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AAE > Module 1: Finance and Administration of Airports > Flashcards

Module 1: Finance and Administration of Airports Flashcards

Module 1 topics

1
Q

What was the first air route system?

A

US Mail (US Government)

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2
Q

What is the law that effectively created commercial aviation through air mail service? Set precedence aviation should pay for itself.

A

The Kelly Act (Air Mail Act of 1925)-Authorized the postmaster general to contract for Domestic airmail service with commercial airlines…

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3
Q

Private aircraft operators use ___________ to fuel, flight plan, aircraft parking, and take care of other needs. These also became some of the first airline passenger terminal buildings.

A

Fixed-base operator (FBO)

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4
Q

______________ became the cornerstone of the federal government’s regulation of civil aviation.

A

Air Commerce Act of 1926
-The legislation was passed at the insistence of the burgeoning airline industry itself, which felt that aviation could not reach its full commercial potential without federal regulations to establish and improve safety standards.

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5
Q

What law gave the federal government regulation of civil aviation by establishing the Aeronautics branch to establish/improve safety standards?

A

Air Commerce Act or 1926-These responsibilities still lie within the control of the federal government and are now the responsibility of the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)

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6
Q

What departments were created with the passage of the Air Commerce Act of 1926?

A

Aeronautics Branch, within the Department of Commerce.

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7
Q

The first meeting of the American Association of Airport Executives (AAAE) consisted of how many airport directors?

A

10 airport directors attended at National Air Races at Mines Field (now Los Angeles International Airport)

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8
Q

The first airport trade organization, which sets professional accreditation standards is the ____________?

A

American Association of Airport Executives (AAAE)

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9
Q

What are mandates from the FAA?

A

Federal Regulations

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10
Q

___________ is any public agency or private owner of a public-use airport (governing body).

A

Airport Sponsor

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11
Q

___________ is an individual, such as airport director or manager or director of aviation, that is retained by the Sponsor to manage the airport

A

Airport Executive

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12
Q

___________ is the management structure overall, including sponsor, executive, and essential personnel

A

Airport Operator

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13
Q

__________ are the operators of most US public-use airports.

A

Local Governments

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14
Q

The predecessor to FAA - air traffic control, certification, safety enforcement and airway development is the ____________?

A

Civil Aeronautics Administration (CAA)

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15
Q

When the Civil Aeronautics Administration was split, _____________ established safety rules, aircraft accident investigations, and economic regulation of airlines.

A

Civil Aeronautics Board (CAB)

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16
Q

Which law allowed airlines and air cargo operators to freely raise/lower airfares and expand/remove routes at will? This law also dissolved the Civil Aeronautics Board (CAB).

A

-Airline Deregulation Act of 1978.
-This forever changed the airport-airline dynamic, allowing airlines to move operations to more favorable markets.
-This also allowed the concept of “Hub-and-Spoke” airports, which was adopted from air cargo operators.

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17
Q

Which law allowed companies, such as Federal Express to implement “Hub-and-Spoke” method of shipping goods?

A

Air Cargo Deregulation Act of 1976.-Changed from point to point delivery to a “hub” as a means of re-sorting and then heading to it’s final destination.

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18
Q

What are the “roots” for today’s FAA?

A

Today’s FAA has its “roots” in the Department of Commerce and originally was charged with “Fostering Air Commerce”.
-Many FAA regulations, orders, AC’s contain language that leans to safety and supporting commerce functions within aviation.

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19
Q

What program grants funds for airport projects (primarily runway and taxiway), if the airport is in the National Airport Plan?

A

Federal Aid to Airports Program (FAAP)

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20
Q

The _____________ lists the recommendations for airport construction, maintenance and operations.

A

National Airport Plan (NAP)

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21
Q

Regulations for airport operators that accept federal grant monies or property that significantly impacts how an operator conducts businesses are ____________?

A

Sponsor Assurances (a.k.a. Grant Assurances)

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22
Q

What law gave the FAA safety and rulemaking authority from the Civil Aeronautics Board? -This law also turned the CAB into the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), which is a department of Federal Department of Transportation.

A

Federal Aviations Act of 1958

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23
Q

What law created the Airport Development Aid Program (ADAP) and Planning Grant Program (PGP)?

A

Airport and Airway Development Act-created to continue flow of grant money to airports.

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24
Q

The certification program for commercial service airports and issuing operating certificates is regulated by ___________?

A

Title 14, CFR Part 139, Certification of Airports

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25
Q

What law established a fund financed by airfare taxes, aviation fuel taxes, air freight, and registration fees?

A

Airport and Airway Trust Act-Passed as part of the Airport and Airway Development Act (AADA).

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26
Q

The ___________ lists projects eligible for federal funding (capital projects at public-use airports).

A

Airport Improvement Program (AIP)

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27
Q

The Airport Improvement Program (AIP) and National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems were established by the ____________?

A

Airport and Airway Improvement Act (AAIA)

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28
Q

____________ identifies 3,345 airports important to national air transportation and eligible for AIP grants.

A

National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS)

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29
Q

What organization was created in response to the attacks on world trade center towers 1 and 2, the pentagon and the field in Pennsylvania?

A

Transportation Security Administration (TSA)

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30
Q

The use of __________ is making ground and commercial aviation improvements?

A

Global Positioning Systems (GPS)

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31
Q

What are the initiatives for efficient, more secure, and safer air travel, affecting the entirety of the US air traffic control system?

A

Next Generation Air Transportation System (NextGen)

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32
Q

Which law endorsed NextGen?

A

Vision 100-Century of Aviation Reauthorization Act

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33
Q

List the 4 airport stakeholder groups.

A
  1. Government Entities
  2. Aeronautical users
  3. Non-aeronautical users
  4. Community
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34
Q

Unmanned Aerial Vehicles have created a challenge and opportunities to what system?

A

National Airspace System (NAS)

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35
Q

Airlines, corporate flight departments, FBOs, aircraft manufacturers, UAV operators, are examples of ____________?

A

Aeronautical users

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36
Q

Flight schools, maintenance repair shops, aircraft charter operations, or other single service providers, are known as ____________?

A

Specialized aviation service operators (SASOs)
-Also an example of Aeronautical user.

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37
Q

Concessionaires, vendors, contractors, rental cars, land lessees, and advertisers, are examples of ____________?

A

Non-aeronautical users

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38
Q

Passengers, shippers, surrounding cities, nearby homeowners, are examples of ____________ stakeholders.

A

Community

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39
Q

____________ is a business granted the right by the airport sponsor to operate on and airport and provide services such as fueling, hangaring, tie-down and parking, aircraft rental, aircraft maintenance, flight instructions, etc.?

A

Fixed-Base Operator (FBO)

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40
Q

_________ are sometimes known as single-service providers or special FBOs.

A

Specialized aviation serice operators (SASOs)

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41
Q

Which stakeholder desires hangar space and facilities for smaller aircraft?

A

Private aircraft operators

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42
Q

Which stakeholder desires efficient passenger, baggage, cargo, and aircraftthroughput, as well as office/administration facilities?

A

Airlines

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43
Q

Which stakeholders desire fueling abilities, confidentiality/discretion, exceptional pavement/maintenance?

A

Corporate aircraft operators

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44
Q

Which stakeholders desire “good for business” conditions and level playing field?

A

FBOs and SASOs

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45
Q

What are the alternate ways to fly privately owned, without owning an aircraft?

A

Fixed-Fleet OperatorsFractional OwnershipJet Card ProgramsOn-Demand Charter (i.e., Broker)Cargo Feeders

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46
Q

Airport sponsors who suspect illegal charter activities can present their concerns to the _________, which will make any appropriate investigations?

A

Local Flight Standards District Office (FSDO)

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47
Q

___________ Regulates Maintenance, Repair and Overhaul operations.

A

FAR Part 145, Repair Station Operators and TSR Part 1554 Aircraft Repair Station Security

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48
Q

___________ Regulates Flight Training and pilot school operations.

A

FAR part 61, Part 141 and TSR Part 1552.

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49
Q

List 5 types of US airports

A
  1. commercial service
  2. general aviation
  3. cargo service
  4. military
  5. private
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50
Q

___________ of worldwide aviation is attributed to US?

A

90% of business to consumer e-commerce.
22% of world’s scheduled passenger traffic.

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51
Q

What is included in the National Plan for Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS), how often is it published and what projection is included?

A

AIP-Eligible DevelopmentEvery 2 Years5 year projection

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52
Q

An airport can be included in the NPIAS if it is:

A

-Publicly owned or privately owned but is either a commercial service airport with scheduled air service of at least 2,500 annual enplanements, or designated as a general aviation reliever airport by the FAA.
-A general aviation reliever airport.
-Receives scheduled air carrier transport to where a freight forwarder, FBO, etc., is under contract with the U.S. Postal Service (i.e., a mail contract).
-A public-use airport where a unit of the Air National Guard, or a reserve component of the Armed Forces, operates aircraft and is either permanently based on, or located adjacent to, the airport.

**May also be included if:
-Part of a state airport system plan
-Serving a community more than 30 minutes from closest NPIAS airport
-Forecasted to have 10 or more based aircraft within next 5 years

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53
Q

What are the three measurements to guage airport activity?

A

EnplanementsOperationsCargo Tonnage

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54
Q

A commercial service airport is defined by “a publicly owned airport that has ___________ passengers annual boarding, receiving scheduled passenger service.

A

More than 2,500 enplanements

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55
Q

Primary commercial service airports have ___________ annual enplanements?

A

more than 10,00 enplanements

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56
Q

___________ airports do not have scheduled service or have less than _________ annual passenger enplanements.

A

General AviationLess than 2500

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57
Q

A ___________ airport relieves congestion at commercial service airports and provide improved GA access to community - an alternative to congested hub.

A

General Aviation Reliever

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58
Q

A ___________ airport is only cargo with a total annual landed weight of ___________ pounds; can also be commercial service airport

A

Cargo ServiceMore than 100 Million

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59
Q

List the 5 categories of General Aviation Airports:

A
  1. GA National Airports
  2. GA Regional Airports
  3. GA Local Airports (a.k.a. The Backbone)
  4. GA Basic Airports
  5. Unclassified
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60
Q

List 4 groups of primary Airports:

A
  1. large hub
  2. medium hub
  3. small hub
  4. nonhub
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61
Q

Large hub airports serve at least __________ or more of total enplanements, with __________ of all US enplanements.

A

1%>70%

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62
Q

Medium hub airports serve between __________ to __________ of total enplanements, with __________ of all US enplanements.

A

0.25% to 1% 17%

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63
Q

Small hub airports serve between __________ to __________ of total enplanements, with __________ of all US enplanements.

A

0.05 to 0.25%9%

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64
Q

Nonhub primary commercial service airports have _________ enplanements, but _________ of total US annual enplanements.

A

> 10,000less than 0.05%

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65
Q

Nonprimary commercial service airports have __________ to __________ annual enplanements and primarily serve general aviation.

A

2,500 to 10,000

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66
Q

A ___________ airport is owned by the Department of Defense, with leases or contracts between military and civil entities.

A

Joint-use

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67
Q

A ___________ airport is co-located with civil airport, where portions of movement areas and safety areas shared by both parties.

A

Shared-use

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68
Q

___________ regulates commercial service airports and cargo service.

A

CFR Part 139

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69
Q

A ___________ airport has significant industrial operations, including Maintenance, Repair, and Overhaul (MRO) facilities.

A

Industrial Aviation

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70
Q

What divided GA airports into 5 categories based on activity measures such as operations and types of aircraft; and listed benefits of GA to promote and protect these facilities?

A

GA Asset Report

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71
Q

___________ airports are located in metro areas near major business centers and support flying throughout the nation and world.

A

GA National

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72
Q

GA __________ airports are located in metro areas and serve relatively large populations, supporting interstate and intrastate flying.

A

Regional

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73
Q

___________ airports are the backbone of GA system with at least one local airport in virtually every state, near large population centers, but not necessarily in metro areas. Typically intrastate flying.

A

GA Local

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74
Q

___________ airports have one runway, helipad, or seaplane lane; private flying, and link the community to national airport system.

A

GA Basic

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75
Q

What organization ensures flight operations are conducted in consistent manner and common vocabulary and operating principles amongst pilots, aviation systems, and operators?

A

International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)

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76
Q

___________regulates private operations aircraft operations.

A

CFR Part 91
-Part 91 commonly is associated with general aviation (GA) operations or GA airports. However, Part 91 has a dual meaning: it addresses the general operating and flight rules applicable to aircraft operating in U.S. airspace, whether they are general aviation or commercial flight operations, and it is used to describe a private flight operation.

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77
Q

What is the difference between private and commercial flights?

A

When person or company starts charging for the flight.

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78
Q

___________ established requirements for aircraft operator certificates (air carriers and commercial operators).

A

CFR Part 119

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79
Q

___________ established operating requirements for domestic, flag, and supplemental air carrier operations.

A

CFR Part 121

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80
Q

___________ regulates public charter operations conducted on a Part 121 air carrier.

A

CFR Part 380-Aircraft required to operate to and from Part 139 airport.

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81
Q

___________ regulates unscheduled commercial flight operations (commuter/on-demand).

A

CFR Part 135

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82
Q

What is conducted under Part 121 and requiers a departure location, departure time, and arrival location?

A

Scheduled “air carrier operation”

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83
Q

___________ regulates large, certain noncommercial flight operations (configured with seating capacity of 20 or more and max payload 6,000 lbs or more). Regulation addresses operation of aircraft NOT in common carriage (not advertised to public nor tickets sold)

A

CFR Part 125

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84
Q

A one-way or round-trip flight performed by one or more direct air carriers and sponsored by charter operator is known as ____________.

A

Public Charter

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85
Q

A ____________ is a certificated domestic or foreign carrier, air taxi operator, or commuter air carrier that directly engages in operation of aircraft under certificate or permit.

A

Direct Air Carrier

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86
Q

A ____________uses commercial air transport to move cargo or people but does not own/control aircraft.

A

Indirect air carrier

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87
Q

_____________ is a corporation that owns large aircraft to move employees and often regulated by Part 125.

A

Corporate charter

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88
Q

What information should the pilot become familiar with, before the beginning of each flight, under CFR Part 91.103 Pre-Flight?

A

Chart SupplementsWeather (Departure location, enroute and arrival location)Notice to Air Missions (NOTAMS)

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89
Q

This publication provides information to pilots as related to airport and airspace conditions that may affect their flight.

A

Notice to Air Missions (NOTAMs)

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90
Q

CFR ___________ requires becoming familiar with all available information including Airport Facility Directoy (AF/D), weather, and notices to airman (NOTMAS).

A

Part 91.103 Pre-Flight

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91
Q

Commercial air carriers, fractional operators, and corporate flights hold a ____________ to perform flight research?

A

Flight Dispatcher Certificate

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92
Q

The ___________ has final responsibility for the safety and security of the flight?

A

Pilot-In-Command (PIC)

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93
Q

The navigational process that uses ground reference points such as seeing a water tower or other known features that the pilots could identify from the air.

A

Pilotage.
-Taught to all pilots in their initial flight training stages.

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94
Q

The navigational process that uses uses radio transceivers and position triangulation is known as ______________.

A

Dead Reckoning

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95
Q

Visual flight rules require at least a ___________ cloud ceiling above ground level and ___________ or more forward visibility (Minimum VMC - Visual Meteorological Conditions).

A

1,000-ft3-miles

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96
Q

At what elevation can a pilot operate under Visual Flight Rules with or without a Flight Plan?

A

Under 18,000-ft MSL

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97
Q

____________ means that the pilot continually scans the sky for obstacles and other planes.

A

See-and-Avoid

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98
Q

____________ technique refers to the pilot continually scans the sky for obstacles and other planes.

A

See-and-Avoid technique

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99
Q

______________ are below Visual Meteorological conditions, known as ___________ and require a flight plan with the FAA.

A

Instrument Meteorological Conditions
Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)

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100
Q

Pilots must have _________, which are used by pilots to identify the airport, weather, navigation/communication frequencies, navigational aids, obstructions, and airspace information?

A

Sectional Charts

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101
Q

What must pilots under Visual Flight Rules have a copy of?

A

Sectional Chart(s)

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102
Q

What do pilots operating under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) carry, showing routes between navigational aids, minimum altitudes to maintain safe separation?

A

Low Altitude En Route charts (below 18,000ft)
High Altitude En Route charts (above 18,000ft)

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103
Q

What are three types of weather reporting stations a pilot can access while on approach to an airport?

A

Airport Surface Observations Station (ASOS)
Airport Weather Observation Station (AWOS)
Automated Terminal Information Service (ATIS)
-Updated hourly and includes NOTAMs and airfield information.

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104
Q

List the 3 types of Runway Approaches.

A
  1. visual approach
  2. instrument approach non-precision
  3. instrument approach precision
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105
Q

A visual approach can be made any time when the following is true:

A

-ATC (if available) approves it,
-The destination airport meets visibility requirements of three statute miles or greater,
-The cloud ceiling is at least 1,000 feet above the ground level
**(a “ceiling” is considered to be the lowest layer of clouds that are classified as “broken,” thus, “scattered clouds” do not constitute a ceiling).

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106
Q

_____________ chart outlines routes and altitudes to be flown for landing at airport, ensuring clearance over obstacles, descent altitudes, and missed approach procedure.

A

Instrument approach plate

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107
Q

What are the standard defined flight path for aircraft departures, for flying under instrument procedures?

A

Instrument Departure Procedures (DP)

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108
Q

The ____________ procedure is used to simplify communication and understanding during approaches.

A

Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)

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109
Q

The ____________ are specialized procedures pilots use to depart from and arrive into an airport, along with instrument approaches?

A

Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPs)

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110
Q

The standard TERPs approach has a __________ glideslope and requires a one foot descent for every _______ FT over the ground.

A

Three-Degree
20 Feet

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111
Q

What determines the necessary signs, marking and lighting, and approach lighting for a runway?

A

Type of Approach

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112
Q

At final approach fix (final approach begins) requires _______ FT clearance with a tapper to _______ FT at threshold.

A

700 FT50 FT

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113
Q

____________ is a branch of government that operates like a business, under a municipal structure?

A

Enterprise Fund

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114
Q

Which law requires airports to be as self-sustaining as possible?

A

Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982 (AAIA)

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115
Q

What characterizes successful airports?

A

Effective working relationship between policy makers and management

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116
Q

What is in place to protect airports from political influences?

A

Grant Assurances (along with FAA orders)

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117
Q

List the 9 types of airport sponsorship Structures.

A
  1. municipality (city/county)
  2. Airport Authority
  3. State Operated
  4. Port Authority
  5. Federal
  6. Commission or District
  7. Joint-City or Joint-State Agreement
  8. Private/Public-Use9. Private/Private-Use
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118
Q

Airport Sponsor Structure where the city or county owns and operates the entire facility as a department or division of themunicipality

A

Municipality

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119
Q

Airport Sponsor Structure where enabling legislation from one or more municipalities makes a legal sponsor and creates another branch of local government is called ___________?

A

Airport Authority

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120
Q

Airport Sponsor Structure where the state maintains control of the airport as a department or division, or in conjuntion with an authority or appointed board is called ____________?

A

State Operated

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121
Q

Airport Sponsor Structure where a board oversees other agencies, including aviation, such as rail, maritime ports, subways and other forms of transportation is called __________?

A

Port Authority

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122
Q

Airport Sponsor Structure where the airport is owned by the federal government or appointed by a branch or agency of the federal government is called ___________?

A

Federal

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123
Q

Airport Sponsor Structure where the airport retains its connectoin to the municipality but has an independent board that oversees operation and management is called ______?

A

Commission or District

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124
Q

Airport Sponsor Structure where the airport is privately operated but open to the public is called _________?

A

Private/Public-Use

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125
Q

Airport Sponsor Structure where the airport is privately operated and is only oped to certain individuals is called _______?

A

Private/Private Use
**These airports are not eligible for sponsor assurances and are not in the NPIAS.

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126
Q

Airport Sponsor Structure that is the most common is called _________?

A

Municipality

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127
Q

Municipalities often transfer some or all authority to control the airport to what four types of possible intities?

A
  1. Advisory Board
  2. Authority Board
  3. Commission
  4. Special District
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128
Q

What are the roles of an Airport Advisory Board?

A
  • Guidance and expertise for municipalities
  • Review requests from staff
  • Prepare recommendations for sponsor to act upon
  • Authority delineated in enabling legislation
    **Some boards are simply advisory, and others have the authority to make/enforce policy.
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129
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of a Municipality owned airport?

A

Advantages:
-Better Access to resources of other city/county departments
-Reduced cost with regards to staffing, Police, Admin, Accounting, Legal, etc.
-Possible access to better funding sources, i.e. local taxes,

Disadvantages:
-Policy makers are often unfamiliar with operations of airports
-Policy makers may not the time needed to devote to the airport
-Decisions may not be in the best interest of the airport, as the individuals have other departments that may be higher priority.
-Other community enterest may take priority.
-Policy makers may not know how to manage land enterests on/near the airport

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130
Q

Primary reasons municipalities create Airport Authorities.

A

1) Airport outgrows political boundaries and need to include a broader boundary.
2) Allows more concentration/specialization on business matters.
3) Ability to have “On-scene” decision-making (more efficiency). 4) Reduces political influence over business functions.
5) Provides multiple jurisdictions with representation.

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131
Q

What questions/answers will determine the level of an Airport Authorities ability to operate independently?

A

1) Who controls the appointments to the authority’s governing body?
2) Does the authority have total control over its budget, contracts, capital improvement projects, and personnel practices?
3) Does the authority have the power of eminent domain and the power to levy taxes?

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132
Q

What are advantages and disadvantages of an Airport or Port Authority?

A

Advantages:
- Focused leadership and specialized attention to significant community asset
- Insulate from political influences
- More business-focused, efficient operation and economy of scale

Disadvantages:
- Resources and finances may not be readily available in necessary quantities or levels
- Authorities are often created to divest a municipality or state from monetary obligations.

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133
Q

___________ created the Metropolitan Washington Airports Authority (MWAA)?

A

Federal Government

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134
Q

_____________ is a shift from traditional government responsibility to the control of private enterprise?

A

Airport Privatization

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135
Q

The ____________ transfers federal obligation, responsibility for operation, management, and development of airport from public to private sponsor.

A

The Airport Investment Partnership Program (AIPP)
(Formerly known as Airport Privatization Program)

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136
Q

What is a special type of legally-chartered institution that generally has the same status as a public corporation, but, along with the airport(s), operates other public facilities such as toll roads or public transportation?

A

Port Authority

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137
Q

What has the same responsibilities and statures as airport authorities, allowing for focused attention and expertise to be applied in operating the airport by appointing (or electing individuals) by county/city?

A

Commission

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138
Q

How should Airport Executives think of airports?

A

Public entity that is run like a business

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139
Q

Describe the main roles of an Airport Executive.

A

Safe, Secure, Efficient operation of airport and its facilities
- Implements policy
- Runs The airport day-to-day
- Reports to The governing body
- Operates The airport safely and efficiently
- Maintains The airport and its facilities
- Prepares financial plans
- Oversees public relations
- Makes provisions for passengers and The public
- Recommends and enforces rules and regulations
- Oversees planning and construction projects
- Secures new business

  • in all cases, The airport director/manager is responsible to ensure The board members (or ruling body) is educated on airport operational issues, CIP plans and management challenges.
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140
Q

List the 4 primary areas of airport management/manager.

A
  1. Finance and administration
  2. Planning and engineering
  3. Operations, security and maintenance
  4. Marketing, public relations, and air service development (ASD)
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141
Q

Describe the main roles of Airport’s governing body.

A
  • establishes policy
  • sets goals
  • identifies strategies for fulfilling the vision
  • executes contracts
  • serves as airport advocate
  • approves plans/programs
  • assigns and oversees manager’s responsibilities
  • selects consultants and service providers
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142
Q

What are 3 key positions at any airport that are generally outside of the vertical reporting structure?

A
  1. Airport’s legal counsel
  2. Financial auditor
  3. Security Director
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143
Q

Why would an airport create security as a separate division reporting to the Airport Executive?

A

Prevent executive from circumventing enforcement of security regulations

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144
Q

Why would an airport create security as a separate division reporting to the Airport Executive?

A

Prevent executive from circumventing enforcement of security regulations

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145
Q

The Legal Counsel reports directly to __________ or ___________?

A

The Board orAirport Executive

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146
Q

Is the following statement True or Fals?”As ignorance of the law is NOT a defense in a court of law, ignorance of these policies is also NOT a defense to contravene their requirements and guidance.”

A

TRUE

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147
Q

What explains the intent of a federal regulation, provide guidance and information on a subject area, and show an acceptable method of complying with a related regulation?

A

Advisory Circulars (ACs)

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148
Q

____________ regulates noise standards: aircraft type and airworthiness certification.

A

CFR Part 36

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149
Q

___________ regulates airport security.

A
  • Title 49 CFR Part 1542: Airport Security (replaced Title 14 Part 107)34
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150
Q

Where are draft set of regulations published?

A

Federal Register

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151
Q

____________ provides regulatory alerts on FAA rulemaking/interpretations, regulatory issues, and connection to the ACRP.

A

Regulatory Affairs

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152
Q

____________ is to establish a safe, efficient use and preservation of the navigable airspace.

A

CFR Part 77

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153
Q

____________ regulates noise and compatibility planning.

A

CFR Part 150

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154
Q

Aviation security is regulated by the _________ CFR __________ series of regulations.

A

Title 49
Part 1500

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155
Q

____________ regulates aircraft operator security for air carriers and commercial operators.

A

CFR Part 1544

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156
Q

Most regulations are created through the __________ process.

A

Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM)

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157
Q

The public comment period is ________ for a minor change and ________ for a major change in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) process?

A

30 days| 60 days

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158
Q

____________ regulates noise standards: aircraft type and airworthiness certification.

A

CFR Part 36

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159
Q

___________ regulates airport security.

A

CFR Part 1542

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160
Q

The FAA has ______ regional offices.

A

9

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161
Q

List the FAA regional offices.

A

New England,
Eastern,
Southern,
Great Lakes,
Central,
Southwest,
Northwest,
Western-Pacific, and
Alaskan Regions

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162
Q

___________ frequently works with Planning and Engineering department on federal AIP grants?

A

Airport District Office (ADO)

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163
Q

Airport Executives most commonly work with __________ at the FAA?

A

Office of Airports (ARP)

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164
Q

The FAA’s major roles now include:

A

NAME?

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165
Q

List the main function of 5 FAA business lines.

A
  1. Office of Airports (ARP)
  2. Air Traffic Organization (ATO) - air traffic control and navaid maintenance
  3. Aviation Safety (AVS) - certification of pilots, mechanics, and air safety professionals
  4. Office of Security and Hazardous Material Safety(ASH)
  5. Office of Commercial Space Transportation (ATS)
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166
Q

Which FAA division is responsible for all programs related to airport safety and inspections, as well as standards for airport design, construction and operation; AIP grants, PFC applications, grant assurances, and DBE requirements?

A

Office of Airports (ARP)

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167
Q

The __________ can handle informal disputes at the regional or local FAA level by using both enforcement procedures and Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)?

A

Airports District Office (ADO)

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168
Q

The __________ is a regional FAA office that concentrates on enforcing regulations pertaining to aircraft and airmen certification and licensing.

A

Flights Standards District Office (FSDO)

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169
Q

ACs are identified by the title ____________ if they are binding and incorporated with reference to a regulation.

A

FAR Guidance Material

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170
Q

Directives on specific subjects and programs issued by the FAA are __________. These provide guidance and instruction to personnel on compliance, airport safety, and operations. Essentially “rules” for airport management.

A

FAA Orders

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171
Q

What international organization was established to provide “secure international cooperation and the highest possible degree of uniformity in regulations and standards, procedures, and organization regarding civil aviation matters.”

A

The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)

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172
Q

List the Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS) annexes:

A

Annex 1: Personnel Licensing
Annex 2: Rules of the Air
Annex 3: Meteorological Service for International Air Navigation
Annex 4: Aeronautical Charts
Annex 5: Units of Measurement to be Used in Air and Ground Operations
Annex 6: Operation of Aircraft
Annex 7: Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks
Annex 8: Airworthiness of Aircraft
Annex 9: Facilitation
Annex 10: Aeronautical Telecommunications
Annex 11: Air Traffic Services
Annex 12: Search and Rescue
Annex 13: Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation
Annex 14: Aerodromes (Airports)Annex 15: Aeronautical Information Services
Annex 16: Environmental Protection
Annex 17: Security: Safeguarding International Civil Aviation Against Acts of Unlawful Interference
Annex 18: The Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air

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173
Q

__________ gives the FAA Airports Safety and Operations Division a quick way of providing additional guidance on Part 139 Airport Certification and related issues to FAA inspectors and staff.

A

Certification Alert (CertAlert)

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174
Q

____________ provide regulatory requirements| for airport security related systems such as perimeter intrusion, biometrics, and identity management

A

Radio Technical Commission for Aeronautics (RTCA)

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175
Q

A TSA ________ provides changing requirements to the airport security program, while a TSA _________ provides intelligence information or best practices for airport security.

A

Security Directive (SD)Information Circulars (ID)

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176
Q

Grant Assurances are primarily managed by the FAA through the _____________, order ___________, providing guidance to FAA on interpreting and administrating sponsor commitments.

A

Airport Compliance Manual| 5190.6B

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177
Q

___________ assurances were made by state/municipality that airport would continue to be operated and maintained, traced back to 1946 when fed govt transferred ownership to local entities.

A

AP-4

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178
Q

How long do Grant Assurances address an airport’s responsibilities during a project and establish continuing obligations?

A

20 years

179
Q

Grant Assurances attempt to balance what 3 competing public interests?

A
  • They allow The airport executive to manage local affairs better.
  • They meet The FAA requirement to ensure that federal funds are used effectively to meet The need for public air transportation.
    -They meet the federal government’s goal to promote social objectives, such as disadvantaged businesses and the rights of those with disabilities.
180
Q

Airport eligibility to receive grant monies is determined by whether airport is listed on the ____________.

A

Airport Noncompliance List (ANL)

181
Q

What is the expiry for Grant Agreements for land purchase, surplus property deeds and non-surplus land conveyance documents?

A

No expiry

182
Q

Overall requirements of Grant Assurances.

A

NAME?

183
Q

What are informal complaints filed with the FAA’s Airport District Office, which ensure sponsors are in compliance?

A

14 CFR Part 13 Investigation and Enforcement

184
Q

What are formal complaints for the violation of regulations, with deadlines and stringent requirements for the Airport, complainant, and FAA?

A

Title 14 CFR Part 16 Rules of Practice for Federally Assisted Airport Enforcement Proceedings

185
Q

How can the public report compliance violations of federal laws affecting air transportation?

A

Part 13 complaint

186
Q

___________ identifies the apparent violation(s), corrective action to resolve the noncompliance without further action, and deadline for corrective action?

A

Notice of Apparent Noncompliance

187
Q

_________ complaints cover matters involving federal obligations incurred by Airport Sponsor in accepting federal property of FAA grants.

A

Part 16

188
Q

Individuals file a formal FAR Part 16 complaint with ___________ of the FAA.

A

Office of the Chief Counsel

189
Q

Which FAA office investigates Part 16 complaints further if reasonable basis exists?

A

Office of Airport Safety and Standards

190
Q

After the last pleading date was due, the FAA has _________ to issue a non-final decision on the complaint and __________ for either party to appeal?

A

120 days| 30 days

191
Q

List 3 conditions where the FAA administrator may issue a Part 16 Final Agency Decision (FAD).

A
  1. complaint is dismissed after investigation
  2. hearing is not required or made available
  3. FAA provides respondent an opportunity for hearing, and respondent waives opportunity
192
Q

___________ is a phrase to describe a collection of FAA regulations, adjudications, various statues, Grant Assurances, Advisory Circulars, court decisions at local/state/federal levels, and lease agreements.

A

Airport Law

193
Q

Which grant assurance requires that the airport hold a good title for airport owned land?

A

Grant Assurance 4 - Good Title

194
Q

Which grant assurance preserves the rights and powers and prevents an airport sponsor form taking any action that may deprive the airport sponsor of its rights/powers to direct and control airport development?

A

Grant Assurance 5 - Preserving Rights and Powers

195
Q

What grant assurances pertain to land use on or near an airport?

A

Grant Assurance 20, Hazard Removal and Mitigation
Grant Assurance 21, Compatible Land Use

196
Q

What grant assurances address “permitted activities” at an airport?

A

Grant Assurance 19, Operation and Maintenance
Grant Assurance 22, Economic Nondiscrimination
Grant Assurance 23, Exclusive Rights

197
Q

Grant Assurance 19, Operation and Maintenance, requires airports to be operated to ______________ standards, in accordance with FAA AC 150/5190-1.

A

Minimum Standards (MS)

198
Q

Benefits of establishing and following minimum standards include these five benefits:

A

NAME?

199
Q

Which grant assurance restricts the airport from allowing exclusive rights to a person or business?

A

Grant Assurance 23, Exclusive Rights

200
Q

Which grant assurance requires large and medium hub airport operators to report to the Secretary of Transportation any denial of a request by an air carrier to access the airport?

A

Grant Assurance 39, Competitive Access

201
Q

What are 5 inappropriate uses for hangar facilities?

A
  • Using a hangar as a residence.
  • Using it for general storage of non
    -aeronautical items (boats, file boxes containing items that are not related to aeronautical use).
  • Any activity that impedes the movement of aircraft.
  • Storage of inventory or items unrelated to an aeronautical use.
  • Using it as a base of operations for a no-aeronautical business.
202
Q

____________ are small businesses that have socially and economically disadvantaged individuals who own at least a 51% interest of a business and control management and daily operations.

A

DBEs (Disadvantage Business Enterprises)

203
Q

Who is eligible to be a Certified Member?

A

Affiliate,
Associate,
Participating,
Corporate,
Military,
Academic Graduate AAAE members

204
Q

The AAAE ____________ team represents airports between key executive agencies, including the DOT, FAA, and EPA (not TSA).

A

Regulatory Affairs

205
Q

___________ is a phrase to describe a collection of FAA regulations, adjudications, various statues, Grant Assurances, Advisory Circulars, court decisions at local/state/federal levels, and lease agreements.

A

Airport Law

206
Q

Once an airport has accepted AIP grant funding, the airport is in a ___________, where revenue generated must be expended at the airport.

A

closed fiscal system

207
Q

____________ is statutory and is considered a crime against society.

A

Criminal law

208
Q

A _________ is governed by state laws, and frequently used in airport management for regulatory compliance such as enforcing rules and regulations.

A

Infraction

209
Q

____________ is considered to involve injury to an individual, rather than to society? Referred to as “tort” law.

A

Civil law

210
Q

The legal precept of ___________ allows a person the unrestricted enjoyment of their personal and real property.

A

Quiet enjoyment

211
Q

If damages were unintentional but still resulted through accidental interference or the lack of action, the person or entity at fault may have been _______

A

Negligent

212
Q

___________ is a legal concept that the government cannot commit a legal wrong is immune from civil suit or criminal prosecution.

A

Governmental immunity

213
Q

__________ is the failure to use reasonable care, if he or she fails to act as an ordinarily prudent person would act under the same circumstances.

A

Negligence

214
Q

What law waives immunity if the act of a government employee caused damage?

A

Federal Tort Claims Act

215
Q

What law gives immunity over claims arising out of contracts with the federal government?

A

Tucker Act

216
Q

__________ occurs when someone has personally participated in an affirmative act of negligence, known about or complied in negligent acts, or failed to perform a precise duty. Snow removal, environmental remediation, for example.

A

Active negligence

217
Q

Which law created the TSA?

A

Aviation and Transportation Security Act (ATSA)

218
Q

Which agency investigates every civil aviation accident and significant accidents in other transport modes and develop safety recommendations?

A

National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)

219
Q

____________ was established to secure international cooperation and the highest degree of uniformity in regulations and standards, procedures, and organization regarding civil aviation.

A

International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)

220
Q

____________ was created by Airport Executives around the world to represent common interests and to promote cooperation with associates in the air transport industry.

A

Airports Council International (ACI)

221
Q

___________ is a nonprofit organization created to bring together law enforcement leaders and facilitate communication between Airport Executives, intelligence officers, and investigators of law enforcement agencies.

A

Airport Law Enforcement Agencies Network (ALEAN)

222
Q

____________ promotes safe, reliable, secure, and economical air services for the benefit of consumers. Represent, lead, and serve the airline industry.

A

International Air Transport Association (IATA)

223
Q

___________ nation’s oldest and largest airline trade association that represents leading airlines. Powerful lobbying force for airline industry.

A

Airlines for America (A4A)

224
Q

___________ represents and advocates for more than 54,000 pilots at 31 airlines. Provides airline safety, security, and pilot assistance, representation, and advocacy.

A

Air Line Pilots’ Association (ALPA)

225
Q

___________ represents North American regional airlines and ancillary industries supporting regional airlines before the US Congress, DOT, FAA, and other agencies.

A

Regional Airline Association (RAA)

226
Q

___________ is an organization for companies who rely on GA aircraft to help make their businesses more efficient, productive, and successful

A

National Business Aviation Association (NBAA)

227
Q

___________ is a non-for-profit organization dedicated to General Aviation. 2 notable programs include Airport Watch and Airport Support Network.

A

Aircraft Owners and Pilots Association (AOPA)

228
Q

___________ represents interests of GA business community before Congress and federal, state, and local agencies.

A

National Air Transportation Association (NATA)

229
Q

___________ is the premier trade association representing manufacturers and suppliers of civil, military, business aircraft, helicopters, UAVs, space systems, engines, and other technologies.

A

Aerospace Industries Association (AIA)

230
Q

___________ one of most senior aviation organizations in US, predating FAA predecessor, representing those in state government aviation agencies who serve the public interest.

A

National Association of State Aviation Officials (NASAO)

231
Q

The exclusive bargaining representative of FAA air traffic controllers is ____________. Affiliated with AFL-CIO and represents over 20,000 professionals at FAA, DOD, and some private air traffic control facilities.

A

National Air Traffic Controllers Association (NATCA)

232
Q

____________ provides services that directly benefit| the operations of their members and strives to advance the international helicopter community.

A

Helicopter Association International (HAI)

233
Q

Human resources, organization management, business law, economics, leadership, marketing, accounting, strategic planning, and quantitative analysis are examples of ____________ competencies.

A

Business enterprise

234
Q

Public finance, leadership and professional ethics, public policy making, purchasing and procurement, urban planning, GIS, and environmental law are examples of ____________ competencies.

A

Public administration

235
Q

__________ requires airport to provide the FAA with a complete Title Search Report of all airportproperty depicted on the current Airport Layout Plan (ALP) and Exhibit “A” maps.

A

Grant Assurance 4, Good Title

236
Q

___________ prohibits an airport to sell, lease, encumber, or otherwise transfer or dispose of any part of its title of interests in property shown on Exhibit “A” without written FAA approval.

A

Grant Assurance 5, Preserving Rights and Powers

237
Q

List the 2 distinctions of On-airport land use.

A
  1. Aeronautical use - land reserved for aeronautical activity
  2. Non-aeronautical use - revenue to support airport’s aviation needs
238
Q

____________ is an important tool in ensuring land adjacent to, or within immediate vicinity of, the airport is consistent with activities and purposes compatible with normal airport operations.

A

Land use planning

239
Q

What method does FAA use to influence airport land use and land uses surrounding airport?

A

Grant Assurances

240
Q

Grant Assurance #21 Compatible Land Use addresses _________ land use, requiring Sponsors to attempt to restrict the land use.

A

Off-airport

241
Q

Which Grant Assurance addresses height restrictions?

A

20 Hazard Removal and Mitigation

242
Q

FAA requires that the Airport Executive _________ to restrict incompatible land use around the airport, particularly in and along approach and departure paths.

A

Attempt

243
Q

Defending the airport from incompatible off-airport land use starts with the _____________.

A

Airport Master Plan

244
Q

While the Sponsor does not have the authority to enact zoning ordinances or changes, the Sponsor should demonstrate a ____________ to inform surrounding municipalities on the need for land use compatibility zoning.

A

Reasonable attempt

245
Q

_____________ is when land can be used for more than one purpose at the same time.

A

Concurrent land use

246
Q

The FAA ___________ residential development on or around airports.

A

Strongly opposes

247
Q

Permanent or long-term living quarters, hangar homes, fly-in communities or residential hangars are ___________ and the FAA ___________. traditionally opposed

A

Airparks
Traditionally opposed.

248
Q

___________ delineates the airport’s boundaries, including all facilities, and identifies plans for future development; as required under Grant Assurance 29.

A

Airport Layout Plan (ALP)

249
Q

What is a prerequisite to granting AIP funds?

A

FAA-approved ALP

250
Q

The property designation of aeronautical or non-aeronautical is important in land use planning and ____________.

A

Revenue management.

251
Q

List 3 Grant assurances addressing permitted activities on an airport.

A

19 Operation and Maintenance (most encompassing)

#22 Economic Nondiscrimination
#23 Exclusive Rights

252
Q

_____________ are requirements an individual or entity wishing to provide aeronautical services to the public on a public-use airport must meet in order to provide those services; required in Grant Assurance 19 Operations and Maintenance.

A

Minimum Standards (MS)

253
Q

_____________ allow an airport operator to better ensure a safe operating environment, avoid tenant conflicts, provide quality services to public, provide protection to airport, and comply with Grant Assurances.

A

Minimum Standards

254
Q

List 2 Grant Assurances to address application and management of Minimum Standards.

A

22 economic discrimination

#23 exclusive rights

255
Q

Economic nondiscrimination Grant Assurance 22 uses the term ____________, which means airport operator may prohibit/limit a class of use but may not restrict an individual user.

A

unjust discrimination

256
Q

Grant Assurance ____________ restricts the Airport Executive from granting any tenant the exclusive right to conduct a particular commercial aeronautical service unless it would be unreasonably costly, burdensome, or impractical.

A

23 Exclusive Rights

257
Q

How can you ensure compliance with Grant Assurance 19 Operations and Maintenance?

A

Rules and regulations at each airport
1. security
2. individuals conduct
3. conduct of tenants/vendors
4. schedules of fees, rates, charges
5. vehicle movement in AOA, AMA, speed limits, etc.
6. aircraft operations

258
Q

How are self-fueling and self-service operations addressed?

A

Minimum Standards and/or Rules and Regulations

259
Q

Grant Assurance____________ requires large and medium hub airport operators to report to Sec. of Transportation any denial of a request by air carrier for access to airport.

A

39, Competitive Access

260
Q

The FAA’s policy on hangar use is these facilities should be used for a ___________ use.

A

Aeronautical

261
Q

Grant Assurance ___________addresses Through-the-Fence (TTF) agreements?

A

5 Preserving Rights and Powers

262
Q

An off-airport business operation with access to the airport’s runway/taxiway system, discouraged by the FAA, are known as ____________.

A

Through-the-Fence

263
Q

Which law authorizes Through-the-Fence agreements to allow for residential property next to General Aviation airports?

A

FAA Modernization and Reform Act of 2012

264
Q

List the 3 types of airport revenue.

A
  1. aeronautical
  2. non-aeronautical
  3. non-operating
265
Q

_____________ includes services provided by air carriers related directly and substantially to the movement of passengers, baggage, mail, and cargo at the airport.

A

Aeronautical revenue

266
Q

_____________ includes land rent received from an off-industrial park that is owned by the airport, reservations centers, catering facilities, rental car operations, parking, and concession sales

A

Non-aeronautical revenue

267
Q

____________ includes passenger facility charges, customer facility charges, interest incomes, property taxes, sale of property, and grants

A

Non-operating revenue.

268
Q

____________ is the most universal type of aeronautical user charge at commercial service airports, charged on per-operation or per-weight/operation basis.

A

Landing fee

269
Q

___________ is a percentage on the amount of fuel sold on the airport to be collected as airport revenue.

A

Fuel flowage fee

270
Q

Can leaseholds be both from aeronautical or non-aeronautical use sources?

A

Yes, both

271
Q

Larger GA hangar tenants are often ____________ that may also request their own fuel farm, rent additional ramp, rent office space, and perform maintenance.

A

Corporate operators

272
Q

_____________ are program grants to reduce airport ground emissions, allowing for Sponsors to use AIP and PFCs to finance low emission vehicles, refueling/recharging, and air quality improvements.

A

Voluntary Airport Low Emissions (VALE)

273
Q

____________ airport revenue is the most significant and less limitations.

A

Non-aeronautical

274
Q

Customer Facility Charges and Passenger Facility Charges are examples of ___________ revenue.

A

Non-operating

275
Q

Which law establishes general requirements for airport revenue use?

A

Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982

276
Q

Which Grant Assurance regulates the use of airport revenue generated by airport and local taxes on fuel must be expended for airport/airport-system capital or operating operating costs?

A

25, Airport Revenue

277
Q

Which law requires conducting an annual audit and ensure the government that airport funds have been properly distributed?

A

Single Audit Act of 1984

278
Q

Using airport revenue for non-airport uses is called ___________.

A

Revenue Diversion

279
Q

Items not considered to be airport revenue include revenue generated by an airport __________ in the course of their business.

A

Tenant

280
Q

Payments in Lieu of Taxis (PILOTS) or other assessments exceeding value of services are ___________uses of airport revenue, and represent ___________.

A

Prohibited
Revenue diversion

281
Q

Examples of unlawful revenue diversion.

A
  • general economic development for municipality
  • marketing not directly promoting airport
  • airport funds to support community activities
  • loans or investments at less than prevailing rates
  • Direct subsidy of air carrier operations
  • Rental of land at less than fair market value rent
282
Q

Grant Assurance ____________ addresses reporting financial information, implementing financial reporting provisions of the 1994 Authorization Act.

A

26, Reports and Inspections

283
Q

When is the filing deadline for Forms 5100-126 and 5100-127 (financial reporting)?

A

120 days after end of fiscal year

284
Q

____________ requires sponsors to file an annual report on revenue paid to other units of government and on compensation airport received for services and property to other government units.

A

Form 5100-126, Financial Governmental Payment Form

285
Q

____________ account for the financing of goods or services provided by one department of government unit to another on cost-reimbursement basis.

A

Internal Service Funds

286
Q

The Airport Executive breaks down revenues and expenses by Aeronautical operating revenue, Non-aeronautical operating revenue, and non-operating revenue, in the ____________.

A

Form 5100-127, Operating and Financial Summary

287
Q

__________ is the process of recording all financial transactions in a journal.

A

Bookkeeping

288
Q

Using accounting data to calculate and report cash flows, profit, and loss of a financial entity is __________ accounting. Including income statement and balance sheet.

A

Financial

289
Q

__________ is the process of checking financial records to ensure the integrity of the information.

A

Auditing

290
Q

Detailed information about individual products, services, or managers that is used to make decisions about costs, pricing and who to promote is ________ accounting.

A

Management

291
Q

Airports are often established as an ___________, accounting for operations that are finance-operated similar to private businesses.

A

Enterprise Fund

292
Q

The _____________ accounts for Assets and Liabilities, i.e. the Balance Sheet

A

Statement of Net Assets/Statement of Net Position

293
Q

The ___________ shows the “bottom line”, of revenues minus expenses

A

Statement of Activities/Income Statement

294
Q

The ____________ shows how much cash the company had at the beginning of reporting period and how much remainder at end. of reporting period.

A

Cash Flow Statement

295
Q

Details about company’s pension plans, changes in accounting practices, stock options, and income taxes, are located in ___________.

A

Notes of Quarterly Reports

296
Q

List 2 documents containing airport Financial Statements.

A
  1. Annual report
  2. Quarterly 10-Q reports
297
Q

Financial reports contain _____________, in which management provides detailed discussion of financial health and explains trends/anomalies.

A

Management’s Discussion and Analysis and Discussion (MD& A)

298
Q

Most state and municipal governments operate on a fiscal year that begins on ________ and ends on _________ of the following year.

A

July 1st
June 30th

299
Q

_________ is defined as the annual cost for providing, operating, maintaining, and administering an airportfacility.

A

Break-even

300
Q

An __________ focuses on those expenses and revenues necessitated by normal and ongoing operations, to provide an accurate estimate of the revenues and expenses of the airport for a future period (typically 1 year).

A

Operating budget

301
Q

____________ reflects an annual or multi-year financial plan for capital projects, or major equipment expenditures, and means of implementing the plan; often associated with Capital Improvement Plans (CIP).

A

Capital budgeting

302
Q

Passenger facility charges (PFC) and Airport Improvement Program (AIP) funds are often used with the ____________ process.

A

Master planning

303
Q

A ____________ budget lists each dept. and assigns a sum of money to the dept. or administrative unit to be spent as needed.

A

Line-item

304
Q

A ____________ budget lists what each administrative unit is trying to accomplish, how much it plans to do, and with what resources.

A

Performance based

305
Q

____________ budgeting divides expenditures by activities, with emphasis on priorities and need for trade-offs.

A

Program

306
Q

____________ budgeting starts from a zero base and every function within an organization is analyzed for its needs and costs.

A

Zero-based

307
Q

Grant Assurance ____________ is directed at making the airport as self-sustaining as possible when setting fees and lease rates/charges.

A

24 Fee and Rental Structure

308
Q

The ____________ requires airports to be as| self- sustaining (relies on its revenue streams for op expenses) as possible under the circumstances at that airport.

A

Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982 (AAIA)

309
Q

Each established rate, charge, or fee is subject to scrutiny from FAA, required under the ____________ to take into account whether Sponsors have taken reasonable efforts to be self-sustaining.

A

FAA Authorization Act of 1994

310
Q

What are individuals or businesses providing services involving operation of aircraft or flight support directly related to aircraft operation?

A

Aeronautical Users

311
Q

Fair market fees for use of the airport are ____________ for non-aeronautical use of the airport and are ____________ for non-airfield aeronautical use.

A

Required| Optional

312
Q

Airport sponsors must impose ____________ charges for non-aeronautical uses of airport property with certain exceptions.

A

Fair Market Value

313
Q

List 4 exceptions to charging fair market value for Non-Aeronautical Revenue.

A
  1. property for community purposes
  2. non-for-profit aviation organizations
  3. transit projects and systems
  4. military aeronautical units
314
Q

FAA prefers that Sponsors handle most rates and charges at the ____________, and make a good faith effort to reach an agreement between Sponsor and aeronautical users.

A

Local level

315
Q

List 3 common approaches to airport Rate Setting.

A
  1. Residual
  2. Compensatory
  3. Hybrid methods
316
Q

Under the ___________ method, much of the financial risk is transferred to the airlines in return for a negotiated limit on the airport’s profits; seeks to result in a break-even and can have a Majority-in-Interest (MIII) clause.

A

Residual

317
Q

Signatory agreements can provide exclusive rights of the air carrier to their ticket counters, lounges, gates, and other areas and in some cases, through a __________ clause, and air carrier has the right to approve capital projects or select Airport Executive.

A

Majority-in- Interest (MII)

318
Q

Large airports have commonly used the ________ method for rate setting because of influence and power of airlines in generating economic traffic.

A

Residual

319
Q

A ___________ is one in which a Sponsor assumes all liability for airport costs and retains all airport revenue for its own use in accordance with federal requirements. Aeronautical users are charged only for the costs of the aeronautical facilities used.

A

Compensatory agreement

320
Q

Under the _________ method of compensatory approaches, fees and charges are set for each revenue-producing cost center.

A

Cost-of-service

321
Q

Under the __________ approach, the local government agency offsets the difference between the revenue and expenses by subsidizing the airport’s operation.

A

Public subsidy

322
Q

Sponsors that adopt rate setting systems employing elements of both residual and compensatory approaches are known as _________; charging for both use of aeronautical facilities and responsibility for airport costs in return for sharing non-aero revenues.

A

Hybrid agreements

323
Q

The _______ is the total of all costs associated with providing airfield facilities and services to aeronautical users.

A

‘‘rate base’’

324
Q

Federal law does not require a specific rate setting method, but it must be applied consistently to ___________ aeronautical users and conforms with FAA’s procedures on rate setting.

A

similarly situated

325
Q

List 5 ways the airport operator may set fees for Aeronautical use.

A
  1. ordinance
  2. statute
  3. resolution
  4. regulation
  5. agreement
326
Q

In setting the rate base, the airport operator must apply a ____________ in establishing fees for comparable aeronautical users of the airport.

A

consistent methodology

327
Q

List 4 types of information airports must provide to aeronautical users over Changes to Rates and Charges.

A
  1. Historic financial information for two fiscal years prior
  2. Economic, legal, or financial justification for changes
  3. Traffic information for preceding two years
  4. Planning and forecast information to extent applicable
328
Q

The goal of airport ____________ is to ensure the airport’s economic self-sufficiency through the full use and occupancy of facilities.

A

Property management

329
Q

Do collecting Passenger Facility Charges (PFCs) require the operator to use federal procurement standards?

A

No - PFCs = user fees not grants

330
Q

___________ promotes the substitution of materials and methods with less expensive alternatives that do not compromise functionality.

A

Value Engineering (VE)

331
Q

List 2 FAA requirements for federally-funded construction Contracts exceeding $2,000?

A
  1. comply with Davis-Bacon Act
  2. establish a Disadvantaged Business Enterprise (DBE) program and submit plan to FAA for approval
332
Q

Which law requires providing a weekly reporting of wages paid (minimum wage requirement)?

A

Davis-Bacon Act

333
Q

Which law requires all steel and manufactured goods used in AIP funded projects to be produced in US?

A

Buy America Act of 2003

334
Q

For contracts over __________, federal regulations require airport to publicly advertise bid and require a 5% bid guarantee, and payment bonds equaling 100% of contract.

A

$100,000

335
Q

Under the ___________ method, contracts for construction and equipment must go to the lowest responsive and responsible bidder.

A

Sealed bid

336
Q

When conditions are not appropriate for the use of sealed bids, such as when the precise scope of work is not defined, ____________ may be used.

A

Competitive proposals

337
Q

Competitive proposals are handled through the _________ process, where applicable state and local laws are addressed.

A

Request For Proposal (RFP)

338
Q

___________ is a method of project delivery in which one entity works under a single contract with the project owner to provide design and construction services.

A

Design-Build

339
Q

__________ permit government stocks of specific items to be maintained at minimum levels and allow direct shipments to the users of products or services; sometimes referred to as an infinite delivery.

A

Task-Order Contracts

340
Q

The _________ is similar to a General Contractor who is retained to provide advice to the airport operator during the design phase, to take bids for construction from multiple primes, and manage prime contractors.

A

Construction Manager at Risk (CMAR)

341
Q

____________are typically used for program management, construction management, planning studies, feasibility studies, architectural services, preliminary engineering, design, engineering, surveying, and mapping.

A

Professional services contracts

342
Q

____________ contracts require prior ADO approval and are typically only approved when the item or service is only available from a single-source, when competition is deemed inadequate, or emergency.

A

Single-source or noncompetitive

343
Q

Grant Assurances require a ___________ program in contracts.

A

DBE

344
Q

DBE Regulation 49 CFR Part 26 requires airports to implement a DBE program if they anticipate awarding more than __________ in prime contracts using federal funds during a FY and establish a __________ goal in % DBE participation for prime contracts.

A

$250,000
3-year

345
Q

What is a type of DBE-eligible company that can compete for concession opportunities?

A

Airport Concessionaire Disadvantaged Business Enterprise (ACDBE)

346
Q

_________ is a core component of nearly all the processes at an airport.

A

Airport information technology (IT)

347
Q

List the 4 implications for any planning, implementation, upgrading, or maintenance of IT systems.

A
  1. Compatibility and integration
  2. Security and safety
  3. Scalability
  4. Usability - one of most critical
348
Q

__________ systems focus on the information delivery and decision making needed to support the movement of aircraft both on the ground and in the air.

A

Airside IT

349
Q

___________ provides noise event and flight track analysis, reports on noise and flight track compliance, monitors noise complaints, and assists with noise management.

A

Airport Noise and Operations Monitoring System (ANOMS)

350
Q

__________ systems are located in publicly accessible spaces, usually outside a terminal, and assist in passenger drop-off and pick-up, such as AVI, PARC, dynamic signage.

A

Landside IT

351
Q

__________ systems monitor the activity of vehicles outfitted with a radio frequency identification display (RFID).

A

Automatic Vehicle Identification (AVI)

352
Q

___________ systems often involve common use systems for processing and guiding passengers: common-use, local departure control systems, multi-user flight displays, and baggage RFID systems.

A

Passenger processing

353
Q

A __________ is a computer system used to display flight information in real time to passengers, such as aircraft arrival and departure information.

A

Multi-user flight information display system (MUFIDS)

354
Q

___________ systems are used to meet the airport organization’s administrative needs and are tailored to fit the airport’s unique business environment.

A

Business and financial management

355
Q

___________ systems record asset ownership and usage, including lease and concession management, billing/invoicing, and work orders.

A

Asset or property management

356
Q

__________ focuses on any item of text or media that is formatted into a binary source such as videos and music owned by an entity.

A

Digital asset management

357
Q

___________ systems are critical to airport operations and to keeping the public safe: video surveillance, controlled access, and detection systems.

A

Safety and security

358
Q

What is used to allow, restrict, or track the movement of individuals who have been issued airport credentials for secure areas?

A

Physical Access Control System (PACS)

359
Q

___________ systems ensure that mechanical systems work properly so that building environments are pleasant and functional.

A

Facility and maintenance

360
Q

The __________is a centralized data storage location whose resources are shared by other systems such as the flight information display system, and BHS.

A

Airport Operational Database (AOBD)

361
Q

List 3 critical Stakeholders involved in updating IT systems.

A
  1. Chief executive officer
  2. Chief information officer
  3. stakeholder executive (top airport admin)
362
Q

Which IT stakeholder is concerned with managing cost estimates and preventing cost overruns as related to IT implementation?

A

Chief Information Officer

363
Q

___________ are used to support planning, infrastructure, development, and management activities at an airport; comprising of technologies for presentation of geospatial data.

A

Geographic information systems (GIS)

364
Q

How is the FAA collecting airport and aeronautical data to meet the demands of NextGen?

A

Airports Surveying-GIS (AGIS) Program

365
Q

What is FAA’s online GIS-based system for airport layout plan visualization?

A

Electronic ALP (eALPs)

366
Q

The goal of ___________ are to allow more collaboration with the FAA along business lines, better runway capacity decisions, obstruction analysis, and GPS analyses.

A

eALPs

367
Q

In passenger security threat detection, IT technologies that are not detected by the individual, such as biometric scans, are _________.

A

Passive

368
Q

IT security processes allowing the passenger to directly interact with IT infrastructure are ________.

A

Active

369
Q

__________ standards, methods, and policies will continue to be one of the most demanding areas in airport operations

A

Security

370
Q

Have hackers been able to penetrate IT systems through third-party software?

A

Yes (2013 Target breach)

371
Q

List 2 ways airport executives can maintain IT Security.

A
  1. ensure network security systems are up-to-date
  2. conduct regular audits of security systems
372
Q

__________ is one of the most powerful weapons in cyber attacker’s arsenal?

A

Email

373
Q

__________ is used to describe crime of breaking into individual’s computer to access personal or sensitive information.

A

Hacking

374
Q

____________ attacks are intended to disable a machine or system, making it unavailable to users.

A

Denial-of-service

375
Q

__________ can come in the form of emails, messages, phone calls, or websites and is designed to steal personally identifiable information.

A

Phishing

376
Q

__________ is a highly targeted attack where emails are sent to only a few individuals in an organization.

A

Spear phishing

377
Q

__________ is also a legitimate form of collecting and examining databases in order to generate new information, but when combined with ill-intent, can be used for identify theft and fraud.

A

Data-mining

378
Q

___________ is when an attacker pretends to be someone or something known or trusted and uses leverage to gain information the attacker desires.

A

Social engineering

379
Q

Certain systems such as __________ are particularly important to protect from data penetrations, malware, and other attacks. This system should be separated to extent possible.

A

ACAMS

380
Q

The basic policy that most commercial aeronautical service providers should hold is a ___________ policy.

A

Commercial General Liability (CGL)

381
Q

List the 3 specific coverage areas of a Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy.

A
  1. hangar keepers liability
  2. premises liability
  3. product liability
382
Q

Airports can also be held liability for services and products sold by ___________ to the airports and therefore they should have liability insurance to protect the airport.

A

Tenants

383
Q

List the 4 most common types of Lease Agreements.

A
  1. straight
  2. graduated
  3. revaluation
  4. percentage
384
Q

The ____________ represents an ownership interest in which a lessee holds real property, or in the case of a use agreement, the right to conduct a particular activity from a lessor for a period of time.

A

Leasehold Agreement

385
Q

The section of a lease that includes a detailed statement that reflects facts, events, and general terms and conditions is the ___________.

A

Recitals

386
Q

The section of a lease that includes how much the lessee will pay, along with rate adjustments is the ___________.

A

Rates, Fees, Charges

387
Q

The section of a lease for licenses, permits, and the right of lessor to inspect facilities and approve alterations is the ___________.

A

Covenants by Tenant/Lessee

388
Q

The section of the lease that provides good title to the lessee of leased premises, right of the lessor in the event of foreclosure, and Quiet Enjoyment is the ___________.

A

Title

389
Q

The establishment of an airport ___________ is intended to provide revenue for the airport while meeting the needs of passengers, visitors, and employees for food, beverage, retail, and other amenities.

A

Concession

390
Q

Describe factors that determine Equitable Rents in a terminal.

A

value of space available for leasing
- costs of space
- amount of revenue producing space
- variations in cost of different spaces
- services provided for each tenant

391
Q

____________ requirements are also often included in a concession contract, which guarantees that the tenant will pay the airport a minimum amount annually.

A

Minimum Annual Guarantee (MAG)

392
Q

List the 3 approaches to Leasing Concession Space.

A
  1. standard approach - directly leasing and managing space
  2. development company or retail expert in lieu of airport
  3. institution engaged as master lessee
393
Q

Two trends in airport concessions at medium to large-hub airports are the ___________ approach and/or _____________ concessions approach.

A

shopping center| brand-name

394
Q

__________ concessions often establish their rates as a percentage of Gross Revenue, with defining what is included in gross revenue an important consideration in agreement.

A

Car rental

395
Q

Another important type of concessionaire is the ___________, which provides services for airport users lacking facilities of their own.

A

Fixed Base Operator (FBO)

396
Q

In lieu of landing fees for GA aircraft, many smaller airports collect _________ fees, levied on each gallon of aviation fuel sold.

A

Fuel-flowage

397
Q

The primary purpose of ______________ with the airlines is to grant operating rights and to provide, or attempt to guarantee a reliable stream of revenue for airport.

A

Aeronautical Use (or Lease) Agreements

398
Q

__________ gates imply a right of first refusal,first scheduling rights, or first offer.

A

Preferential-use

399
Q

__________ gates are open to variety of carriers and often managed by airport operator on an as-needed basis.

A

Common-use

400
Q

Signatory carriers may exercise significant control over an airport’s capital budgeting process under provisions in a use agreement known as ___________ clauses.

A

Majority-In-Interest (MII)

401
Q

MII clauses are common at airports with __________ and often allow airline operators to review airport development plans.

A

Residual Agreements

402
Q

___________ carriers are more common at airports with residual agreements because of substantial commitment to an airport.

A

Signatory

403
Q

List 5 considerations for Airport Executive in developing an airport.

A
  1. physical constraints
  2. zoning
  3. political
  4. conveyance restrictions
  5. general & contract legal counsel then market analysis
404
Q

Final phase of development is to establish an ___________ for the life of the facility.

A

Operating Plan

405
Q

Which law created the Airport and Airway Trust Fund, requiring the collection of taxes or user fees from various segments?

A

1970 Airport and Airway Revenue Act

406
Q

Which law, and subsequent amendments/reauthorizations, established the Airport Improvement Program (AIP)?

A

Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982

407
Q

The AIP processes are regulated under ___________, otherwise known as the Airport Improvement Programs Handbook.

A

FAA Order 5100.38C

408
Q

__________ provides grant money for development of eligible NPIAS public-use airports.

A

Airport and Airway Trust Fund

409
Q

The FAA will issue a ___________ to add to or revise guidance about the administration of AIP, related to the AIP Handbook.

A

Program Guidance Letter (PGL)

410
Q

AIP funds must be apportioned by formula, known as ___________, to specific airports and type of airports.

A

Entitlement funds

411
Q

Portions of AIP funds designed to achieve specified funding minimums such as approved Noise Abatement Programs, Military Airport Program, and GA reliever are ____________.

A

Set-Aside funds

412
Q

Remaining AIP funds used for preserving and enhancing capacity, safety, and security, at primary and reliever airports are _____________.

A

Discretionary fund

413
Q

Congress passes legislation about every 3 to 4 years that appropriates AIP funding, known as ___________.

A

Reauthorization bill

414
Q

The ____________ authorized appropriations for the FAA for the fiscal years of 2011 through 2014, came after 22 interim continuing resolutions and a 10-day FAA shutdown.

A

FAA Modernization and Reform Act of 2012

415
Q

____________ apportionments are the first funds to be issued to airports and states.

A

Entitlement

416
Q

____________ monies are distributed by Office of Management and Budget and allow the FAA to obligate Congressional apportionments with a financial plan.

A

Discretionary

417
Q

Some states are considered ___________ which means that the state assumes responsibility for administering AIP grants at airports classified as “other-than-primary” airports.

A

“block-grant”

418
Q

What is the Electronic Grants Payment System for AIP FAA payments to a Sponsor?

A

Delphi eInvoicing System

419
Q

What Grant Assurance requires airports to carry out an AIP-funded project with policies, standards, and specifications approved by FAA?

A

34, Policies, Standards, and Specifications

420
Q

A development project must be depicted on the __________ to be approved for funding.

A

ALP

421
Q

Which governs allowable AIP project costs?

A

Single Audit Act of 1984

422
Q

What kind costs are incurred for a common or joint purpose benefiting more than one cost objective and are not readily assignable to cost objectives specifically benefited?

A

Indirect costs

423
Q

Prioritized facilities previously acquired, materials and supplies, tools, equipment, travel, and conferences are ____________ costs.

A

Non-allowable

424
Q

___________ describes the priority system for discretionary funds used to determine which projects will receive funding.

A

FAA Order 5100.39A

425
Q

List 3 criteria for highest priority for AIP funds.

A
  1. ensuring safe and secure transport
  2. preserving and upgrading capacity
  3. improving compatibility and sufficient access
426
Q

____________ is that portion of the NPIAS that provides additional details including the anticipated sources of funds for specific developments in 3 to 5 years

A

Airports Capital Improvement Plan (ACIP)

427
Q

____________ is that portion of the NPIAS that provides additional details including the anticipated sources of funds for specific developments in 3 to 5 years.

A

Airports Capital Improvement Plan (ACIP)

428
Q

What is the highest AIP priority for 1. Purpose, 2. Component, and 3. Type projects?

A
  1. Safety/security
  2. Runways
  3. Obstruction removal and construction/noise projects
429
Q

For large-scale projects that may take years to complete, the FAA’s ___________ program helps fund large-scale capacity projects at primary or reliever airports.

A

Letter of Intent (LOI)

430
Q

Which law allowed agencies controlling airports with more than 2,500 enplaning passengers, to charge passenger facility charges (PFC) on tickets?

A

Aviation Noise and Capacity Act of 1990 (ANCA)

431
Q

Large and medium-hub airports that collect PFCs must return up to __________ of their AIP apportionment (entitlements) if they collect $3 in PFCs, or return up to __________ if they collect $4.50/pax; Funds from reduced grants distributed to smaller airports.

A

50 percent| 75 percent

432
Q

What is the primary difference between PFC and AIP charges?

A

PFC levied as a direct fee to the traveler and is administratively retained locally

433
Q

What projects are PFC revenues to be applied to?

A

preserve or enhance safety
- capacity
- security
- competitiveness of national air systems
- noise mitigation

434
Q

___________ are issued only by states, municipalities, and other authorized, general-purpose governments; requiring community/voter approval - lower interest rate.

A

General Obligation (G.O.) Bonds

435
Q

What type of Bonds are issued by a state or local government, or by an airport authority, commission, special district –> lower monthly debt payment?

A

Revenue

436
Q

____________ are issued by the Airport’s Sponsors in order to obtain tax-exempt status; secured by the revenue from indebted facility.

A

Special Facility Bonds

437
Q

____________ are airport revenue bonds combined with PFCs, CFCs, G.O. bonds, or some other pledge to fund a project.

A

Hybrid Source Bonds

438
Q

____________ are special types of revenue bonds suited to small airport; private entity user gets tax-exempt rates in return for making a capital investment.

A

Industrial Development Bonds (IDBs)

439
Q

____________ are usually ranked with the best or highest credit rating.

A

G.O. Bonds

440
Q

Which type of bonds is management a key component in the bond rating/assessment process?

A

Revenue Bonds

441
Q

Airports may seek funding from ____________ grant programs, money can provide federal match for an AIP match, and structure varies widely.

A

State Aviation

442
Q

___________ are charged to rental car operators, with monies going toward landside capital improvements projects, or landside related operations/maintenance.

A

Customer Facility Charges (CFC)

443
Q

The ___________ provides a systematic approach to identify unmet needs, determine optimum distribution of grants, foster cooperation, advise/inform public, and determine impacts.

A

Capital Improvement Program (CIP)

444
Q

What is the difference between Public and Public-Use Airport?

A

Public-use can include privately owned for public use

AAE (4 decks)

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