Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ANAT242 > Module 1 - anatomy of the brain > Flashcards

Module 1 - anatomy of the brain Flashcards

1
Q

the central system is the ______ and _____ centre

A

integrating and commanding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

cerebrum contains 83% of brain volume and is divided into:

A

cerebral hemisphere and diencephalon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the _______ contains 50% of neurons.

A

cerebellum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

neurons are highly specialised, excitable cells, provide rapid communication and have high_______ rate

A

metabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

glial cells provided structural support, insulation and….

A

regional metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

grey matter (neuron cell bodies) …

A

nucleus (CNS) and ganglion (PNS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

white matter (myelinated axons)….

A

tract (CNS) and nerve (PNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

caudal

A

toward the tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

rostral

A

toward the nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

spinal cord extends from the____ to the_____

A

foramen magnum to first or second lumbar vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

enlargements of spinal cord

A

cervical and lumbar where nerves for upper and lower limb arises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

conus medullaris

A

end of spinal cord - tapering conical structure below the lumbar enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

filum terminale

A

anchors spinal cord to coccyx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

cauda equina

A

roots of nerves that arise from the lumbar, sacral and coccygeal regions of spinal cord and travel down the vertebral column.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

posterior (dorsal) horns

A

incoming terminals from peripheral sensory neurons + inter-neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

anterior (ventral) horns

A

motor neurons that go to the periphery + inter-neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

dorsal roots (afferent fibres)

A

connects with dorsal root ganglion - sensory axons to the cord from spinal nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ventral roots (efferent fibres)

A

motor axons to muscle/organs through mixed spinal nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

enlarged grey matter in____and _____ regions as more neurons muscles of lower and upper limbs.

A

cervical; lumbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

white matter increases in dorsal____from lumbar to______ regions - reflects increasing addition of sensory fibres from addition of sensory fibres from caudal to rostral truck regions.

A

column: cervical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

paralysis

A

temporary or permanent loss of motor control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

paraesthesia

A

sensory loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the brain contains__ventricles

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced by______ _____. it fills cerebral ventricles and spinal cord as well as the ______ space

A

choroid plexus: subarachnoid space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

CSF has a constant turn over rate of

A

500mL/day produced and drained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CSF is drained into venous sinus through the…

A

arachnoid granulations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the functions of CSF are…

A

buoyancy, protection, chemical stability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

location of puncture for CSF sampling is…

A

lumbar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CSF flow pathway..

A

lateral ventricles to the third ventricle through the intraventricular foramen. the third and fourth ventricle are connected to each other by the cerebral aqueduct. CSF then flows in the subarachnoid space through the lateral and median apertures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

cerebral aqueduct

A

connects the third and fourth ventricles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

interventricular foramen

A

connects lateral ventricles. to third ventricle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

lateral aperture

A

holes in 4th ventricle that allows CSF to pass through. also called foramina of lushke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

components. of the lateral ventricles

A

anterior horn, body, posterior horn, and inferior horn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

choroid plexus produces CSF in…

A

body and inferior horn of the lateral ventricles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

third ventricle is located….

A

between lateral ventricle and cerebral aqueduct, choroid plexus in the roof.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

fourth ventricle is located….

A

between cerebellum and pons/medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

the roof/floor the fourth ventricle is formed by….

A

superior medullary velum and the inferior medullary velum (choroid plexus). The floor is formed by the brainstem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

the fourth ventricle has three openings..

A

2 lateral apertures and 1 median aperture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

hydrocephalus

A

accumulation of fluid in the spaces of the brain - due to increase production of CSF, disturbance in absorbance into venous sinuses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Gyri

A

ridges.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

sulci

A

shallow grooves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

fissure

A

an opening; a groove; a split.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what sulcus separates the frontal and parietal lobe

A

central sulcus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what sulcus separates the temporal, parietal and frontal lobes

A

lateral sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what fissure separates the cerebrum and cerebellum…

A

transverse fissure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what sulcus separates the parietal and occipital lobe?

A

parieto-occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

insula cortex

A

lies medial to lateral sulcus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

function of meninges

A

cover and protect CNS. protect blood vessels and enclose venous sinuses. contain CSF and form partitions in skull.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Three layers of meninges

A

dura, arachnoid, pia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

dura mater

A

tough mother, outer layer, protecting the brain and spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

two layers of dura mater function..

A

periosteal layer and meningeal layer - separate and form dural venous sinuses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

dura mater extends inwards to form..

A

flat partitions to subdivide the cranial cavity and limit excessive movement of the brain within the cranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

dura mater forms partitions between…

A

two cerebral hemispheres (falx. cerebri), cerebellum and. cerebrum (tentorium cerebelli), two cerebellar hemispheres (falx cerebelli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

falx cerebri..

A

lies in medial sagittal plane, partially separates cerebral hemispheres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

falx cerebri is attached to…

A

bony projection anteriorly (crista galli) and to upper surface of tentorium cerebelli posteriorly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

tentorium cerebelli

A

lies in the horizontal plane, separates cerebrum from cerebellum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

falx cerebelli

A

smaller dural fold runs along the vermis of the cerebellum and separates two cerebellar hemispheres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

subdural space…

A

space between dura mater and arachnoid mater - very narrow, contains film of fluid, may be enlarged by bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

arachnoid mater..

A

delicate transparent membrane - connected to the pia mater by fine strands of connective tissue (arachnoid trabecula)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

subarachnoid space..

A

a space in the meninges beneath the arachnoid membrane and above the pia mater that contains the CSF - contains blood vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

cisterna magna

A

large area of CSF collection between the cerebellum and the medulla.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

superior cistern..

A

also called the superior cerebellar cistern; an enlarged region of subarachnoid space above the cerebellum below the tentorium cerebelli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

interpeduncular cistern…

A

lies between the peduncles. contains bifurcation of basilar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

pontine cistern

A

lies over the pons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

arachnoid villi (granulations)

A

help recycle CSF to blood; look like little warts; allow CSF to general circulation and drain via venous sinuses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

superior sagittal sinus…

A

a venous sinus located in the midline just dorsal to the corpus callosum, between the two cerebral hemispheres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Flow of CSF

A

lateral ventricle -> 3rd -> 4th -> arachnoid space -> out arachnoid villi into blood stream.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

pia mater..

A

delicate membrane, follows contours of brain, including sulci.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

pia mater characteristics…

A

enmeshes blood vessels, sends prolongations into brain tissue along with blood vessels (perivascular space), helps form the roof of ventricles, closely associated with choroid plexus and ependyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

perivascular space…

A

space filled by blood vessels that penetrate the pia mater and enter the neural tissue where nutrient exchange occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

ependyma…

A

membrane lining the central canal of the spinal cord and the ventricles of the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

spinal meninges….

A

dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater - NO PERIOSTEAL layer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

spinal meninges: subarachnoid space…

A

between arachnoid and pia mater meninges, contains CSF - because there is not periosteal layer, there is an epidural space which contains fat tissue and is largest at L2 where spinal cord ends.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

epidural anaesthesia…

A

regional anaesthesia produced by injecting mediation into the epidural space of the lumbar or sacral region of the spine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

lumbar cistern…

A

subarachnoid space inferior to medullary cone that contains cauda equina and CSF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

cistern…

A

reservoir or water tank.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

spinal meninges; pia mater specialisation..

A

denticulate ligament - supports the spinal cord within dural sheath to secure spinal cord in place

filum terminale - fibre running from conus medullaris to tail bone, anchoring ends of spinal cord for extra support of spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

filum terminale

A

fibrous extension of the pia mater; anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

meningitis..

A

inflammation of the pia-arachnoid mater.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

internal carotid artery..

A

artery that supplies blood to the brain, eyes, eyelids, forehead, nose, and internal ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

basilar artery…

A

an artery, formed by the fusion of the vertebral arteries, that supplied blood to the brainstem and to the posterior cerebral arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

vertebral artery…

A

one of the important blood vessels that enter the brain from the back of the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

the basilar artery divides into two…

A

posterior cerebral arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

the internal carotid artery branches into…

A

anterior and middle cerebral arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

circle of willis (cerebral arterial circle)…

A 
R/L posterior cerebral arteries 
R/L posterior communicating arteries 
R/L internal carotid arteries 
R/L anterior cerebral arteries 
anterior communicating artery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

circle of willis function..

A
  • equalises blood pressure in the brain

- provided alternative channels if one vessel becomes blocked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

posterior cerebral arteries.

A

two large arteries , arising from the basilar artery, that provide blood to posterior aspects of the cerebral hemispheres, cerebellum, and brainstem, 3rd and lateral ventricles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

anterior cerebral arteries.

A

two large arteries, arising from the carotids, that provide blood to the anterior poles and medial surfaces of the cerebral hemispheres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

middle cerebral arteries

A

two large arteries, arising from the internal carotid arteries, that provide blood to most of the lateral surfaced of the cerebral hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Blood brain barrier

A

formed by tight junction between the endothelial cells lining the brain capillaries to create a selective barrier for nutrients which serves as a protective mechanism to maintain a stable environment for the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

stroke results in……

A

reduction of blood supply to the brain - occlusion of a cerebral artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

ischemic stroke

A

a type of stroke that occurs when the flow of blood to the brain is blocked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

hemorrhagic stroke

A

cerebral blood vessel rupture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

stroke-related dysfunction: anterior cerebral artery

A

contralateral hemiplegia (one artery) or bilateral paralysis (two arteries) and impaired sensation - greatest in lower limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

stroke-related dysfunction: middle cerebral artery

A

severe contralateral hemiplegia and impaired sensation - greatest in upper limb and face.
SEVERE aphasia if the dominant hemisphere is affected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

stroke-related dysfunction: posterior cerebral artery

A

contralateral homonymous hemianopsia (visual loss in half the visual field in both eyes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

blood drainage of the brain

A

fine veins (brain) -> pial venous plexuses -> cerebral veins -> dural venous sinus (emissary veins e.g., scalp and face) -> internal jugular vein -> heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

emissary veins

A

connect dural venous sinuses with veins outside the skull - a potential source of infection into cranial cavity
rupture = subdural hemotoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

dural venous sinuses

A

large veins in the dura mater that drain the cranium - collect venous blood from the brain and direct it into the internal jugular veins of the neck.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

subdural hemotoma

A

collection of blood under the dura mater.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

venous sinuses

A

blood-filled space between two layers of dura mater. they receive venous blood from scalp and also receive CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

superior sagittal sinus

A

lies along the superior border of the falx cerebri - joins the transverse sinus (right). arachnoid vili drain the CSF into the superior sagittal sinus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

inferior sagittal sinus

A

runs within the inferior margin of the falx cerebri and joins the straight sinus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

straight sinus

A
  • within tentorium cerebelli

- joins left transverse sinus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

transverse sinus

A

LEFT continuous with straight sinus

RIGHT continuous with superior sagittal sinus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

sigmoid sinus

A
  • forward continuation of transverse sinus

- opens into internal jugular vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

cavernous sinus

A

lateral to the pituitary gland, linked with venous channels

  • drains into the superior sagittal sinus: transverse sinus
  • drains into the inferior sinuses: internal jugular vein.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

posterior spinal arteries

A

supply posterior (dorsal) horns and posterior (dorsal) columns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

anterior spinal arteries

A

supply anterior (ventral) and lateral columns, gray matter (except for dorsal horn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

radicular arteries

A

supply the spinal nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

posterior and anterior spinal veins drain blood into the……

A

internal vertebral venous plexus.

112
Q

internal vertebral venous plexus

A

located within the epidural space
runs the entire length of the epidural space and continues superiorly through the foramen magnum to connect with dural venous sinuses in the cranial activity.

113
Q

spinal cord strokes are typically……

A

ischemic - occlusion of posterior or anterior arteries.

114
Q

functional areas of cerebral cortex

A

motor areas, sensory areas, association areas.

115
Q

frontal lobe of cerebral cortex

A

executive function, impulse control, long-term planning (frontal cortex), motor function (primary motor cortex), speech (Broca’s area).

116
Q

gyrus’s of the frontal lobe….

A

pre-central gyrus located posterior to the superior, middle and inferior frontal gyrus.

117
Q

what separates the inferior frontal gyrus and the middle front gyrus?

A

inferior frontal sulcus.

118
Q

what separates the middle frontal gyrus and superior frontal gyrus?

A

superior frontal sulcus.

119
Q

location of central sulcus

A

separates frontal and parietal lobe.

120
Q

location of pre-central gyrus

A

anterior to central sulcus.

121
Q

where is the primary motor cortex located?

A

pre-central gyrus of frontal lobe

122
Q

what does the primary motor cortex control?

A

a contralateral skilled voluntary movements of skeletal muscles (supplies 30% of axons to the corticospinal tract)

controls most precise muscles in the body

123
Q

pre-central gyrus damage

A

occlusion/rupture of the anterior cerebral artery.

  • contralateral hemiplegia
  • greatest in lower limbs.
124
Q

anterior cerebral artery supplies ___ aspect of cerebral hemispheres and ___ _____

A

medial; basal nuclei

125
Q

middle cerebral artery damage results in

A

contralateral hemiplegia, greatest in the upper limbs and face regions.

126
Q

middle cerebral artery supplies all the _____ surface of cerebral hemispheres

A

lateral

127
Q

premotor cortex of frontal lobe includes……

A

superior, middle and inferior frontal gyri.

128
Q

premotor cortex functions

A

planning movement, coordinating movement, controls learned motor skills - supplies 30% of corticospinal tract.

129
Q

supplementary motor area

A

the area of secondary motor cortex that is within and adjacent to the longitudinal fissure - planning of complex movements.

130
Q

cingulate gyrus

A

a strip of limbic cortex lying along the lateral walls of the groove separating the cerebral hemispheres, just above the corpus callosum

131
Q

damage to supplementary and cingulate motor areas result in…..

A

loss of desired skilled movements and speech

132
Q

inferior frontal gyrus can be broken into three subsections…

A

opercular, triangular, orbital.

133
Q

opercular and triangular subsections of the inferior frontal gyrus are associated with what brain region?

A

broca’s region of language

134
Q

what generates the motor programme for larynx, tongue, cheeks, and lips for speech projection?

A

opercular and triangular parts of the inferior gyrus.

135
Q

The broca’s area is present in 1 or 2 hemispheres?

A

one

136
Q

damage to broca’s area generates…

A

difficulty writing or speaking words but comprehension intact.

137
Q

damage to middle cerebral artery can cause severe…..

A

aphasia if the dominant hemisphere is affected.

138
Q

prefrontal cortex has extensive connections to…

A

parietal, temporal and occipital lobes.

139
Q

components of the prefrontal cortex…

A

involved in intellect, complex learning abilities, planning, memory, and emotional control.

140
Q

the prefrontal cortex measures____

A

slowly

141
Q

dysfunction of the prefrontal cortex is associated with….

A

schizophrenia, ADD, etc.

142
Q

the parietal lobe lies posterior to the______ sulcus and is composed of a superior and inferior parietal____ which is separated by the _____ sulcus

A

postcentral; lobe; intraparietal.

143
Q

the post-central gyrus contains what?

A

primary somatosensory cortex.

144
Q

the sensory homunculus receives information from the…

A

contralateral side

145
Q

damage to the post-central gyrus results in occlusion/rupture of a branch of the anterior cerebral artery which causes….

A

occlusion/rupture of a branch of the anterior cerebral artery which causes contralateral sensory loss and is greatest in lower limbs.

146
Q

damage to post-central gyrus results in occlusion/rupture of a branch of the middle cerebral artery which causes…..

A

contralateral sensory loss and is greatest in upper limbs.

147
Q

superior parietal lobe corresponds to what cortex….

A

somatosensory association cortex.

148
Q

somatosensory association cortex function….

A

integrating different sensory inputs to produce a comprehensive understanding of position of limbs, location of touch and pain, shape and weight/texture of an object.

149
Q

damage to the somatosensory association cortex…

A

tactile agnosia - unable to recognise objects without looking at them.

150
Q

inferior parietal lobe is associated with what cortex….

A

multimodal association cortex.

151
Q

the temporal lobe consists of a superior, middle and inferior temporal___ which the superior and middle is separated by a superior temporal____ and the middle and inferior separated by a inferior temporal____

A

gyrus, sulcus, sulcus

152
Q

the ____ margin of the superior temporal gyrus processes ____ information and is sensitive to ___ , rhythm, and loudness

A

superior, auditory, pitch.

153
Q

unilateral damage to the primary auditory cortex (middle cerebral artery) results in…..

A

hearing loss

154
Q

the temporal lobe is associated with what cortex?

A

primary auditory cortex.

155
Q

bilateral damage to the primary auditory cortex results in…..

A

cortical deafness

156
Q

the ____ part of the superior temporal gyrus is associated with the auditory ____ cortex and more specifically is the location of ______ area.

A

posterior, association, wernicke’s

157
Q

Wernicke’s area is a ______ language area which permits recognition of ____ and ____ language

A

sensory, spoken, written.

158
Q

damage to wernicke’s area results in….

A

receptive aphasia (fluent)

159
Q

accurate fasciculus

A

a bundle of axons that connects wernicke’s area (superior temporal gyrus) with Broca’s area (inferior frontal gyrus); damage causes conduction aphasia.

160
Q

language areas: frontal cortex…

A

Broca’s area and supplementary motor area (language motor production) and lateral prefrontal cortex (processing of comprehension and word analysis)

161
Q

language areas: parietal cortex…

A

supramarginal angular gyri which is responsible for interpretation of spoken and written language.

162
Q

language areas: temporal lobe…

A

associative cortex which coordinates auditory and visual aspects of language when naming objects of reading

163
Q

occipitotemporal sulcus

A

groove just inferior to the inferior temporal gyrus,

located on the ventral surface of the temporal lobe

lateral to the collateral sulcus that tuns parallel to it

164
Q

collateral sulcus

A

divides lingual and parahippocampal gyri from fusiform gyrus.

165
Q

parahippocampal gyrus

A

a fold of tissue near the hippocampus that is often included in the limbic system - separated by both collateral sulcus and rhinal sulcus - lies posterior to the uncus.

166
Q

uncus and parahippocampal gyrus

A

primary olfactory area; bottom of brainstem and is in the temporal lobe

uncus is an anterior extremity of the parahippocampal gyrus

167
Q

what is located within the temporal lobe

A

hippocampus, with the amygdala right at the front.

168
Q

septum pellucidum

A

thin membrane that separates lateral ventricles.

169
Q

structure of hippocampus

A

composed of fornix (arches of the hippocampus) and the fimbria

170
Q

location of the thalamus

A

diencephalon.

171
Q

fornix

A

a long projection from the hippocampus that connects to other nuclei in the limbic system

172
Q

crescent shaped hippocampus sits adjacent to the _____. the hippocampus contains fibres of temporal parts called_____ which can thicken. in the midline under the corpus callosum, these fibres are the ______

A

uncus, fimbria, fornix.

173
Q

insular lobe

A

found deep beneath the lateral sulcus, associated with memory and interpretation of taste, modulates emotion/self-awareness.

174
Q

occipital lobe is separated from parietal lobe by _____ -____ sulcus and is home to the primary ____ cortex which has the ____ sulcus dividing it.

A

parietal-occipital; visual; calcarine.

175
Q

the occipital lobe is supplied by the….

A

posterior cerebral artery.

176
Q

damage to the posterior cerebral artery results in….

A

cortical blindness due to direct damage to the primary visual cortex.

177
Q

visual association areas of the occipital lobe communicate with primary visual cortex to interpret visual ____ and ____ things we see, except for faces (temporal associative cortex). visual associative area damage (posterior cerebral artery) results in visual _____ or hemianopsia.

A

stimuli, identify, agnosia

178
Q

dysfunction is posterior cerebral artery results in…

A

contralateral homonymous hemianopsia (visual loss in half the visual field)

179
Q

cerebral white matter is responsible for communication between…

A

cerebral areas and between cerebral cortex and lower CNS areas.

180
Q

white matter consists mostly of…..

A

myelinated axons bundled into large tracts.

181
Q

projections of white matter….

A

extend vertically from brain to spinal cord within one hemisphere forming the internal capsule.

182
Q

internal capsule

A

band of projection fibres that runs between basal nuclei and the thalamus.

183
Q

commissural tracts of white matter….

A

cross from one hemisphere to the other e.g., corpus callosum

184
Q

structure of corpus callosum…

A

anterior portion contains the rostrum and genu, more medial, lies the body and the splenium makes up the posterior portion of the corpus callosum (temporal and occipital lobe)

185
Q

anterior commissure tracts

A

bundles of axons that connects the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex, more specifically the middle and inferior temporal gyri.

186
Q

association fibres (shortest fibres)

A

connects lobes and gyri within the hemispheres.

187
Q

diencephalon contains and is associated with…

A

thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus - associated with 3rd ventricle.

188
Q

components of the thalamus

A

egg-shaped structure which makes up 80% of the diencephalon - forms the superolateral walls of the third ventricle.

189
Q

structure of the thalamus..

A

contains about a dozen nuclei with an intermediate mass lying medially which serves to connect each thalamus together.

190
Q

at the posterior end of the thalamus lies the _____. this is responsible for ____ information. the thalamus allows different structures to connect to different cortical regions but does not have _____ information pass through.

A

pulvinar, visual, auditory.

191
Q

the hypothalamus is located _____ to the thalamus and is separated by the ______ sulcus. it forms the inferolateral wall of the __ ventricle, extends form the optic _____ and is superior to the brainstem.

A

below: hypothalamic: third: chiasma.

192
Q

what is an early sign of damage to the hypothalamus?

A

visual field defects (encroaching on the optic chiasm or optic tract)

193
Q

components of epithalamus

A

pineal gland and the roof of the third ventricle - contains calcium salts.

194
Q

pineal gland generates..

A

melatonin.

195
Q

components of the basal ganglia

A

corpus striatum, subthalamic nuclei, substantia nigra

196
Q

the corpus striatum of the basal ganglia is composed of…

A

lentiform and caudate nucleus.

197
Q

lentiform of the corpus striatum of the basal ganglia contains 2 components….

A

putamen and globus pallidus.

198
Q

caudate nucleus of the corpus striatum has a head, body and tail and wraps around the ______ nucleus. at the tail of the caudate nucleus lies the _____ nucleus.

A

lentiform; amygdala (limbic system).

199
Q

the posterior limb of the internal capsule fibres runs between

A

lentiform nucleus and thalamus.

200
Q

the anterior limb of the internal capsule fibres run between

A

lentiform and caudate nucleus.

201
Q

globus pallidus + putamen nuclei

A

body component of the lentiform nucleus of the corpus striatum of the basal ganglia whilst the putamen lies more lateral

202
Q

the basal ganglia serves as a tool box for movement. it also serves as a break for the excitatory input provided by the_______ via inhibition of unnecessary movements. the break can be released by input from the cerebral cortex and the ______ _____ to start movement

A

thalamus; substantia nigra.

203
Q

at rest, the globus pallidus of the lentiform nucleus _______ the thalamus which results in ___ motor activity. to initiate the movement, the cortex activates_____ which inhibits the globus pallidus, releasing thalamus from____ and activating motor cortex (inhibiting the inhibitor = activation)

A

inhibits; no ; putamen; inhibition.

204
Q

the basal ganglia influence the function of spinal cord motor neurons directly or indirectly?

A

indirectly.

205
Q

cause of Parkinson’s disease

A

substantia nigra dopamine neuron degeneration.

206
Q

what does the brainstem consist of?

A

midbrain, pons, medulla.

207
Q

the brainstem provides a pathway for _____ ___ running between forebrain ,cerebellum and ___ ___

A

axonal tracts: spinal cord

208
Q

components of midbrain

A

cerebral peduncles, superior and inferior colliculi, substantia nigra, red nucleus, cranial nerves, cerebral aqueduct, and superior cerebellar peduncles.

209
Q

cerebral peduncles include

A

axons that descend from the cerebral cortex to the brainstem and spinal cord.

210
Q

function of cerebral peduncles?

A

anchor the cerebrum to the brainstem.

211
Q

what structure does the cerebral aqueduct sit in the middle part of?

A

cerebral peduncles.

212
Q

superior colliculi (Midbrain) are responsible for

A

visual reflexes - receive input from the retina/visual cortex and project vision-related areas in the cortex.

213
Q

superior colliculi are concerned with the detection of…

A

movement of objects in the visual field.

214
Q

superior colliculi relay ___ information to neurons innervating the ___ that control eye movement.

A

visual; muscles.

215
Q

inferior colliculi (midbrain) are responsible for

A

auditory reflexes - act in reflexive responses to sound

216
Q

inferior colliculi relay…

A

auditory information from hearing receptors of the ear to sensory cortex.

217
Q

location of substantia nigra

A

midbrain - above cerebral peduncle.

218
Q

what pigment does substantia nigra contain?

A

melanin.

219
Q

what are the two functional components of the substantia nigra of the midbrain?

A

pars compacta and para reticulate

220
Q

pars compacta of substantia nigra

A

thin lateral section of the substantia nigra - responsible for dopamine neuronal activity.

221
Q

pars reticulate of the substantia nigra has similar connections to the _____ ____ which surrounds inhibitory input to the ______

A

globus pallidus; thalamus.

222
Q

location of red nucleus

A

midbrain - above the substantia nigra.

223
Q

the red nucleus of the midbrain contains

A

rich blood supply and contains iron pigment.

224
Q

the red nucleus also acts to relay..

A

descending motor pathways.

225
Q

superior cerebellar peduncle connects…

A

cerebellum to midbrain - they are the major output fibres from the cerebellum.

226
Q

the superior cerebellar peduncle function?

A

proprioception.

227
Q

location of pons

A

middle of brain stem - located in the middle cerebellar peduncle (4th ventricle emerges)

228
Q

the pons are composed of both _____ sensory and _____ motor tracts

A

ascending and descending.

229
Q

what is the key nuclei within the pons

A

pneumotaxic centra (respiratory centre).

230
Q

middler cerebellar peduncles connects…

A

pons to cerebrum - convey motor and sensory command information.

231
Q

components of the medulla?

A

pyramids, olives, gracile and cuneate tubercles, 4th ventricle and inferior cerebellar peduncle.

232
Q

pyramids of medulla (open medulla) are formed by..

A

large pyramidal (corticospinal) tracts descending from the motor cortex.

233
Q

pyramid decussation of medulla (closed medulla) are formed by..

A

axons of pyramidal tracts

234
Q

axons of the pyramidal tracts within the closed medulla _____ over to the _____ side at the level just above the _____ -spinal junction

A

cross; opposite; medulla

235
Q

olives of the medulla are located in the….

A

open medulla

236
Q

olives of the medulla contain…

A

inferior olivary nuclei.

237
Q

functions of the inferior olivary nuclei of the olives of the medulla?

A

relay sensory information to the cerebellum

238
Q

what are the two tubercles of the medulla? where are they located?

A

cuneate and gracile tubercles - located in closed medulla.

239
Q

cuneate and gracile tubercles of the medulla receive…

A

somatosensory information from upper and lower body parts.

240
Q

inferior cerebellar peduncle comprises fibres to and from…

A

the medulla/spinal cord to cerebellum.

241
Q

the inferior cerebellar peduncle of the medulla carries…

A

sensory and motor information, important for balance and posture.

242
Q

what are the medulla’s role in maintaining body homeostasis?

A

cardiovascular centre - respiratory centres.

243
Q

the medulla has a functional association with what region in homeostasis maintenance?

A

hypothalamus sends autonomic commands to medulla to influence smooth muscle and gland function.

244
Q

reticular formation is composed of clusters of _____ ____ scattered throughout midbrain, pons and medulla. it works in governing the arousal of the brain via the ______

A

gray matter; thalamus.

245
Q

the reticular formation is involved in ______. this is. a process in which the brain learns to ignore repetitive stimuli. it is inhibited by sleep centres in the hypothalamus, _____ by alcohol and injury may result in_____

A

habituation; depressed; coma.

246
Q

we have 12 pairs of ______ nerves; 10 associated with the _____ and 2 attached to that_____. they are mixed with sensory/____ nerves

A

cranial; brainstem; forebrain; motor.

247
Q

fibres of the olfactory nerve and optic nerve are associated with what brain region?

A

forebrain

248
Q

oculomotor nerve and trochlear nerve are associated with what brain region?

A

midbrain

249
Q

trigeminal nerve, abducens nerve, facial nerve and vestibuolocochlear nerve are associated with what brain region

A

pons

250
Q

glossopharyngeal nerve, vagus nerve, accessory nerve and the hypoglossal nerve are associated with what brain region?

A

medulla

251
Q

the olfactory nerve is a ____ nerve that runs from the nasal _____, passes through____ plate of ethmoid bone to synapse on the olfactory_____. damage to this nerve causes_____.

A

sensory; mucosa; cribriform; bulb; anosmia.

252
Q

location of olfactory cortex

A

medial surface of the temporal lobe, in a region called the uncus.

253
Q

what region is associated with olfactory memory?

A

hippocampus

254
Q

the optic nerve arises from the _____ fo the eye. each optic nerve passes through its optic____ of the orbit. nerves converge to form the optic ______

A

retina; foramen; chiasm.

255
Q

anterior fossa bones

A

cribriform plate (ethmoid bone), frontal bone, lesser wing of the sphenoid bone.

256
Q

middle fossa bones

A

greater wing of sphenoid bone, temporal bone.

257
Q

posterior fossa bones

A

parietal and occipital bone, hypoglossal canal.

258
Q

the foramen ovale (branch of the trigeminal nerve) is part of what fossa?

A

middle

259
Q

what type of foramina does the cribriform plate have?

A

olfactory (nerve)

260
Q

superior orbital fissure of sphenoid bone

A

between greater and lesser wing on the sphenoid bone, transmits oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves. also a branch of ophthalmic CN V1

261
Q

inferior orbital fissure

A

fissure in the orbit floor between maxilla and greater wing of sphenoid.

262
Q

what does the subdural space separate in the spinal cord?

A

dura from the periosteum of surrounding bone

263
Q

where do the anterior and posterior nerve roots penetrate the dura a the….

A

intervertebral foramina.

264
Q

what is separated from the dura by the subdural space (spinal cord)?

A

arachnoid.

265
Q

spinal cord structure

A

dura mater - subdural space - arachnoid - subarachnoid space - pia mater.

266
Q

dorsal funiculus

A

the white matter of the spinal cord lying on either side between the posterior median sulcus and the dorsal root.

  • this are included the dorsal columns which contains the fasciculus gracilis and, higher in the body, the fasciculus cuneatus
  • ascending sensory tracts.
267
Q

the lumbar level has the least amount of fibres in the _______ funiculus

A

dorsal

268
Q

what do you call a region where CSF accumulates due to spaces between the two innermost brain layers

A

cisterns.

269
Q

oculomotor nerve axons extend from ventral ___ and pass through the superior ____ fissure. it contains both an inferior and _____ branch

A

midbrain; orbital; superior.

270
Q

oculomotor nerves are _____ axons that play a part in voluntary movement of the ___ via eyelid opening via _____ control and pupil constriction and focussing via the ____ motor axons.

A

motor; eye; somatic; parasympathetic.

271
Q

trochlear nerve axons emerge from dorsal ____, course ventrally ____ the midbrain and pass through the superior and _____ fissure

A

midbrain; around; orbital.

272
Q

what is the only cranial nerve that emerges from dorsal brainstem?

A

trochlear nerve.

273
Q

trochlear nerve are ____ axons and supply ____ axons to the superior oblique muscle. this muscle has a ____ that hooks around a pulley called a ______

A

motor; somatic; tendon; trochlea.

274
Q

what nerve supplies somatic motor axons that move the eye downward and laterally?

A

trochlear nerves.

275
Q

damage to what nerve causes double vision and inability to rotate eye inferolaterally

A

trochlear nerves.

276
Q

trigeminal nerve are 3 fold and are the largest cranial nerve. their axons extend from face to _____ and _____ to muscle. cell bodies of sensory neurons are located in large terminal_____

A

pons; pons; ganglion.

ANAT242 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions