

thin

262
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle tissue?

A

1) skeletal
2) cardiac
3) smooth

263
Q

What is found throughout the body and is used for communication between peripheral tissues and the central nervous system?

A

nervous tissue

264
Q

What provides the means for controlling body function and for sensing and moving about the environment in response to internal and external stimuli?

A

nervous tissue

265
Q

What are the 2 types of nervous tissue?

A

neurons & glial cells

266
Q

What nervous tissue’s function is communication?

A

neurons

267
Q

What cells support the neurons?

A

glial (meaning glue) cells

268
Q

What are within tissues that hold cells together called?

A

cell junctions

269
Q

What are spaces between cells that are filled with extracellular matrix?

A

cell junctions

270
Q

Adhesion molecules form what?

A

intercellular contacts

271
Q

What are important to form the shape of the body and to create pathways for communication?

A

cell junctions

272
Q

What are made mostly of epithelial tissue?

A

cell junctions

273
Q

What are the 3 basic types of intercellular junctions?

A

1) tight junctions
2) adhering junctions
3) gap junctions

274
Q

What prevents cell separation by forming a strong adhesion between cells?

A

Adhering junctions

275
Q

What join neighboring cell membranes by forming channels in the cytoplasm of each cell?

A

gap junctions

276
Q

What are found in epithelial tissue. They keep fluids from entering the intercellular spaces by connecting neighboring cells?

A

tight junctions

277
Q

T/F The cell is NOT able to adapt to changes in the internal environment when stressors arise.

A

False

278
Q

T/F If the stress becomes too great, or the cell cannot adapt effectively, cell injury and death can occur.

A

True

279
Q

What 3 ways can cells adapt?

A

1) changing in size
2) changing in number
3) changing type or form

280
Q

What cell adaptation is metaplasia and dysplasia?

A

the changing of type or form

281
Q

What cell adaptation is atrophy and hypertrophy?

A

the changing of size

282
Q

What cell adaptation is hyperplasia?

A

the changing in number

283
Q

What is a decrease in the size of an organ or tissue resulting from a decrease in the mass of pre-existing cells?

A

Atrophy

284
Q

What is the result of disuse, nutritional or oxygen deprivation, aging, diminished endocrine stimulation, or denervation (lack of nerve stimulation in peripheral muscles caused by injury to motor nerves?

A

atrophy

285
Q

What can be caused by a decrease in cell number or a decrease in cell size?

A

atrophy

286
Q

What is an increase in the size of an organ or tissue due to the increase in size of the cells that comprise it?

A

Hypertrophy

287
Q

Cell size is often related to what?

A

workload

288
Q

An increase in workload (stress) brings about an increase in what?

A

cell size

289
Q

During WHAT, protein synthesis and the size and/or number of intracellular organelles are all increased?

A

hypertrophy

290
Q

What can occur under normal physiologic or pathologic conditions as seen with the enlargement of the left ventricle in someone with a diagnosis of heart disease?

A

hypertrophy

291
Q

What is an increase in the size of an organ or tissue caused by an increase in the number of cells making up that organ or tissue?

A

Hyperplasia

292
Q

What can progress to dysplasia and eventually cancer?

A

pathologic hyperplasia

293
Q

What is the replacement of one differentiated tissue by another?

A

Metaplasia

294
Q

What usually occurs in response to chronic irritation and inflammation?

A

metaplasia

295
Q

What transformation of cells allows for a higher likelihood of survival in a less than optimal environment?

A

metaplasia

296
Q

T/F metaplasia is NOT reversible

A

false

297
Q

What is abnormal cellular growth, resulting in cells that vary in size, shape, and organization?

A

dysplasia

298
Q

What can occur under persistent stress?

A

dysplasia

299
Q

What is most often refers to proliferation of precancerous cells?

A

dysplasia

300
Q

What is often a byproduct of longstanding pathologic hyperplasia or metaplasia secondary to chronic irritation and/or inflammation?

A

displasia

301
Q

T/F Dysplasia is reversible

A

true

302
Q

If stress persists, dysplasia progresses to what?

A

Carcinoma (irreversible)

303
Q

What are the 5 common categories of cell damage?

A

1) Injury from physical agents
2) Injury from biologic agents
3) Chemical injury
4) Radiation injury
5) Injury from nutritional imbalances

304
Q

What is the result of ionizing (cancer treatment), ultraviolet (sunburn), or nonionizing (thermal burns) radiation?

A

radiation injury

305
Q

What is caused by nutrient excess or deficiency?

A

injury from nutritional imbalances

306
Q

What injury includes mechanical forces, most notably seen in a fractured bone, extremes of temperature (burns), and electrical forces?

A

Injury from physical agents

307
Q

What injury includes (but are not limited to) drug toxicities (alcohol, Rx/OTC drugs, street drugs), carbon tetrachloride, lead toxicity, and mercury toxicity?

A

Chemical injuries

308
Q

What injury includes viruses, parasites, and bacteria?

A

Injury from biologic agents

309
Q

What are the 3 types of injury (cell injury)?

A

1) free radical formation
2) hypoxia
3) disruption of intracellular calcium homeostasis.

310
Q

What are highly reactive chemical species with an unpaired electron in their outer orbit?

A

free radicals

311
Q

What are oxygen-containing molecules that include free radicals and nonradicals?

A

reactive oxygen species (ROS)

312
Q

What occurs when the generation of ROS exceeds the body’s ability to neutralize and eliminate them?

A

Oxidative stress

313
Q

What are some diseases Oxidative damage is seen?

A
  • cancer
  • amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
  • and age-related functional declines
314
Q

What molecules that inhibit the reactions of ROS?

A

antioxidants (Vitamins A, C, E)

315
Q

What injury is to low oxygen delivery to the tissues?

A

hypoxic cell injury

316
Q

When decreased oxygen impairs oxidative metabolism, resulting in the decreased production of what?

A

ATP

317
Q

List some Causes of of hypoxic cell injury.

A
  • anemia (reduced oxygen-carrying red blood cells)
  • ischemia (obstruction of arterial blood flow)
  • carbon monoxide poisoning
  • decreased perfusion of tissues (heart failure, shock)
  • poor oxygenation of blood (from lung disease)
318
Q

What functions as a second messenger for many cell reactions?

A

calcium

319
Q

Under normal conditions, intracellular calcium levels are lower or higher than extracellular levels.

A

lower

320
Q

A rise in what can inappropriately activate several enzymes leading to potentially damaging effects?

A

intracellular calcium

321
Q

What is often referred to as programmed cell death?

A

apoptosis

322
Q

What process eliminates cells that are worn out, have been produced in excess, have developed improperly, or are genetically damaged?

A

apoptosis

323
Q

Webbed fingers and toes are examples of what?

A

apoptosis

324
Q

What refers to cell death in an organ or tissues that is still part of a living person?

A

Necrosis

325
Q

What sets off an inflammatory immune response in an organ or tissue?

A

necrosis

326
Q

What is associated with cell death when it interferes with cell replacement and tissue regeneration?

A

necrosis

327
Q

What happens when results most often from a sudden cutoff of blood supply to an organ (ischemia), particularly in the heart and kidney?

A

coagulative necrosis

328
Q

What occurs when some of the cells die but their catalytic enzymes are not destroyed?

A

liquefactive necrosis

329
Q

What is commonly seen with brain infarcts or abscesses?

A

liquefactive necrosis

330
Q

What occurs as part of granulomatous inflammation and is most often associated with tuberculosis?

A

caseous necrosis

331
Q

What is it called when a significant amount of tissue undergoes necrosis and can be characterized as either dry or moist?

A

Gangrenous necrosis

332
Q

What occurs due to blockage of arterial blood supply and normally affects the lower extremities or the bowels?

A

Gangrenous necrosis

333
Q

In dry gangrene, the affected tissue becomes what?

A

dehydrated

334
Q

T/F dry gangrene does shrinks and becomes purple and black and spreads really fast.

A

false - it does shrink but it’s brown and black and spreads slowly

335
Q

What affected area is cold, swollen, and pulseless?

A

wet gangrene

336
Q

T/F wet gangrene is moist, black and distended, and the spread is fast.

A

true

337
Q

What has blebs (small blisters) form on the skin’s surface; liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial action.

A

wet gangrene

338
Q
A