Module 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What percentage of the brain does the cerebrum comprise?

A

83%

The cerebrum includes both right and left hemispheres, separated by the central sulcus.

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2
Q

What are the two halves of the cerebrum called?

A

Right Hemisphere and Left Hemisphere

Each hemisphere controls functions of the opposite side of the body.

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3
Q

What is the primary function of the left hemisphere?

A

Controls most functions of the right side of the body

Dominant in most people, especially for tasks like writing.

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4
Q

What is the primary function of the right hemisphere?

A

Controls most functions of the left side of the body

Responsible for understanding facial expressions and emotions.

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5
Q

List the four major lobes of the cerebrum.

A
  • Frontal Lobe
  • Parietal Lobe
  • Temporal Lobe
  • Occipital Lobe
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6
Q

What is the primary function of the frontal lobe?

A

Responsible for critical thinking and decision-making

Involved in advanced cognitive processes.

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7
Q

What acronym helps remember the functions of the frontal lobe?

A

FLIPPER JW

F - Flexibility, L - Language, I - Insight, P - Planning, P - Prioritizing, E - Expressive Speech, R - Reasoning, J - Judgment, W - Working Memory.

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8
Q

What is Broca’s area associated with?

A

Expressive speech

Damage here leads to Broca’s aphasia, affecting speech production.

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9
Q

What is the primary function of the temporal lobe?

A

Processes auditory information and memory formation

Includes Wernicke’s area for language comprehension.

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10
Q

What mnemonic is associated with Wernicke’s area?

A

Wernicke’s for Word Comprehension

This area is crucial for receptive speech and language understanding.

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11
Q

What is the primary function of the occipital lobe?

A

Responsible for interpreting visual information

Contains the primary visual cortex.

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12
Q

What are visual field defects?

A

Partial or complete loss of vision within one or both eyes’ visual field

Can result from damage to the occipital lobe.

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13
Q

What is agnosia?

A

Inability to recognize or interpret sensory information

Can occur due to damage in the parietal lobe.

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14
Q

Which lobe is primarily responsible for sensory information processing?

A

Parietal Lobe

Involved in spatial awareness and sensation interpretation.

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15
Q

What does the limbic system regulate?

A

Emotions and memory

Includes structures like the hypothalamus, thalamus, hippocampus, and amygdala.

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16
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

Regulates appetite, thirst, circadian rhythms, and hormonal balance

Important for maintaining homeostasis.

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17
Q

What is the role of the amygdala?

A

Modulates mood and emotional memories

Involved in fear and anxiety responses.

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18
Q

What does the Clock Drawing Test assess?

A

Signs of neurological issues such as Alzheimer’s disease and other dementias

Quick screening method completed in under 2 minutes.

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19
Q

What cranial nerve is associated with the sense of smell?

A

Olfactory Nerve (I)

Remembered with the mnemonic ‘On’.

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20
Q

What does the optic nerve (II) control?

A

Vision

Remembered with the mnemonic ‘Old’.

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21
Q

What is the function of the vagus nerve (X)?

A

Autonomic functions, swallowing, speech

Remembered with the mnemonic ‘Guarded’.

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22
Q

What is receptive aphasia also known as?

A

Wernicke’s aphasia

Inability to comprehend spoken and written language.

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23
Q

What is a symptom of dysfunction in the frontal lobe?

A

Memory difficulties, planning challenges, prioritizing issues, lack of insight, and impulse control problems

Indicates potential frontal lobe damage.

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24
Q

What is the function of the Opharyngeal Nerve (IX)?

A

Taste, swallowing, saliva

Mnemonic: German. Example: Picture being at a German bakery, tasting delicious pastries, and swallowing them afterward.

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25
Q

What is the function of the Vagus Nerve (X)?

A

Autonomic functions, swallowing, speech

Mnemonic: Guarded. Example: Visualize a protective guard monitoring your body’s involuntary responses and speech.

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26
Q

What is the function of the Accessory Nerve (XI)?

A

Shoulder & neck movement

Mnemonic: A. Example: Remember this with the image of a person with strong neck and shoulder muscles executing acrobatic stunts.

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27
Q

What is the function of the Hypoglossal Nerve (XII)?

A

Tongue movement

Mnemonic: Hop. Example: Think of a frog hopping around using its versatile tongue to catch insects.

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28
Q

What characterizes atypical antipsychotics?

A

5HT2A (Serotonin) receptor antagonism

Typical vs. Atypical Antipsychotics.

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29
Q

What does hyperactivity of dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway modulate?

A

Positive psychotic symptoms

Example: Antagonism of D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway treats hallucinations and delusions.

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30
Q

What is postulated to be responsible for negative and depressive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Decreased dopamine in the mesocortical projection

Example: Lack of motivation and emotional withdrawal in schizophrenic patients.

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31
Q

What does blockade of dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway lead to?

A

Increased acetylcholine levels, extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)

Example: Long-term D2 blockade can cause tardive dyskinesia and involuntary facial movements.

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32
Q

What happens when the D2 receptor is blocked in the tuberoinfundibular pathway?

A

Increase in prolactin levels

Example: A patient on antipsychotic medication experiencing decreased libido or irregular menstruation.

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33
Q

What mnemonic helps recall the four dopamine pathways?

A

Many Men Never Travel

(Mesolimbic, Mesocortical, Nigrostriatal, Tuberoinfundibular).

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34
Q

What are the symptoms of acute dystonia?

A

Muscle spasms, stiff neck, facial grimacing

Example: A patient who suddenly develops a twisted neck might be experiencing acute dystonia.

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35
Q

What is akathisia characterized by?

A

Restlessness, pacing, difficulty standing still

Example: A patient who can’t sit still during a session might be experiencing akathisia.

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36
Q

What are common symptoms of akinesia?

A

Absence of movement, difficulty initiating motions

Example: A patient accused of being lazy might suffer from akinesia.

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37
Q

What symptoms mimic Parkinson’s disease due to D2 blockade?

A

Muscle rigidity, shuffling gait, motor slowing

Example: A patient who appears uninterested due to their flat facial expression might be experiencing pseudo-Parkinsonia.

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38
Q

What are the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia?

A

Involuntary abnormal muscle movements of the mouth, tongue, face, jaw

Example: Persistent tongue protrusion and rolling, lip-smacking, and facial dystonia.

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39
Q

What is the study of pharmacokinetics concerned with?

A

Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion (ADME)

Pharmacokinetics focuses on what the body does to a drug.

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40
Q

Where does absorption of orally administered drugs primarily occur?

A

Small intestines

This is where the drug moves into the body.

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41
Q

What is the first-pass effect?

A

Reduction of drug concentration by CYP450 enzymes in the liver after enteric absorption

Non-enteric routes of medication bypass the first-pass effect.

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42
Q

What is meant by half-life in pharmacokinetics?

A

Time needed to clear 50% of the drug from the plasma

A steady state is achieved in five half-lives.

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43
Q

What do inducers do in pharmacokinetics?

A

Speed up metabolic rate, decreasing serum levels of drugs

Example: Chemicals in tobacco smoke can accelerate the metabolism of clozapine and olanzapine.

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44
Q

What mnemonic helps remember inducers?

A

DROP ACT SCAM GBS

Includes drugs like Dilantin, Rifampin, OCPs, and others.

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45
Q

What do inhibitors do in pharmacokinetics?

A

Slow down metabolic rate, increasing serum levels of drugs

Higher risk of toxicity is associated with inhibitors.

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46
Q

What mnemonic helps remember inhibitors?

A

SICKFACES.COM

Includes drugs like Sodium Valproate, Isoniazid, and Ketoconazole.

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47
Q

What factors affect drug metabolism?

A
  • Age
  • Physiological integrity
  • Nutritional status
  • Intracellular volume

Elderly-specific factors include reduced metabolism and increased risk of toxicity.

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48
Q

What is the main factor affecting drug toxicity in older adults?

A

Diminished protein binding

This increases free drug concentration, making older adults more susceptible to drug toxicity.

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49
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?

A

Study of drug action on the body

It includes how drugs interact with receptors, ion channels, and enzymes.

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50
Q

What does an agonist do at a receptor?

A

Initiates a biological response and opens the ion channels

Example: Morphine mimics endorphins by binding to opioid receptors.

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51
Q

What is a partial agonist?

A

Binds to a receptor but does not fully activate it

Example: Buprenorphine has lower efficacy than full agonists like morphine.

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52
Q

What is the effect of an inverse agonist?

A

Induces an opposite biological response

Example: Inverse agonists for benzodiazepine receptors can cause anxiety.

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53
Q

What is the role of an antagonist?

A

Blocks a receptor to inhibit biological response

Example: Naloxone reverses opioid overdose symptoms by blocking opioid receptors.

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54
Q

What is the function of enzyme inhibitors?

A

Slow or stop the catalytic action of an enzyme

Example: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors reduce the breakdown of neurotransmitters.

55
Q

What is the impact of reuptake inhibitors?

A

Hinders absorption of neurotransmitters by the synapse

Allows for higher neurotransmitter concentrations in the synaptic cleft.

56
Q

What do receptor interactions drive in the body?

A

Biological response, including enhanced neurotransmission and blocked ion channels.

57
Q

What action does an agonist receptor produce?

A

Initiates a biological response and opens the ion channels.

58
Q

What is a partial agonist?

A

Partially activates the receptor, resulting in limited activities.

59
Q

What does an antagonist do?

A

Prevents the agonist from opening the channel and does not trigger a biological response.

60
Q

What is the role of serotonin (5-HT) in the body?

A

Increases well-being, satiety, and reduces pain perception.

61
Q

Where is serotonin produced?

A

Raphe nuclei of the brainstem.

62
Q

What mnemonic can help remember the effects of serotonin?

A

“Serene-tonin” for well-being and mood regulation.

63
Q

What are the effects of dopamine (DA)?

A

Increases sense of well-being and satiety, decreases hunger and cravings.

64
Q

Where is dopamine produced?

A

Substantia nigra, nucleus accumbens, ventral tegmental area.

65
Q

What mnemonic can help remember dopamine’s role?

A

“Very Tired Addict” for DA’s role in addiction and reward.

66
Q

What effects does norepinephrine have?

A

Increases heart rate, alertness, well-being; decreases pain sensitivity and circulation.

67
Q

Where is norepinephrine produced?

A

Locus coeruleus and medullary reticular formation.

68
Q

What mnemonic can help remember norepinephrine?

A

“Fight or flight” neurotransmitter for alertness and heart rate.

69
Q

What are the effects of acetylcholine (ACh)?

A

Increases heart rate, secretions, sweating, salivation, memory, and muscle contractions.

70
Q

Where is acetylcholine synthesized?

A

Basalis nucleus of Meynert.

71
Q

What mnemonic can help remember ACh’s effects?

A

“ACh makes your heart race(h)” for its effect on heart rate.

72
Q

What is the primary role of GABA?

A

Most abundant inhibitory neurotransmitter; increases sleepiness, decreases anxiety.

73
Q

What mnemonic can help remember GABA’s calming effects?

A

“GABA Gab” for its calming effects.

74
Q

What are the effects of glutamate?

A

Most abundant excitatory neurotransmitter; increased levels can increase anxiety.

75
Q

What mnemonic can help remember glutamate’s excitatory effect?

A

“Glute-tensed” for excitatory effect causing anxiety.

76
Q

What is lithium’s therapeutic range?

A

0.6-1.2 mEq/L.

77
Q

What toxicity level indicates lithium toxicity?

A

1.5 mEq/L or higher.

78
Q

What are some side effects of lithium?

A
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Weight gain
  • Central nervous system defects
  • Fine hand tremors
  • Fatigue
  • Mental confusion
  • Headaches
  • Coarse hand tremors (toxicity sign)
  • Nystagmus
  • Maculopapular rash
  • GI symptoms
  • Renal issues
  • Cardiac issues
  • Hematologic issues
79
Q

What are signs of lithium toxicity?

A
  • Severe nausea & vomiting
  • Diarrhea
  • Confusion & drowsiness
  • Blurred vision & slurred speech
  • Muscle weakness & ataxia
  • Coarse hand tremors
80
Q

What should be done in case of lithium toxicity?

A

Immediately stop taking lithium and check levels.

81
Q

What drug interactions can affect lithium levels?

A

Lithium levels increase with prostaglandin inhibitors like NSAIDs.

82
Q

What is valproic acid’s black box warning?

A

Hepatotoxicity and pancreatitis.

83
Q

What is the therapeutic index of valproic acid?

A

50-125 mcg/ml.

84
Q

What fetal abnormalities are associated with valproic acid during pregnancy?

A
  • Neural tube defects
  • Cleft lip and cleft palate
  • Cognitive impairment
85
Q

What is carbamazepine’s black box warning?

A

Agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia.

86
Q

What is the therapeutic range for carbamazepine?

A

4-12 µg/mL.

87
Q

What severe skin reaction is associated with carbamazepine in Asian individuals?

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

88
Q

What is the mnemonic for remembering side effects of carbamazepine?

A

C – Color pale, A – Agranulocytosis, R – Rash, B – Bleeding gums, A – Aplastic anemia, M – Med stop, A – Asians vulnerable to Stevens-Johnson syndrome, Zzz – fatigue, P – Pregnant? Neural tube defects.

89
Q

What is Lamictal used for?

A

Managing acute episodes and preventing bipolar mood episodes.

90
Q

What is Lamictal’s black box warning?

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

91
Q

What are key signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

A
  • Fever
  • Sore throat
  • Facial swelling
  • Tongue rash
  • Skin sloughing
92
Q

What does the 4 SAILED method stand for regarding conditions/medications causing mania?

A
  • Syphilis
  • SAM-e
  • Steroids
  • St. John’s Wort/Ginseng
  • Antidepressants
  • Isoniazid
  • Levothyroxine
  • Disulfiram
93
Q

What is the action taken for drug-induced mania?

A

Discontinue or adjust the causative medication.

94
Q

What should be monitored closely when initiating medications that may induce mania?

A

Patients with a history of mood disorders.

95
Q

What medication is known to cause symptoms similar to mania?

A

Treatment for a sudden flare-up of rheumatic arthritis

This medication may induce manic symptoms in susceptible individuals.

96
Q

What condition is most likely to occur due to the addition of Flonase to a regimen including Valproate and Seroquel?

A

Mania Episode

Flonase can potentially trigger manic episodes in patients with bipolar disorder.

97
Q

What does the mnemonic ‘S – Syphilis, S – SAM-e, S – Steroids, S – St. John’s Wort/Ginseng, A – Antidepressants, I – Isoniazid, Le – Levothyroxine, D – Disulfiram’ represent?

A

Medications that may induce mania in patients with bipolar disorder

This mnemonic helps recall medications that can exacerbate mania.

98
Q

Which medication is known to worsen depression symptoms in patients treated for hypertension?

A

Propranolol

Propranolol is a beta blocker that can contribute to depressive symptoms.

99
Q

What is the monitoring schedule for Clozapine (Clozaril)?

A

Weekly for the first six months, every two weeks for the next six months, then monthly if ANC is normal

This schedule is critical to prevent neutropenia.

100
Q

What should be done if a patient’s absolute neutrophil count (ANC) is less than 1000mm3 while on Clozapine?

A

Discontinue Clozapine

This is necessary to prevent severe complications.

101
Q

What are the symptoms of a hypertensive crisis?

A

Elevated blood pressure, sudden explosive headache, facial flushing, palpitations, pupillary dilation, diaphoresis, fever

Symptoms indicate a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention.

102
Q

What is the teratogenic risk associated with Lithium?

A

Epstein anomaly

Lithium use during the first trimester is particularly concerning for cardiac defects.

103
Q

What mnemonic can help remember the signs of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

A

‘higH C-PeeK-a-boo’ for elevated CPK and ‘Myo-ROOM-dark urine’ for myoglobinuria

These mnemonics aid in recalling key symptoms associated with NMS.

104
Q

What medication acts as both a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor?

A

Bupropion

Bupropion is commonly used for depression and has a unique mechanism of action.

105
Q

What should be monitored when a patient is on Olanzapine?

A

Lipid levels and abdominal circumference

These measurements help assess for metabolic syndrome.

106
Q

Fill in the blank: Clozapine is metabolized primarily by the _______ enzyme.

A

CYP1A2

Understanding this metabolism is crucial for managing drug interactions.

107
Q

What teratogenic risk is associated with Carbamazepine?

A

Neural tube defect

Carbamazepine is known to increase the risk of serious congenital malformations.

108
Q

What is a potential side effect of Wellbutrin (Bupropion)?

A

Decreased seizure threshold

This makes it contraindicated in patients with a history of seizures.

109
Q

Which medication should be avoided in a patient taking Isocarboxazid due to potential interactions?

A

Methylphenidate

This stimulant can cause hypertensive crises when combined with MAOIs.

110
Q

What is the first step in treating Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

A

Always discontinue the offending agent.

111
Q

What type of medication is Bromocriptine (Parlodel)?

A

Dopamine D2 Agonist.

112
Q

What is the mnemonic associated with Bromocriptine?

A

“Bromance with D2”.

113
Q

What is Dantrolene used for?

A

Muscle relaxant for muscle rigidity.

114
Q

What is the mnemonic for Dantrolene?

A

“Dan-t-rocks those rigid muscles.”

115
Q

How quickly can NMS develop after starting or increasing antipsychotic medication?

A

Rapidly, often within the first two weeks.

116
Q

What is essential to distinguish NMS from?

A

Serotonin Syndrome.

117
Q

What types of medications can cause Serotonin Syndrome?

A

Antidepressants (e.g., SSRI, TCA, MAOI, SNRI).

118
Q

What is an example of a medication combination that can lead to Serotonin Syndrome?

A

Taking both an SSRI and an MAOI simultaneously.

119
Q

List key symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome.

A
  • Hyperreflexia
  • Myoclonic Jerks
  • Agitation
  • Rapid heart rate
  • Elevation in blood pressure
  • Headache
  • Sweating
  • Shivering
  • Goosebumps
  • Confusion
  • Fever
  • Seizures
  • Unconsciousness
120
Q

What is the treatment for Serotonin Syndrome?

A

Discontinue the offending agent & administer Cyproheptadine.

121
Q

What is a preventative measure when switching from an SSRI to an MAOI?

A

Wait two weeks.

122
Q

How long should one wait when switching from Prozac to MAOIs?

A

Five weeks.

123
Q

What are the similarities between Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?

A

Both present with fever and altered mental status.

124
Q

What characterizes Serotonin Syndrome?

A

Hyperreflexia and myoclonic jerks.

125
Q

What characterizes Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

A

Muscle rigidity, mutism, autonomic instability.

126
Q

What can combining an SSRI with St. John’s Wort lead to?

A

Potentially lead to Serotonin Syndrome.

127
Q

What is Serotonin Discontinuation Syndrome?

A

A condition that occurs after abrupt discontinuation of serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

128
Q

List symptoms of Serotonin Discontinuation Syndrome.

A
  • Fatigue and lethargy
  • Myalgia
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Ataxia
  • Impaired memory
  • Agitation
129
Q

What mnemonic can help remember the symptoms of Serotonin Discontinuation Syndrome?

A

FANIMA - Fatigue, Achiness, Nausea, Impaired memory, Myalgia, Agitation.

130
Q

What is crucial to do when tapering SSRIs, TCAs, or MAOIs?

A

Always taper (not tape).

131
Q

What factors increase the risk of Serotonin Discontinuation Syndrome?

A

Duration of treatment; patients on medications for extended periods may have increased risk.

132
Q

How long can discontinuation symptoms last?

A

Several days to weeks.

133
Q

What is important to monitor during tapering?

A

Monitoring is crucial for safe discontinuation and minimizing symptoms.