Module 1 - 6 Flashcards
What can a fitness professional use to help understand a client’s recovery habits?
a.) a recovery questionnaire
b.) report from their psychologist
c.) results from their fitness assessment
d.) report from their medical doctor
a.) a recovery questionnaire
Which of the following is the BEST progression to use regarding performing a pattern in multiple planes of motion?
a.) transverse to sagittal to frontal
b.) frontal to transverse to sagittal
c.) sagittal to frontal to transverse
c.) sagittal to frontal to transverse
As long as less than 3% of bodyweight is expected to be lost during exercise due to sweating, what hydration strategy should clients be instructed to follow?
a.) drink 500mL of water every 15 minutes
b.) drink fluids as desired
c.) consume as many sports drinks as possible without upsetting the stomach
d.) drink a glass of water for every pound of bodyweight lost due to sweating
b.) drink fluids as desired
Corrective exercise programs do not need to be complex to be effective. How long or short could an effective corrective exercise program be to get results?
a.) 5 minutes
b.) 30 minutes
c.) 10 to 15 minutes
c.) 10 to 15 minutes
A client has been training with a fitness professional independently and consistently for over 6 months. What stage of change would he most likely be in?
a.) contemplation
b.) preparation
c.) maintenance
d.) termination
c.) maintenance
What scenario might influence corrective exercise as the entire workout?
a.) client experiencing pain
b.) client has an injury
c.) client is deconditioned
c.) client is deconditioned
For optimal sleep, what should the temperature of the room be?
a.) 60 degrees
b.) 72 degrees
c.) 95 degrees
d.) 45 degrees
b.) 72 degrees
What category of recovery does corrective exercise fall into?
a.) refuel
b.) regenerate
c.) rest
b.) regenerate
What is the recommended minimum that adults should sleep each night?
a.) minimum of 8 hours
b.) minimum of 5 hours
c.) minimum of 10 hours
a.) minimum of 8 hours
What is the “system” referred to in the NASM Pyramid of Success?
a.) NMS Stretching
b.) Overhead Squat Assessment
c.) Corrective Exercise Continuum
c.) Corrective Exercise Continuum
The following activation exercise is appropriate as a means to target the serratus anterior when it is determined an underactive muscle during which of the following movement compensations as observed during a Davies test?
a.) excessive cervical extension
b.) scapular winging
c.) arms falling forward
b.) scapular winging
A CES is implementing a static stretching program with a youth basketball team. What are the recommended acute training variables for this type of stretching?
a.) 20 to 30 seconds hold for 4-6 reps twice a week
b.) 1 to 2 minutes hold for 4-6 reps every other day
c.) 15 to 30 seconds hold for 6 to 8 reps once a week
d.) 20 to 30 seconds hold for 1-4 reps daily
d.) 20 to 30 seconds hold for 1-4 reps daily
The overhead squat assessment does not involve a change in the base of support of the individual. Therefore, it is classified as which of the following?
a.) static posture assessment
b.) transitional movement assessment
c.) dynamic movement assessment
b.) transitional movement assessment
Which of the following deviations occurs in lower crossed syndrome?
a.) anterior pelvic tilt
b.) kyphotic posturing
c.) lateral pelvic tilt
d.) decreased lordotic curvature
a.) anterior pelvic tilt
An individual who demonstrates no movement compensations during the overhead squat, single leg squat, loaded squat nor depth jump assessments can be said to possess high levels of…
a.) pattern overload
b.) functional efficiency
c.) muscle imbalances
b.) functional efficiency
Which of the following is NOT one of the 2 primary domains of skills possessed by a personal trainer who is also a corrective exercise specialist?
a.) exercise program design
b.) movement assessment
c.) pain diagnosis
c.) pain diagnosis
What effect does a lack of physical activity have on the kinetic chain?
a.) improves overall movement capabilities due to ample rest from physical activity stressors
b.) makes it less prepared to adapt and recover from activity
c.) lack of physical activity has no impact on the kinetic chain
b.) makes it less prepared to adapt and recover from activity
If the hamstrings are forced to make up for a decrease in neural drive due to altered reciprocal inhibition from a tight psoas, which of the following terms BEST describes the scenario?
a.) neuromuscular efficiency
b.) synergistic dominance
c.) movement impairment syndrome
b.) synergistic dominance
What does it mean for a muscle to be “overactive?”
a.) the muscle is experiencing chronically elevated levels of neural drive
b.) the muscle is experiencing chronically inhibited levels of neural drive
c.) neither of these
a.) the muscle is experiencing chronically elevated levels of neural drive
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response to a new personal training client that says “I’m experiencing knee pain. Can you tell me what it is?”
a.) “I am not the best person to answer that question, but we can contact a professional who is.”
b.) “From what you told me, I think it is patellofemoral pain syndrome…”
c.) “I’m sorry, I don’t know anything about knee pain.”
a.) “I am not the best person to answer that question, but we can contact a professional who is.”
Based on the scope of practice of a CES, which of the following categories of people should a professional with only a CES certification seek to work with?
a.) clients with no medical or special needs
b.) clients undergoing rehab for a musculoskeletal injury
c.) patients in need of immediate care for an acute musculoskeletal injury
a.) clients with no medical or special needs
Which of the following is NOT a component of the Human Movement System?
a.) skeletal system
b.) endocrine system
c.) muscular system
d.) nervous system
b.) endocrine system
Which of the following contractions prevents a weight from an uncontrolled descent?
a.) isometric
b.) eccentric
c.) isokinetic
d.) concentric
b.) eccentric
Which of the following populations is appropriate for a CPT with a CES certification to work with?
a.) fitness clients with no medical or special needs
b.) recreational and competitive athletes
c.) post rehabilitation clients
d.) all of these are appropriate
d.) all of these are appropriate
When should the static posture assessment be conducted within the context of the NASM CES Assessment Flow?
a.) 1st
b.) 2nd
c.) 3rd
d.) 4th
b.) 2nd
What is the technical term for the natural curvature of the thoracic spine?
a.) valgus
b.) kyphosis
c.) impingement
d.) lordosis
b.) kyphosis
Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome may lead to what following injuries?
a.) metatarsal stress fractures, femur fractures and quad strains
b.) hip flexor strain, IT band fritction syndrome, hamstring strains and Achilles tendonitis
c.) hip bursitis, hamstring strains, Achilles tendonitis, and ankle arthritis
d.) plantar fasciitis, medial tibial stress syndrome, patellar tendonitis and low back pain
d.) plantar fasciitis, medial tibial stress syndrome, patellar tendonitis and low back pain
This region of the body is the most likely impacted by sitting most of the day.
a.) shoulder
b.) ankle
c.) knee
d.) LPHC
d.) LPHC
Which of the following would you suspect to have overly-shortened gastrocnemius muscles following an assessment of their occupational habits?
a.) businessman who sits and works on a laptop for prolonged periods of time
b.) businesswoman who wears high heeled shoes daily
c.) painter who reaches overhead throughout the work day
b.) businesswoman who wears high heeled shoes daily
Which factor is most closely related to developing postural imbalances?
a.) chronic suboptimal positioning
b.) exercising to muscle failure
c.) poor nutrition status
d.) Valsalva maneuver
a.) chronic suboptimal positioning
Why is wearing high heels daily a consideration for potential postural dysfunction?
a.) it signifies the potential for hypertension
b.) it reduces sleep quality and quantity
c.) it puts the ankles in chronic plantarflexion
c.) it puts the ankles in chronic plantarflexion
Muscles that connect directly to the spine and are predominantly involved in LPHC stabilization are classified as which of the following?
a.) Local Musculature System
b.) Deep Longitudinal System
c.) Global Musculature System
a.) Local Musculature System
Assessments that involve movement with a change in the base of support are known as…
a.) transitional movement assessments
b.) dynamic movement assessments
c.) loaded movement assessments
b.) dynamic movement assessments
Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to scapular elevation during a pull movement?
a.) lower trapezius
b.) cervical extensors
c.) upper trapezius
a.) lower trapezius
A client demonstrates knee valgus during an overhead squat assessment, which resolves when he repeats with heels elevated. Which of the following muscles is likely overactive?
a.) latissimus dorsi
b.) gastrocnemius
c.) psoas
b.) gastrocnemius
Which muscle would you suspect as being overactive if there is restricted shoulder internal rotation?
a.) latissimus dorsi
b.) pec minor
c.) teres minor
a.) latissimus dorsi
Which of the following is true regarding a gait assessment?
a.) the client should choose a comfortable walking speed
b.) the client should choose the fastest speed they can maintain for 3 minutes
c.) it involves a detailed breakdown of muscle activation through multiple phases of the gait cycle
a.) the client should choose a comfortable walking speed
You suspect hip adductors are overactive when you see knee valgus in an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following mobility assessments will you use to test your hypothesis?
a.) modified Thomas test
b.) seated hip internal rotation
c.) hip abduction and external rotation (adductor test)
c.) hip abduction and external rotation (adductor test)
A client demonstrates movement compensations during the loaded horizontal pushing assessment but NOT during the loaded squat assessment. Which of the following movement assessments should NOT be included until the movement compensations are resolved?
a.) depth jump
b.) gait assessment
c.) Davies test
c.) Davies test
The modified Thomas test assesses mobility in all of the following joint motions except…
a.) knee flexion
b.) hip extension
c.) hip adduction
d.) hip abduction
d.) hip abduction
What is considered normal mobility during the shoulder flexion test?
a.) elbows flexed to a 90 degree angle and shoulders fully extended
b.) elbows extended and arms in line with the lateral midline of the torso
c.) elbows extended and shoulders fully extended
d.) elbows flexed to a 90 degree angle and arms in line with torso
b.) elbows extended and arms in line with the lateral midline of the torso
Which movement assessment is considered the best assessment of an individual’s lower extremity balance?
a.) overhead squat
b.) standing overhead dumbbell press
c.) Davies test
d.) single-leg squat
d.) single-leg squat
What type of stretching can lead to decreased incidences of muscle and tendon injury?
a.) short-term static stretching
b.) long-term static stretching
c.) short-term neuromuscular stretching
d.) long-term dynamic stretching
b.) long-term static stretching
Which of the following is true regarding the intensity of the isometric contraction that is used during neuromuscular stretching?
a.) even light intensity contractions of 20% can produce significant improvements in ROM
b.) near maximal intensity contractions are necessary to produce significant improvements in ROM
c.) moderate (50% max) or higher intensities are necessary to produce increases in ROM
a.) even light intensity contractions of 20% can produce significant improvements in ROM
What modifications are suggested if a client does not feel comfortable performing myofascial rolling with active movement of the targeted limb?
a.) isometrically contract the target muscle, then proceed with the active movement
b.) continuation rolling for 90-120 secs of the target tissue
c.) decrease the pressure, then proceed with the active movement
b.) continuation rolling for 90-120 secs of the target tissue
Which best describes how to introduce tissue movement with the myofascial roller?
a.) roll in a slow, continuous motion for 60 secs
b.) perform quick, active movements while continuously rolling back and forth on the target tissue
c.) perform passive movements, such as trainer-assisted flexion/extension while maintaining pressure
d.) perform active movements, such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure
d.) perform active movements, such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure
What best describes the psycho-physiological concept of stretch tolerance?
a.) a client can tolerate the max amount of discomfort during a prolonged stretch
b.) a client can only tolerate a short duration of stretching due to pain
c.) a client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch
d.) a client can tolerate the max amount of pain during a dynamic stretch
c.) a client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch
Which of the following the best intensity prescription for a stretch with a novice client?
a.) extreme discomfort
b.) mild discomfort
c.) mild discomfort minus 10%
c.) mild discomfort minus 10%
Which of the following is an adequate intensity of isometric contraction for a neuromuscular stretch?
a.) 100% max isometric contraction
b.) 50% max isometric contraction
c.) 20% max isometric contraction
c.) 20% max isometric contraction
What is the recommended length of time to hold direct pressure on a target tissue within a single rep of rolling during myofascial rolling?
a.) 30 to 60 secs
b.) 70 to 90 secs
c.) 90 to 120 secs
d.) 2 to 5 mins
a.) 30 to 60 secs
Using myofascial rolling to increase tissue relaxation due to afferent input from the golgi tendon reflex, modulation the gamma loop reflex arc, and increasing mechanoreceptor signaling is classified as which of the following?
a.) global muscular system effect
b.) local mechanical effect
c.) global neurophysiological effect
c.) global neurophysiological effect
A client demonstrates an excessive anterior pelvic tilt during an overhead squat assessment. Having the client place hands on their hips and repeat the squat resolves this issue. Which muscle is likely overactive in this scenario?
a.) latissimus dorsi
b.) psoas
c.) gastrocnemius
a.) latissimus dorsi
Which statement most accurately defines an informed consent agreement with a corrective exercise client?
a.) it outlines the general information and associated risks
b.) it outlines the procedures and actions professionals are permitted to administer in accordance with the law
a.) it outlines the general information and associated risks
Integration techniques are used to reeducate the HMS back into what type of functional movement pattern?
a.) cooperative
b.) length-tension
c.) synergistic
d.) force-couple
c.) synergistic
What is the most appropriate verbal cue if a client demonstrates knee valgus on landing?
a.) “keep your knees directly over your ankles.”
b.) “keep your knees in line with your second and third toes.”
c.) “keep your knees behind your toes.”
d.) “keep your knees out wider than your fifth toe.”
b.) “keep your knees in line with your second and third toes.”
Strengthening one side unilaterally can also increase the strength of which of the following?
a.) anteriorly rotated limb
b.) contralateral limb
c.) ipsilateral limb
d.) posteriorly rotate limb
b.) contralateral limb
Which of the following describes the ability of different muscles in the body to work together to allow coordination of global and refined movements?
a.) intermuscular coordination
b.) intramuscular coordination
c.) total-body coordination
d.) multiplanar coordination
a.) intermuscular coordination
What is the recommended order of progressions when considering planes of motion?
a.) frontal > transverse > sagittal
b.) sagittal > frontal > transverse
c.) sagittal > transverse > frontal
d.) transverse > sagittal > frontal
b.) sagittal > frontal > transverse
Which of the following exercises is the most appropriate progression from a single leg hop exercise?
a.) wall jump
b.) step off a box and perform an unexpected cutting maneuver
c.) bilateral long jump
b.) step off a box and perform an unexpected cutting maneuver
Isolated strengthening is a technique used to increase…
a.) intramuscular coordination
b.) extensibility
c.) synergistic dominance
d.) activation
d.) activation
What is the prime mover of a specific joint action regardless of concentric or eccentric muscle action?
a.) antagonist
b.) type 2 muscle fibers
c.) agonist
d.) protagonist
c.) agonist
Why might it make sense to exercise the dominant limb first, before the non-dominant limb for recruitment?
a.) minimize injury to the non-dominant side
b.) minimize injury to the dominant side
c.) it is a primer to better prepare the non-dominant side
d.) effectively perform the exercise prior to the challenge of the non-dominant side
c.) it is a primer to better prepare the non-dominant side
The specific mobility assessments selected to include as part of the CES Assessment Flow should be based on which of the following?
a.) the most common restricted joint motions of your client’s age and gender
b.) overlap between client intake questionnaire responses, static malalignments and movement compensations
c.) your favorite mobility assessments
b.) overlap between client intake questionnaire responses, static malalignments and movement compensations
What process describes the ability of the CNS to interpret sensory information as needed to execute the proper motor response?
a.) muscle synergy
b.) augmented feedback
c.) knowledge of performance
d.) sensorimotor integration
d.) sensorimotor integration
What are proximal attachments?
Towards the trunk
What are distal attachments?
Away from the trunk, usually the insertion of the muscle
The distal attachment of the pectoralis major is the…
a.) greater tubercle of the humerus
b.) clavicle, sternum, ribs 1-7
c.) medial border of the scapula
a.) greater tubercle of the humerus
The isometric action of the rhomboids is…
a.) stabilize the LPHC
b.) stabilize the scapula
c.) stabilize the shoulder girdle
b.) stabilize the scapula
The eccentric action of the latissimus dorsi is…
a.) to slow down shoulder extension, horizontal abduction and external rotation
b.) to slow down scapular protraction and upward rotation
c.) to slow down scapular protraction and upward rotation
d.) to slow down shoulder flexion, abduction and external rotation
d.) to slow down shoulder flexion, abduction and external rotation
The concentric action of the rhomboids is…
a.) to speed up scapular retraction and downward rotation
b.) to speed up scapular protraction and upward rotation
c.) to speed up shoulder flexion, horizontal adduction and internal rotation
a.) to speed up scapular retraction and downward rotation
The eccentric action of the serratus anterior is…
a.) scapular protraction
b.) scapular retraction
c.) scapular depression
d.) scapular elevation
b.) scapular retraction
The proximal attachment of the serratus anterior is…
a.) acromion process
b.) sternum
c.) medial border of the scapula
d.) ribs 4-12
d.) ribs 4-12
The distal attachment of the middle trapezius is…
a.) spinous process of T6-T12
b.) acromion process of scapula, spine of scapula
c.) skull, spinous processes of C1-C7
b.) acromion process of scapula, spine of scapula
The concentric action of the upper trapezius is…
a.) speed up scapular retraction
b.) speed up cervical extension, lateral flexion and rotation, scapular elevation
c.) speed up scapular depression
b.) speed up cervical extension, lateral flexion and rotation, scapular elevation
The eccentric action of the lower trapezius is…
a.) slow down scapular depression
b.) slow down scapular adduction
c.) slow down scapular elevation
c.) slow down scapular elevation
The concentric action of the middle trapezius is…
a.) speed up scapular depression
b.) speed up scapular elevation
c.) speed up scapular retraction
c.) speed up scapular retraction
The proximal attachment of the upper trapezius is…
a.) spinous processes of T6-T12
b.) spinous processes of T1-T5
c.) skull, spinous processes of C1-C7
c.) skull, spinous processes of C1-C7
The proximal attachment of the levator scapulae is…
a.) transverse processes of C1-C4
b.) spine of the scapula
c.) superior vertebral border of the scapula
d.) transverse processes of T4-T12
a.) transverse processes of C1-C4
The isometric action of the levator scapulae is…
a.) stabilize the cervical spine and scapulae
b.) stabilize the lumbar spine
c.) stabilize the glenohumeral joint
a.) stabilize the cervical spine and scapulae
The eccentric action of the anterior deltoid is…
a.) slow down shoulder abduction
b.) slow down shoulder extension
c.) slow down shoulder flexion
b.) slow down shoulder extension
The proximal attachment of the medial deltoid is…
a.) spine of the scapula
b.) lateral third of the clavicle
c.) acromion process of scapula
c.) acromion process of scapula
The concentric action of the posterior deltoid is…
a.) to speed up shoulder extension
b.) to speed up shoulder abduction
c.) to speed up shoulder flexion
a.) to speed up shoulder extension
The proximal attachment of the posterior deltoid is…
a.) spine of the scapula
b.) lateral third of
the clavicle
c.) acromion process of scapula
a.) spine of the scapula
The eccentric action of the medial deltoid is…
a.) to slow down shoulder flexion
b.) to slow down shoulder adduction
c.) to slow down shoulder extension
b.) to slow down shoulder adduction
The isometric action of the sternocleidomastoid is…
a.) stabilize the cervical spine and acromioclavicular joint
b.) stabilize the cervical spine and scapulae
c.) stabilize the shoulder girdle
a.) stabilize the cervical spine and acromioclavicular joint
The distal attachment of the sternocleidomastoid is…
a.) deltoid tuberosity
b.) medical one-third of the clavicle
c.) top of manubrium
c.) top of manubrium
The proximal attachment of the supraspinatus is…
a.) supraspinous fossa of the scapula
b.) subscapular fossa of the scapula
c.) infraspinous fossa of the scapula
a.) supraspinous fossa of the scapula
The proximal attachment of the infrapinatus is…
a.) infraspinous fossa of the scapula
b.) supraspinus fossa of the scapula
c.) subscapular fossa of the scapula
a.) infraspinous fossa of the scapula
The concentric action of the infraspinatus is…
a.) to speed up shoulder internal rotation
b.) to speed up shoulder abduction
c.) to speed up shoulder external rotation
c.) to speed up shoulder external rotation
The eccentric action of the subscapularis is…
a.) to slow down shoulder internal rotation
b.) to slow down shoulder abduction
c.) to slow down shoulder external rotation
c.) to slow down shoulder external rotation
The concentric action of the supraspinatus is…
a.) to speed up shoulder external rotation
b.) to speed up shoulder abduction
c.) to speed up shoulder adduction
b.) to speed up shoulder abduction
What is the proximal attachment of the teres minor?
a.) ribs 3-5
b.) lateral border of scapula
c.) inferior angle of the scapula
b.) lateral border of scapula
The concentric action of the teres minor is…
a.) to speed up shoulder internal rotation
b.) to speed up scapular protraction
c.) to speed up shoulder external rotation
c.) to speed up shoulder external rotation
What is the proximal attachment of the teres major?
a.) lateral border of scapula
b.) inferior angle of the scapula
c.) ribs 3-5
b.) inferior angle of the scapula
What is the concentric action of the teres major?
a.) speeds up shoulder internal rotation, adduction and extension
b.) speeds up shoulder external rotation
c.) speeds up protraction of the scapula
a.) speeds up shoulder internal rotation, adduction and extension
What is the eccentric action of the pectoralis minor?
a.) scapular elevation
b.) scapular protraction
c.) scapular retraction
c.) scapular retraction
What is the distal attachment of the pectoralis minor?
a.) coronoid process of the ulna
b.) humerus
c.) coracoid process of the scapula
c.) coracoid process of the scapula
What is the proximal attachment of the pronator teres?
a.) coracoid process of the scapula
b.) humerus
c.) coronoid process of the ulna
c.) coronoid process of the ulna
What is the distal attachment of the supinator?
a.) radius
b.) humerus
c.) clavicle
a.) radius
What is the isometric action of the supinator and pronator teres?
a.) stabilizes the shoulder girdle
b.) stabilize the cervical spine
c.) stabilize the proximal radioulnar joint and elbow
c.) stabilize the proximal radioulnar joint and elbow
The distal attachment of the biceps brachii is…
a.) ulna
b.) distal radius
c.) proximal radius
c.) proximal radius
The proximal attachment of the brachialis is the…
a.) proximal ulna
b.) coracoid process
c.) humerus
c.) humerus
The distal attachment of the brachioradialis is…
a.) styloid process of radius
b.) radial tuberosity
c.) proximal ulna
a.) styloid process of radius
The distal attachment of the brachialis is…
a.) the radial tuberosity
b.) the ulna
c.) the styloid process of the radius
b.) the ulna
Which of the following concentrically supinates the radioulnar joint as well as flexes the elbow?
a.) brachioradialis
b.) brachialis
c.) biceps brachii
c.) biceps brachii
Which head of the triceps brachii has a proximal attachment on the scapula?
a.) medial head
b.) short head
c.) long head
c.) long head
What muscles has a distal attachment on the olecranon process?
a.) biceps brachii
b.) triceps brachii
c.) brachialis
b.) triceps brachii
