Module 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Chicago Convention also known as?

A

The Convention on International Civil Aviation

It established the International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What organization was established by the Chicago Convention?

A

International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO)

ICAO is a specialized agency of the United Nations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the main responsibilities of the ICAO?

A

Coordinating and regulating international air travel

This includes establishing rules of airspace, aircraft registration, and safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When was the Chicago Convention signed?

A

7 December 1944

It was signed in Chicago, Illinois, U.S.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When did the Chicago Convention come into effect?

A

4 April 1947

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the Chicago Convention provide for regarding airspace?

A

Sovereignty of airspace above the territory of each state

This means each state has control over the airspace above its territory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many freedoms of air transport were initially established by the Chicago Convention?

A

Five freedoms

These govern the freedom of states to operate air transport flights.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many freedoms were later added to the Chicago Convention?

A

Four unofficial freedoms

This expanded the total to nine freedoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which freedoms of air transport apply automatically to signatory states?

A

The first two freedoms

The remainder are subject to national agreement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the significance of Article 28 of the Chicago Convention?

A

It addresses Air Navigation Facilities and Standard Customs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does Article 28 of the Chicago Convention require from contracting states?

A

Contracting states must provide airport, radio services, meteorological services, and other air navigation facilities

This is to facilitate international air navigation in accordance with standards and recommended practices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What standard systems must contracting states adopt according to Article 28?

A

Contracting states must adopt standard systems of:
* Communications procedures
* Codes
* Markings
* Signals
* Lighting
* Other operational practices and rules

These should be recommended or established pursuant to the convention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What collaboration is required in Article 28 regarding aeronautical maps and charts?

A

Contracting states must collaborate in the publication of aeronautical maps and charts in accordance with established standards

This is part of international measures recommended or established by the convention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the purpose of Article 37 of the Chicago Convention?

A

To secure the highest practical degree of uniformity in regulations, standards, procedures, and organization related to air navigation

This includes matters concerning aircraft, personnel, airways, and auxiliary services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What organization is responsible for adopting international standards and recommended practices according to Article 37?

A

The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)

ICAO adopts and amends standards as necessary for air navigation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What specific areas does Article 37 mention for international standards and procedures?

A

International standards and procedures deal with:
* Communication systems and air navigation aids
* Licensing of operating and mechanical personnel
* Log books
* Aeronautical maps and charts
* Safety, regularity, and efficiency of air navigation

These areas are essential for improving air navigation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What must a state do if it cannot comply with international standards according to Article 38?

A

The state must give immediate notification to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the established international standard

This ensures transparency and communication regarding compliance issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What authority do contracting states have under Article 68 regarding international air services?

A

Contracting states may designate the route to be followed and the airports to be used by any international air service

This is subject to the provisions of the Chicago Convention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Annex 1 of ICAO?

A

Personnel Licensing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does Annex 2 of ICAO cover?

A

Rules of the Air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the focus of Annex 3 of ICAO?

A

Meteorological Service for International Air Navigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of information is provided in Annex 4 of ICAO?

A

Aeronautical Charts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does Annex 5 of ICAO specify?

A

Units of Measurement to be used in Air and Ground Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the subject of Annex 6 of ICAO?

A

Operation of Aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does Annex 7 of ICAO address?

A

Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is covered in Annex 8 of ICAO?

A

Airworthiness of Aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does Annex 9 of ICAO pertain to?

A

Facilitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the focus of Annex 10 of ICAO?

A

Aeronautical Communications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does Annex 11 of ICAO cover?

A

Air Traffic Services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the subject of Annex 12 of ICAO?

A

Search and Rescue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is addressed in Annex 13 of ICAO?

A

Aircraft Accident Investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is covered in Annex 14 of ICAO?

A

Aerodromes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does Annex 15 of ICAO focus on?

A

Aeronautical Information Services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the subject of Annex 16 of ICAO?

A

Environmental Protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does Annex 17 of ICAO pertain to?

A

Security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the focus of Annex 18 of ICAO?

A

The Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the purpose of Annex 11 Air Traffic Services (ATS)?

A

Establishment of airspace, units and services necessary to promote a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which organization provides Air Traffic Control services in India?

A

Airports Authority Of India (AAI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does the Civil Aviation Regulation (CAR) Section 9 cover?

A

Air Space and Air Navigation Standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the objectives of Air Traffic Services? (List at least three)

A
  • Prevent collisions between aircraft
  • Prevent collisions between aircraft on the maneuvering area and obstructions
  • Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

True or False: The purpose of Air Traffic Services is to provide advice and information for safe and efficient flights.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Fill in the blank: The objectives of Air Traffic Services include notifying appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of _______.

A

search and rescue aid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the three services that comprise Air Traffic Services (ATS)?

A
  • Air Traffic Control (ATC) service
  • Flight Information service
  • Alerting service

These services are identified in ICAO Annex 11.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the primary objective of the Air Traffic Control (ATC) service?

A

To prevent collisions between aircraft

This objective is defined in ICAO Annex 2 & 11 and DGCA–CAR-Section 9, Series E, Part 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the three parts into which Air Traffic Control services are divided?

A
  • Area control service
  • Approach control service
  • Aerodrome control service

These divisions help manage different phases of air traffic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is an Area Control Center responsible for?

A

Controlling aircraft flying at high altitudes between airport approaches and departures

Also known as an en-route center.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What governs the operations and airspace boundaries of Area Control Centers?

A

International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)

ICAO sets international standards and regulations for aviation safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the two main objectives of an Area Control Center?

A
  • Prevent collisions between aircraft
  • Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic

These objectives are in accordance with ICAO Annex 2 & 11.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the focus of the Approach Control service?

A

Air traffic control service for controlled flights during arrival or departure

This service ensures safe and efficient transitions to and from airports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the objectives of the Approach Control service?

A
  • Prevent collisions between aircraft
  • Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic

These objectives are outlined in ICAO Annex 2 & 11 and DCA–CAR–Section 9, Series E, Part 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the primary objective of aerodrome traffic control service?

A

To provide a service for the whole aerodrome traffic on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome and for all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.

This is in accordance with ICAO Annex 2 & 11 and DCA—CAR-Section 9, Series E, Part 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

List the three main objectives of aerodrome traffic control service.

A
  • Prevent collisions between aircraft
  • Prevent collisions between aircraft on the maneuvering area and obstructions
  • Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic

These objectives are outlined in ICAO Annex 2 & 11 and DCA—CAR-Section 9, Series E, Part 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the definition of Flight Information Service (FIS)?

A

A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information for the safe and efficient performance of flights.

FIS is provided by air traffic controllers for controlled flights and for all flights in the vicinity of controlled airports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

True or False: Flight Information Service is only provided for controlled flights.

A

False

Flight Information Service is also provided for all flights in the vicinity of controlled airports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What types of information does Flight Information Service provide?

A
  • Traffic information
  • Meteorological information
  • Information on runway state
  • Other information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight

This information is essential for the performance of flights according to ICAO standards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Fill in the blank: The service that aims to prevent collisions on the maneuvering area is known as _______.

A

[aerodrome traffic control service]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the role of air traffic controllers in relation to Flight Information Service?

A

To provide FIS for controlled flights and for all flights in the vicinity of controlled airports.

This ensures the safety and efficiency of air traffic operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the purpose of the Alerting Service?

A

To notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid and assist such organizations as required.

This service cooperates with Search and Rescue Centres and informs about any aircraft that are, or appear to be, in a state of emergency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Who is entitled to receive the Alerting Service?

A
  • All aircraft provided with air traffic control service
  • All other aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known
  • Any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference

Based on ICAO Annex 2 & 11 and DCA-CAR-Section 9, Series E, Part 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Define Instrument Flight Rules (IFR).

A

A set of regulations under which a pilot operates an aircraft in weather conditions not clear enough to see where they are going.

IFR are used for instrument piloting and non-visual runways only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What dictates how aircraft are operated under IFR?

A

Regulations defined by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) or a local governing authority, such as the DCA in India.

Each country’s aviation authority has its own set of regulations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What must an IFR pilot rely upon during flight?

A

Onboard instruments inside the cockpit to safely achieve different phases of flight such as departure, navigation, and approach.

This is necessary when visual navigation is not possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

When is a pilot required to operate an aircraft under IFR?

A
  • Visual meteorological conditions (VMC) are not met
  • Weather parameters are more restrictive at a current time

This determination is made by checking the weather conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the two types of IFR approaches?

A
  • Precision IFR approaches
  • Non-precision IFR approaches

These approaches differ in the type of guidance provided during landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What characterizes a Precision IFR approach?

A

An instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance.

Guidance can be provided by systems such as Instrument Landing System (ILS) or Precision Approach Radar (PAR).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is a Non-precision IFR approach?

A

An instrument approach and landing which utilizes lateral guidance but does not utilize vertical guidance.

Examples include approaches using VHF Omnidirectional Radio Range (VOR) or Non-Directional Beacon (NDB).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What determines whether IFR is compulsory for a pilot?

A

IFR is compulsory if Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) are not met or if weather parameters are more restrictive at a current time

IFR stands for Instrument Flight Rules, which govern the operation of aircraft in weather conditions where visual reference is not sufficient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the two types of IFR approaches?

A
  • Precision IFR approaches
  • Non-precision IFR approaches

These approaches vary based on the guidance provided during landing and the weather conditions at the airport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Define a Precision IFR approach.

A

An instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance provided by:
* a ground-based navigation aid (GBAS Landing System)
* computer-generated navigation data displayed to the pilot
* a controller interpreting radar displays (Precision Approach Radar)

Precision approaches utilize systems such as the Instrument Landing System (ILS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is a Non-precision IFR approach?

A

An instrument approach and landing that utilizes lateral guidance but does not utilize vertical guidance, often interpreted by the pilot using ground beacons.

Lateral guidance can be provided by VHF Omnidirectional Radio Range (VOR) or Non-Directional Beacon (NDB).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the Decision Height (DH) for CAT I precision approaches?

A

Not lower than 60 m (200 ft)

CAT I approaches require specific visibility and lateral guidance parameters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the visibility requirements for CAT II precision approaches?

A

Not less than 300 m

CAT II approaches have different decision height and visibility requirements compared to CAT I.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What organization is designated as the Instrument Flight Procedure Design Service Provider (IFPDSP) in India?

A

Airports Authority of India (AAI)

AAI is responsible for the design, implementation, and maintenance of instrument flight procedures for all civil airports in India.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What must the IFPDSP in India comply with?

A

ICAO standards

The IFPDSP must follow provisions of regulatory control and monitoring system requirements specified in the Civil Aviation Requirements (CAR).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Fill in the blank: Visual Flight Rules (VFR) are defined by the _______.

A

International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)

VFR allow pilots to operate aircraft in weather conditions generally clear of clouds and with good visibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the primary tasks a pilot must perform under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?

A
  • See outside the cockpit
  • Control the aircraft’s altitude
  • Navigate
  • Avoid obstacles and other aircrafts

VFR emphasizes visual navigation and situational awareness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What does IFP stand for in aviation regulations?

A

Instrument Flight Procedure

IFP is crucial for maintaining safe and efficient air traffic operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Who is responsible for the maintenance of IFP for all civil airports in India?

A

Airports Authority of India (AAI)

AAI acts as the IFPDSP on behalf of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?

A

Regulations under which a pilot operates an aircraft in clear weather conditions

VFR allows pilots to navigate visually without relying solely on instruments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What must a pilot be able to do under Visual Flight Rules?

A
  • See outside the cockpit
  • Control the aircraft’s altitude
  • Navigate and avoid obstacles and other aircraft

These abilities are essential for safe VFR operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

In which airspace are VFR flights not allowed, regardless of weather conditions?

A

Class A airspace

Class A airspace requires IFR operations at all times.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What types of lighting systems are commonly found at airfields for VFR operations?

A
  • Low intensity runway lights
  • Medium intensity runway lights
  • Taxiway lighting
  • Approach lighting systems

These lighting systems assist pilots during takeoff and landing in visual conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is controlled airspace?

A

Airspace of defined dimensions where air traffic control services are provided

Controlled airspace facilitates the safe and orderly flow of air traffic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the purpose of Control Zones (CTZ)?

A

To afford protection to aircraft within the immediate vicinity of aerodromes

CTZs are critical for ensuring safety around airports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are Control Areas (CTA) in aviation?

A

Areas situated above Aerodrome Traffic Zones providing protection over a larger area

CTAs help manage air traffic at higher altitudes.

86
Q

What characterizes airways in controlled airspace?

A

Corridors of airspace connecting Control Areas, usually 10 miles wide

Airways extend upward to a height of 24,500 feet and link with airways in other countries.

87
Q

Fill in the blank: The primary factor that dictates whether a pilot flies under IFR or VFR is _______.

A

weather

Weather conditions significantly influence flight rules compliance.

88
Q

What is the purpose of Control Zones (CTZ)?

A

Afford protection to aircraft within the immediate vicinity of aerodromes

Also known as Aerodrome Control Zones (ATZ)

89
Q

What do Control Areas (CTA) provide?

A

Protection over a larger area to a specified upper limit, situated above the Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ)

Control Areas are essential for managing air traffic in a specified region.

90
Q

What are airways in aviation?

A

Corridors of airspace connecting Control Areas, normally 10 miles wide, with bases between 5,000 and 7,000 feet extending to 24,500 feet

Airways facilitate organized flight paths for aircraft.

91
Q

What are Upper Air Routes (UARs)?

A

Air routes above airways, usually from FL 250 (25,000 feet) to FL 460 (46,000 feet)

Aircraft above FL 245 are subject to mandatory Air Traffic Control Service.

92
Q

What is the function of Restricted Areas?

A

Prevent aircraft from straying into dangerous places, which may include military training or weapons testing ranges

These areas can often be deactivated when not in use.

93
Q

What is Class A airspace?

A

Generally, airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including flight level (FL) 600

This class of airspace requires IFR operations.

94
Q

What is Class B airspace?

A

Generally, airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL

Designed for high-density traffic areas.

95
Q

What is the altitude range for Class C airspace?

A

From the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation (in MSL)

Class C airspace requires air traffic control service.

96
Q

What characterizes Class D airspace?

A

Airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (in MSL)

IFR and VFR flights are permitted, with air traffic control service provided.

97
Q

What is Class E airspace?

A

Controlled airspace not classified as A, B, C, or D, existing from 700 feet AGL or 1,200 feet AGL up to 17,999 feet

IFR flights receive air traffic control service and traffic information.

98
Q

What is Class F airspace?

A

Designated airspace within ATS Route segment outside controlled airspace

IFR and VFR flights are permitted, with advisory services available.

99
Q

What defines Class G airspace?

A

Airspace not designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E, essentially uncontrolled by ATC except near temporary control towers

IFR and VFR flights receive flight information service if requested.

100
Q

What is the altitude for Class G airspace?

A

Between 700 feet AGL and 1,200 feet AGL

This class allows for uncontrolled flight operations.

101
Q

Fill in the blank: Class E airspace exists from either 700 feet AGL or 1200 feet AGL and goes up to and including _______.

A

17,999 feet

102
Q

True or False: Class A airspace is primarily used for VFR operations.

103
Q

What types of flights are permitted in Class F airspace?

A

IFR and VFR flights

All participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service.

104
Q

What type of airspace is classified as Class G?

A

Airspace outside ATS route segment and outside controlled airspace

It is essentially uncontrolled airspace.

105
Q

What is the purpose of air traffic advisories in Class E airspace?

A

To provide traffic information to all flights as far as is practical

IFR flights are separated from each other in this airspace.

106
Q

What does the term ‘controlled airspace’ refer to?

A

Airspace in which air traffic control services are provided

This includes Classes A, B, C, D, and E.

107
Q

What is the significance of Class G airspace?

A

It allows for uncontrolled flight operations and is typically used for general aviation

Traffic information is provided upon request.

108
Q

What airspace classification is registered above Class A?

109
Q

What is Class F airspace?

A

Designated airspace within ATS Route segment, outside controlled airspace

110
Q

What types of flights are permitted in Class F airspace?

A

IFR and VFR flights

111
Q

What services do participating IFR flights receive in Class F airspace?

A

Air traffic advisory service

112
Q

What is provided to all flights in Class F airspace if requested?

A

Flight information service

113
Q

What are the basic types of Indian airspace within controlled airspace?

A

Class C, Class D, Class E

114
Q

What is the classification of airspace outside ATS route segment and outside controlled airspace?

115
Q

What is the altitude of Class A airspace?

A

18,000’ MSL

116
Q

What is the altitude range for Class B airspace?

A

14,500’ MSL up to 10,000’ FT

117
Q

What is the maximum altitude for Class C airspace?

A

Up to 4,000’ FT

118
Q

What is the maximum altitude for Class D airspace?

A

Up to 2,500’ FT

119
Q

What type of airports is Class G associated with?

A

Non-towered airports

120
Q

What is the definition of UAS?

A

Unmanned Aircraft System

121
Q

What does UTM stand for?

A

Unmanned Aircraft System Traffic Management

122
Q

What are the four Flight Information Regions (FIRs) of Indian airspace?

A

Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai

123
Q

Fill in the blank: Class E airspace is classified as _______.

A

controlled airspace

124
Q

True or False: Air traffic services are provided in Class G airspace.

125
Q

What abbreviation is used for Remotely Piloted Air System?

126
Q

What are the established performance requirements for UAS?

A

UAS meet established performance requirements and cooperatively separate

127
Q

What services do UAS receive where required?

A

UAS are certified and receive traditional air traffic services

128
Q

How is airspace divided in Indian airspace?

A

Airspace is divided into 4 FIRs: Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai & Guwahati as sub FIR

129
Q

What are the 5 ADIZ in Indian airspace?

A

North, West, Central, East, South, and South-East sub ADIZ

130
Q

Which states surround Indian airspace?

A

Pakistan, Oman, Saana, Mogadishu, Seychelles, Mauritius, Male, Sri Lanka, Malaysia, Myanmar, Bangladesh, Nepal

131
Q

What is the purpose of a Flight Information Region (FIR)?

A

Each division is called the ‘Flight Information Region’ (FIR) for communicating with flights

132
Q

What does ADIZ stand for?

A

Air Defense Identification Zone

133
Q

What is required in an ADIZ?

A

Ready identification, location, and control of all aircraft except Department of Defense and law enforcement aircraft

134
Q

What are the types of separation mentioned in relation to ICAO guidelines?

A

Different separation standards apply to IFR and VFR aircraft

135
Q

What must air traffic controllers do for safe operations?

A

Keep aircraft separated vertically or horizontally

136
Q

What do national authorities lay down for aircraft navigation?

A

Vertical and horizontal separation standards

137
Q

What does observance of separation standards ensure?

A

Safe separation from the ground, other aircraft, and protected airspace

138
Q

What can separation standards reduce exposure to?

A

Wake Vortex Turbulence

139
Q

What document outlines national separation standards?

A

ICAO Annex 11, Doc 4444

140
Q

When shall vertical or horizontal separation be provided?

A

Between IFR flights in Class D and E airspaces, IFR flights and special VFR flights, and between special VFR flights

141
Q

What is vertical separation?

A

Achieved by requiring aircraft to use different altitudes

142
Q

What is the purpose of longitudinal separation in air traffic control?

A

To ensure the spacing between the estimated positions of the aircraft is never less than a prescribed minimum.

143
Q

What are the three terms used for the application of longitudinal separation?

A
  • Same track
  • Reciprocal tracks
  • Crossing tracks
144
Q

What is radar separation?

A

A method where aircraft fly under the supervision of Air Traffic Control in controlled airspace.

145
Q

What is the minimum distance for radar separation when less than 40 miles from the antenna?

146
Q

What is the minimum distance for radar separation when 40 miles or more from the antenna?

147
Q

What does VOR stand for and what is its purpose?

A

Very High Frequency Omni-Directional Range; it aids in navigating aircraft.

148
Q

What is the function of Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)?

A

To determine the aircraft’s slant range from the DME ground station location.

149
Q

What is the maximum distance that DME can measure from the aircraft to the runway?

A

Out to 18 Nautical Miles (NM) and beyond.

150
Q

What are Non-Directional Beacons (NDBs) used for?

A

They are ground-based radio transmitters used to aid and navigate aircraft.

151
Q

What is meteorology?

A

The scientific study of the atmosphere focusing on weather processes and forecasting.

152
Q

What are meteorological phenomena?

A

Observable weather events explained by the science of meteorology.

153
Q

What variables does meteorology focus on?

A
  • Air pressure
  • Wind speed and direction
  • Temperature
  • Humidity
  • Weather patterns
154
Q

What are some weather phenomena studied in meteorology?

A
  • Rain
  • Snow
  • Thunderstorms
  • Tornadoes
  • Hurricanes
  • Typhoons
155
Q

What is aviation meteorology (MET)?

A

A crucial data stream for air traffic management services due to its impact on safety and efficiency.

156
Q

How does weather impact airline operations?

A

It directly impacts the load factor.

157
Q

What are the prophylactic values of meteorological data and information?

A

They include forecasts and warnings that help prevent adverse conditions during flights.

158
Q

Fill in the blank: A flight, at all stages, is affected by the changes in _______.

A

[atmospheric conditions]

159
Q

What aspects of flight operations are affected by poor visibility and low cloud base?

A
  • Take-off
  • Landing phases
160
Q

What is becoming increasingly important to aviation with the development of satellite navigation?

A

Space weather.

161
Q

What do airlines require weather details for?

A

To plan their operations

Weather details have a direct impact on the load factor.

162
Q

What are the prophylactic values of meteorological data?

A

Forecasts and warnings

Meteorological data helps in anticipating and mitigating potential issues.

163
Q

Which phases of a flight are affected by poor visibility and low cloud base?

A

Take-off and landing phases

Changes in atmospheric conditions impact these critical phases.

164
Q

Name some inflight operations affected by severe weather.

A
  • Thunderstorms
  • Hailstorms
  • Line squalls
  • Turbulence
  • Cyclonic storms

These weather phenomena significantly influence inflight safety and operations.

165
Q

What meteorological inputs are necessary at every stage of flight?

A

Meteorological information

Essential for planning and safety.

166
Q

List the factors that meteorological information helps airlines to plan.

A
  • Scheduled or Expected Time of Departure
  • Take-off gross weight
  • Flight path and altitudes
  • Reserve fuel
  • Alternate aerodrome
  • Landing weight

Accurate planning helps ensure flight safety and efficiency.

167
Q

What theorem explains the acceleration of air over an aerofoil?

A

Bernoulli’s theorem

This principle is fundamental to understanding lift generation.

168
Q

What components result from the force acting on an aircraft due to air flow?

A
  • Lift (L)
  • Drag (D)

These forces are critical for flight dynamics.

169
Q

What conditions must be true at the time of take-off?

A

L > W and T > D

Lift must exceed weight and thrust must exceed drag for successful take-off.

170
Q

What forces should balance each other at cruising level?

A
  • Lift (L)
  • Weight (W)
  • Thrust (T)
  • Drag (D)

A stable flight requires equilibrium among these forces.

171
Q

What is the effect of head wind on take-off and landing operations?

A

Favourable

Headwind helps in achieving necessary lift during take-off and improves control during landing.

172
Q

What is the benefit of tail wind at cruising level?

A

Fuel saving

Tailwinds assist in maintaining speed with less fuel consumption.

173
Q

What are wind observations used for in aviation?

A
  • Selection of runways
  • Determination of maximum landing weights

Wind conditions are crucial for safe take-off and landing.

174
Q

What is a head wind?

A

Wind blowing against the direction of aircraft operations

It is favourable for take-off and landing operations.

175
Q

What is a tail wind?

A

Wind blowing in the same direction as that of aircraft operations

It is beneficial at cruising level by way of fuel saving.

176
Q

What are wind observations used for in aviation?

A

Selection of runways and determination of maximum allowable take-off and landing weights.

177
Q

What is the maximum cross wind speed for landing?

A

25 knots (45 Kmph)

Landing is generally not allowed when this limit is exceeded.

178
Q

What is the maximum strong tail wind speed for landing?

A

15 knots (30 Kmph)

Landing is not considered safe beyond this limit.

179
Q

What happens when strong or gusty winds blow across the runway?

A

Landing will be prohibited.

180
Q

How does temperature affect engine performance?

A

High temperature leads to low air density and reduced carrying power.

181
Q

What is the effect of a 2 °C rise in temperature on aircraft load?

A

Offloading of passenger/cargo load by a few hundreds of kilograms.

182
Q

Name a common type of cloud found above 18,000 feet.

A

Cirrus, Cirrocumulus.

183
Q

Name a common type of cloud found between 6,000 - 20,000 feet.

A

Altostratus.

184
Q

What types of clouds are found below 6,000 feet?

A

Stratocumulus, Cumulus, Stratus.

185
Q

List three aviation weather hazards.

A
  • Thunderstorms and Lightning
  • Tornadoes and Cyclones
  • Dust storms.
186
Q

True or False: Wind shear is an aviation weather hazard.

187
Q

Fill in the blank: High temperature requires a _______ runway.

188
Q

What must be done if runway length is insufficient due to high temperature?

A

Take-off weight has to be reduced.

189
Q

What is a significant effect of high temperature on take-off speed?

A

Higher take-off speed is needed.

190
Q

Name two weather conditions that can lead to aircraft icing.

A
  • Precipitation
  • Low temperatures.
191
Q

What is the altitude range for Cumulus clouds?

A

Below 6,000 feet.

192
Q

What type of cloud is characterized by a flat, layered appearance and typically forms below 6,000 feet?

A

Stratus

Stratus clouds are uniform gray in color and can cover the entire sky.

193
Q

What type of cloud is known for its puffy, rounded appearance and can also form below 6,000 feet?

A

Stratocumulus

Stratocumulus clouds often appear in patches and can indicate fair weather.

194
Q

Name three aviation weather hazards.

A
  • Thunderstorms and Lightning
  • Tornadoes and Cyclones
  • Dust storms

Additional hazards include sand storms, wind shear, precipitation, aircraft icing, clear air turbulence, mountain waves, and fog.

195
Q

Fill in the blank: _______ are meteorological phenomena that can significantly impact aviation safety.

A

Aviation weather hazards

These hazards include various severe weather conditions that pilots need to be aware of.

196
Q

What is the height range for clouds classified below 6,000 feet?

A

Below 6,000 feet

This height classification applies to both stratocumulus and stratus clouds.

197
Q

True or False: Aircraft icing is considered a significant aviation weather hazard.

A

True

Aircraft icing can occur in clouds and can severely affect aircraft performance.

198
Q

What natural phenomenon can lead to the formation of lenticular clouds?

A

Airflow

Lenticular clouds are formed when moist air flows over mountains or hills.

199
Q

What are the potential effects of clear air turbulence?

A

Unpredictable turbulence in clear air

Clear air turbulence can occur at high altitudes and is often difficult to detect.

200
Q

Fill in the blank: Fog is classified as a type of _______.

A

Aviation weather hazard

Fog can significantly reduce visibility and impact flight operations.

201
Q

List two types of storms that are considered aviation weather hazards.

A
  • Tornadoes
  • Cyclones

Both tornadoes and cyclones can cause severe turbulence and dangerous conditions for aircraft.

202
Q

What are the basic types of Indian airspace?

A
  1. Controlled Airspace
  2. Non-Controlled Airspace
  3. Designated Airspace within ATS routes
  4. Air Route Segments
  5. Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ)

Controlled airspace is designated for the safety and management of air traffic, while non-controlled airspace allows for more freedom of operation.

203
Q

What is the purpose of the Instrument Flight Procedure Service Provider (IFPOSP)?

A

To ensure compliance with ICAO standards for designing, validating, promulgating, reviewing, and maintaining Instrument Flight Procedures (IFP).

IFPOSPs are responsible for the safety and efficiency of instrument flight procedures across civil airports.

204
Q

What does Class A airspace typically encompass?

A

Airspace from the surface to 4,290 feet above the airport elevation in MSL.

Class A airspace is generally used for high-altitude, high-speed aircraft operations.

205
Q

What is the definition of Vertical Separation in aviation?

A

The minimum vertical distance between aircraft operating at different altitudes.

Vertical separation is crucial for maintaining safe distances between aircraft in controlled airspace.

206
Q

Fill in the blank: The area of airspace over land or water where control of all aircraft is required for national security is called _______.

A

Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ)

This zone is crucial for monitoring and controlling aircraft to protect national interests.

207
Q

True or False: National separation standards are based on the provisions of ICAO Annex 11.

A

True

Annex 11 outlines the standards for air traffic services, including separation standards.

208
Q

What are the types of separation standards that apply to aircraft operating under instrument flight rules?

A
  1. Horizontal Separation
  2. Vertical Separation
  3. Special VFR Flights

Different standards are implemented based on the operational context and aircraft types.

209
Q

What is the classification for airspace that is not under Class A, B, C, or D?

A

Class E

Class E airspace is generally used for controlled airspace that does not fit into the other categories.

210
Q

What is the significance of Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace?

A

It allows for reduced vertical separation between aircraft to increase airspace capacity.

RVSM typically applies between Flight Levels 290 and 410.

211
Q

What type of airspace is generally classified as Class D?

A

Airspace from the surface to 2,300 feet above the airport elevation in MSL.

Class D airspace is typically associated with airports that have an operating control tower.

212
Q

What is the role of the Office of the Director General of Civil Aviation?

A

To oversee the regulatory control and monitoring system requirements for instrument flight procedures in India.

This office ensures that aviation standards are maintained in accordance with international regulations.