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MICR 270 > Module 1 > Flashcards

Module 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what does a microbiome contain

A
  1. mostly micro-organisms beneficial to health
  2. small proportion of MO that can cause disease (pathogens)
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2
Q

pathogens

A

organisms causing disease to its host

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3
Q

immune system

A

organization of cells, tissues and organs within the body that have their own personal role in fighting infection

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4
Q

2 components of the immune system

A
  1. innate (occurs first)
  2. adaptive
    - work together to protect the body
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5
Q

microbes

A

BAD
- immune system tries to keep them out of the body because the human body provides the ideal environment for them

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6
Q

what happens if the IS fails to keep microbes out of the body?

A

the IS must find and destroy them

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7
Q

immune response

A

reaction of immune cells to microbes or danger signals in the body

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8
Q

types of immune response

A
  1. innate
  2. adaptive
    - implicate different types of immune cells
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9
Q

functions of the IS

A
  1. discriminate
  2. eliminate
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10
Q

discriminate

A

recognize self cells from non-self cells

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11
Q

eliminate

A

destroy non-self (pathogen) and altered self-cells (ex. cancer)

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12
Q

dysfunctions of the IS

A
  1. autoimmunity/hypersensitivity
  2. immunodeficiency
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13
Q

autoimmunity/hypersensitivity

A

misdirected or overly reactive IS

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14
Q

immunodeficiency

A

underactive IS (ex. AIDS)

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15
Q

antigen

A

foreign protein that induces an immune response, usually including production of antibodies
- antigens cause you IS to produce antibodies against it

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16
Q

antigen name origin

A

antibody genderation= anti-gen

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17
Q

antibody

A

protein that is produces in response to and counteracting a specific antigen

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18
Q

antibody binding

A

antibodies bind to antigens in the body and provide a signal for their elimination

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19
Q

lymphatic system

A

vital system often considered to be part of the circulatory system
- also has role in immunity

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20
Q

what do immune and lymphatic systems share?

A

lymphoid organs

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21
Q

B-cells and T-cells

A

commonly found in lymph “lymphocytes”
- cells of the adaptive IS

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22
Q

efficient filtering system in the body consists of…

A
  1. lymphatic system
  2. circulatory system
  3. immune system
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23
Q

lymphatic system coordination

A

network of vessels that drain fluid, called LYMPH

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24
Q

lymph

A

colourless fluid containing white blood cells that bathes the tissues and drains through lymphatic system into the bloodstream

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25
Q

interstitial space

A

fluid filled areas that surround the cells of a given tissue

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26
Q

lymph and interstitial space connection

A

lymph is filtered from blood in capillaries and enters surrounding tissues (interstitial space)

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27
Q

circulatory system coordination

A

where lymph comes from and goes after being filtered
- lymph vessels pick up lymph around the body and carry it towards heart to re-enter CS

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28
Q

immune system coordination

A

cells of IS travel between CS and LS

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29
Q

lymphoid organs and tissues

A

immune function

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30
Q

what do lymphoid organs tissues act as sites for?

A
  1. immune cell generation
  2. training
  3. sites of action
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31
Q

bone marrow structure

A
  1. flexible tissue
  2. 2 types: yellow and red marrow
  3. filled with hematopoietic cells
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32
Q

red bone marrow function

A
  1. important for IS
  2. site of hematopoiesis
  3. site of B-cell development
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33
Q

yellow bone marrow function

A
  1. some leukocyte development
  2. produce fat and cartilage
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34
Q

location of bone marrow

A

central cavity inside the bones

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35
Q

hematopoietic cells

A

cells lodges within the bone marrow and which are responsible for producing blood circulating cells (red and white blood cells and platelets)

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36
Q

hematopoiesis

A

formation and differentiation of blood cells
- origin of all immune cells

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37
Q

lymph nodes structure

A
  1. small (1-25mm)
  2. bean-shaped
  3. numerous (~600)
  4. divided into 3 roughly concentric regions (cortex, paracortex and medulla)
  5. filled with lymphocytes, macrophages and dendritic cells
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38
Q

lymph nodes function

A
  1. filters lymph
  2. often it is the first organized lymphoid structure that foreign molecules encounter when first entering the body
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39
Q

lymph nodes location

A

grounded along the lymphatic vessels

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40
Q

lymphocytes

A

white blood cells which arise from lymphoid progenitor lineage during hematopoiesis
- refers to B- and T-cells

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41
Q

MALT

A

mucosal associated lymphoid tissue

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42
Q

MALT structure

A
  1. refers to combined SA of various areas in the body including BALT, GALT, lamina propria of intestinal villi. peyers patch, tonsils, appendix
  2. filled with various types of immune cells depending on location
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43
Q

MALT function

A

initiates immune response to specific antigens encountered along all mucosal surfaces

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44
Q

MALT location

A

mucous membrane lining digestive, respiratory and urogenital systems

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45
Q

BALT

A

bronchus-associates lymphoid tissue

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46
Q

BALT meaning

A

lymphoid structure part of MALT located in lungs and bronchus

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47
Q

GALT

A

gut-associated lymphoid tissue

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48
Q

GALT meaning

A

lymphoid structure part of MALF located in the gut

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49
Q

lamina propria of intestinal villi

A

thin layer of CT rich in immune cells located into the lumen of the small intestine

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50
Q

peyers patch

A

small masses of lymphatic tissue found throughout the ileum region of the small intestine

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51
Q

tonsils

A

collection of lymphoid tissue facing the aerodigestive tract, mainly located into the pharynx

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52
Q

appendix

A

small pouch-like sac of tissues located in first part of the colon (cecum) in lower right abdomen
- harbours bacteria and aids in immune function

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53
Q

spleen structure

A

1, large, ovoid
2. divided into 2 compartments; white and red pulp

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54
Q

function of spleen red pulp compartment

A

filters blood

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55
Q

function of spleen white pulp compartment

A

site of development of immune responses against antigens found in the bloodstream

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56
Q

spleen location

A

situated in the left abdominal cavity

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57
Q

white pulp

A

filled with macrophages, lymphocytes, T-cells, B-cells and red blood cels

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58
Q

what is the most important compartment of the spleen in the context of immunity?

A

the white pulp

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59
Q

red pulp

A

composed of cords of billroth and splenic sinuses that are filled with blood

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60
Q

billroth

A

consists of fibrils and CT cells with a large population of monocytes and macrophages

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61
Q

thymus structure

A
  1. flat
  2. bi-lobed - each lobe is divided into lobules which are organized each into 2 compartments (cortex & medulla)
  3. filled with thymocytes, epithelial cells, DCs and macrophages
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62
Q

function of thymus

A

site of T-cell development and maturation

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63
Q

location of thymus

A

above the heart

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64
Q

thymocytes

A

T-cells found in the thymus

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65
Q

classification on lymphoid organs and tissues

A

classified as either PRIMARY or SECONDARY according to immune function

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66
Q

primary lymphoid organs - tissues/organs

A
  1. thymus
  2. bone marrow
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67
Q

secondary lymphoid organs - tissues/organs

A
  1. spleen
  2. lymph nodes
  3. MALT
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68
Q

functions of primary lymphoid organs

A

site of lymphocyte maturation into an immunocompetent cell
1. B-cell = bone marrow
2. T-cell = thymus

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69
Q

functions of secondary lymphoid organs

A

site of lymphocyte activation into an effector cell
- through interactions with trapped antigens

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70
Q

immunocompetent cell

A

denoting a mature lymphocyte that is capable of recognizing a specific antigen and mediating an immune response

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71
Q

effector cell

A

denoting a mature lymphocyte that has been activated and mediates an immune response against a specific antigen

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72
Q

infection

A

body is attacked by a foreign invader (bacteria or virus)
- usually in the blood (infection stays localized)

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73
Q

process of ridding the invading pathogen

A
  1. B and T-cells react to the specific invader and are more powerful thsn macrophages
  2. body sweeps infection towards nearest lymph node so B and T-cells react
  3. lymph vessel continues to carry filtered fluid back to blood
  4. lymph node filtered blood to rid of bacteria before re-entering blood
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74
Q

2 major roles of the immune system

A
  1. discrimination
  2. elimination
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75
Q

discrimination

A

recognize self cells from non-self cells

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76
Q

major histocompatibility complex class 1 (MCH1)

A

presents a “sample of proteins found inside the cell”
- immune cells are then able scan their area and recognize if there are abnormalities presented via MHC protein

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77
Q

what if there is abnormalities in MHC protein?

A

immune response can be initiated

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78
Q

elimination

A

destroy non-self (pathogen) and altered self cells (ex. cancer)
- occurs through the ability of immune cells to initiate an immune response

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79
Q

MCH II

A

present on special cells of immune system such as macrophages, dendritic cells, and B-cells

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80
Q

innate immune system

A

consists of physical, soluble, and cellular barriers that are scattered throughout the body to prevent entry of infectious agents and respond non-specifically

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81
Q

adaptive immune system

A

consists of cells and soluble components capable of recognizing and responding to specific pathogens
- can be further divided into antibody-mediated humoral immunity (B-cell) and cell-mediated immunity (T-cell)

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82
Q

components of innate immunity

A
  1. first line of defence against foreign agents
  2. physical, soluble, and cellular barriers
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83
Q

functions of innate immunity

A
  1. immediate recognition and response to invading pathogens
  2. recognizes general patterns not specific for any one antigen
    (limits type of immune response initiated)
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84
Q

how fast is the immune response for innate immunity?

A

response occurs within minutes or hours

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85
Q

components of adaptive immunity

A
  1. humoral immunity
  2. cell-mediated immunity
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86
Q

what is humoral immunity mediated by?

A

B-cells

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87
Q

what is cell-mediated immunity mediated by?

A

T-cells

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88
Q

functions of adaptive immunity

A
  1. longer time required to initiate a response to invading pathogens
  2. capable of recognizing and responding to specific antigens (wide range of responses)
  3. results in an immunological memory
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89
Q

how fast in the immune response for adaptive immunity?

A

response occurs within days

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90
Q

immunological memory

A

allows for a quick response upon second infection with the same pathogen

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91
Q

what is the most ancient immune structure?

A

amebocyte

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92
Q

amebocyte

A

mobile cell in the body of invertebrates
- move by pseudopodia
- believed to have given rise to a phagocyte (in human body)

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93
Q

pseudopodia

A

cell membrane protrusions that extend from motile and phagocytosing cells

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94
Q

phagocytosis

A

the ingestion of bacteria or other material by phagocytes and ameboid protozoans

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95
Q

principle of parsimony

A

the explanation requiring the fewest assumptions is most likely to be correct
- with all things being equal the simplest explanation tends to be the right one

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96
Q

evolution of the lymphoid tissue

A

as the immune system evolved from the earliest vertebrates to mammals, the tissues (thymus) were repaired
- new tissue was also developed to assist in immunity (lymph nodes)

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97
Q

evolutionary distribution of lymphoid tissue

A
  1. GALT
  2. bone marrow
  3. thymus/spleen
  4. lymph nodes
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98
Q

GALT - evolution

A

most vertebrates have GALT

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99
Q

bone marrow - evolution

A

not many vertebrates generate lymphocytes in BM
- specifically sharks and rays are earliest example of organisms with B and T-cells

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100
Q

thymus/spleen - evolution

A

most vertebrates have some sort of thymus or spleen

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101
Q

lymph nodes - evolution

A

not all vertebrates have lymph nodes indicating they’re more a recent evolutionary traits

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102
Q

evolution of the innate immune system

A
  1. found in vertebrates, invertebrates and plants
  2. fruit fly is preferred model organism for biological research cause of its well-developed innate immune system
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103
Q

evolution of the adaptive immune system

A
  1. found only in subphylum vertebra which includes all animals with a backbone
  2. only more complex organism within this subphylum have a well-developed adaptive immune system
    ex. B and T-cells are only found in jawed vertebrates, not un-jawed
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104
Q

pregnancy and immunity statistics

A
  1. over 50% DNA is self
  2. under 50% DNA is non-self
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105
Q

flux state of pregnancy and immunity

A

early on in pregnancy there is an activation of the immune system with specific cells (neutrophils, B-cells, etc.) bring recruited to site of implantation

106
Q

what happens if the specific cells involved in flux state of pregnancy are not recruited?

A

there will be no implantation

107
Q

after 12 weeks of pregnancy what happens?

A

the immune system changes and enters a state of immune dampening

108
Q

what happens at the end of pregnancy?

A

immune system changes again and enters another flux where its not as inflammatory as in the beginning

109
Q

where does every immune cell originate from?

A

pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells (HSC) in the fetal live and bone marrow
- occurs via hematopoiesis

110
Q

pluripotent

A

cells capable of giving rise to several different cell types

111
Q

where do B and T-cells reach maturity?

A
  1. B-cells reach maturity in bone marrow
  2. T-cells must travel to thymus to complete development
112
Q

2 lineages of hematopoiesis

A
  1. myeloid
  2. lymphoid
113
Q

hematopoietic stem cells (HSC)

A

where every blood cell arises from

114
Q

blood cell types

A
  1. erythrocytes (red bc)
  2. platelets
  3. leukocytes (white bc)
115
Q

HSC characteristics

A
  1. self-renewal
  2. pluripotent (or multipotent)
116
Q

self-renewal

A

ability to divide itself to replace “older” cells to keep the pool of stem cells constant

117
Q

pluripotent in HSC

A

once a stem cell commits to lineage, it loses it’s ability of self-renewal and becomes a myeloid or lymphoid progenitor cell

118
Q

myeloid progenitor

A

cells that have the ability to differentiate into 4 different groups of myeloid cells
- generates the majority of the cells of innate immune system

119
Q

4 groups of myeloid cells

A
  1. granulocyte
  2. monocyte
  3. erythrocyte (red bc)
  4. thrombocyte (platelete)
120
Q

types of granulocytes

A
  1. neutrophil
  2. eosinophil
  3. basophil
  4. mast cell
121
Q

type of monocyte

A

macrophage

122
Q

dendritic cells (DCs)

A

can arise from either myeloid or lymphoid progenitor cells
- part of both innate and adaptive IS

123
Q

main function of DCs

A

capture and engulf antigens that evaded innate IS and present them to adaptive immune cells (T-cells) allowing an adaptive IR to be initiated

124
Q

what do DCs link?

A

bridge between innate and adaptive IS as they help communication between branches of IS

125
Q

what is the most common subset of DCs?

A

Langerhans DCs

126
Q

Langerhand DCs

A

located under the surface epithelium of the skin in the mucus membrane

127
Q

what were the first cells discovered of the IS?

A

DCs in 1868

128
Q

lymphoid progenitor cells

A

have the ability to differentiate into the 2 major types of cells of the adaptive IS (B-cells and T-cells)
- also has ability to differentiate into NKCs (innate IS)

129
Q

2 major cell types of the adaptive IS?

A

B-cells and T-cells

130
Q

types of B-cells

A
  1. plasmocyte (effector B-cell)
  2. memory B-cell
131
Q

types of T-cells

A
  1. helper T-cells
  2. cytotoxic T-cells
  3. memory T-cells
132
Q

plateletes

A
  1. a central contributor to process of coagulation, wound healing and fibrinolysis
  2. have inflammatory functions that can influence both innate and adaptive IR
133
Q

what do platelets participate in?

A
  1. intervention against microbial threats
  2. recruitment and promotion of innate effector cell functions
  3. modulating antigen presentation
  4. enhancement of adaptive IR
134
Q

monocytes

A

phagocytes located in the blood

135
Q

functions of monocytes

A
  1. travel outside the circulatory system by moving across the blood vessel walls
  2. when they penetrate the tissues, they become macrophages and undergo changes
136
Q

changes a monocyte undergos to become a macrophage

A
  1. cell gets bigger
  2. increase number and complexity of intracellular structures (pseudopodia, phagosome, lysosome)
  3. acquire better phagocytic abilities
137
Q

macrophages

A

phagocytes located in the tissues
“BIG EATERS”
- most efficient phagocytes

138
Q

phagocyte

A

capable of phagocytosis
- ingests and destroys foreign particles, bacteria and cell debris

139
Q

phagosome

A

vacuole in cytoplasm of a cell containing a phagocytosed particle enclosed within a part of the cell membrane

140
Q

lysosome

A

vacuole containing enzymes that digest particles

141
Q

what is a lysosome fused with a phagosome called?

A

phagolysosome

142
Q

mast cell

A

granulocytes located in the tissues with large granules containing histamine and other pharmacologically active substances

143
Q

function of the mast cells

A

role in development of allergens
***similar to basophils

144
Q

granulocytes

A

group of white blood cells characterized by secretory granules in their cytoplasm

145
Q

neutrophils

A

most abundant type of leukocyte in the human body
- process characteristics of both granulocytes and phagocytes

146
Q

granulocyte characteristics of neutrophils

A
  1. have polymorphic nucleus
  2. have granules containing lytic enzymes (peroxidase, lysozyme, etc.) which aid the elimination of infectious agents
147
Q

phagocytic characteristics of neutrophils

A

have the ability to engulf and absorb (kill) bacteria

148
Q

what is the first to arrive at site of inflammation?

A

neutrophils

149
Q

lifespan of neutrophils

A

a few days

150
Q

dead neutrophils

A
  1. opaque yellowish colour
  2. called pus
  3. produced in infected tissue
  4. their sticky DNA forms kind of a net that catches bacteria and cell debris
151
Q

basophils

A
  1. non-phagocytic granulocytes
  2. have the largest granules
  3. the least common type of granulocyte
152
Q

granulocyte characteristics of basophils

A
  1. have a polymorphic nucleus
  2. have granules containing pharmacologically active substances (ex. heparin, histamine)
153
Q

function of basophils

A

role in development of allergens
- susceptibility of staining by basic dyes

154
Q

heparin

A

a compound that inhibits blood coagulation

155
Q

eosinophils

A

phagocytic granulocytes

156
Q

granulocyte characteristics of eosinophils

A
  1. have a polymorphic nucleus
  2. have granules able to damage parasitic membranes
157
Q

phagocytic characteristics of eosinophils

A

phagocytic role is minor in comparison to other phagocytes like neutrophils

158
Q

function of eosinophils

A

role in defence against multicellular parasites like helminths
- susceptibility of staining by an acidic red-colour dye called eosine

159
Q

natural killer cells (NK cells)

A
  1. granular lymphocytes
  2. have granules which contain perforin and granzymes
160
Q

function of NK cells

A
  1. ability to recognize tumour or virus-infected cells despite lacking antigen-specific receptors
  2. distinguish abnormal cells and destroy them
161
Q

natural killer T-cells (NKT cells)

A

share properties of both T-cells and NK cells

162
Q

perforin

A

protein released by cytoplasmic granules. that destroys targeted cells by creating lesions like pores in their membranes

163
Q

granzymes

A

proteases released by cytoplasmic granules that induce programmed cell death in the target cells

164
Q

T-cells (T-lymphocytes)

A
  1. key players of cell-mediated immunity
  2. “T” cells mature in the “T”hymus
  3. non-phagocytic cells that have specific receptors at their cells surface called T-cell receptors (TCR)
165
Q

characteristics of T-cells

A
  1. specificity
  2. diversity
166
Q

specificity of T-cells

A

one T-cell expressed many TCR that recognize the same antigen or epitope

167
Q

diversity of T-cells

A

every T-cell in the body recognizes a different antigen through their TCR specificity

168
Q

T-cell subsets

A
  1. helper T-cells (CD4+ T-cells)
  2. cytotoxic T-cells (CD8+ T-cells)
  3. regulatory T-cells
169
Q

regulatory T-cells

A

play a key role in controlling activation of the IS and prevent development of autoimmune disease

170
Q

helper T-cells (Th cells)

A

specialized T-cells that express CD4 co-stimulatory molecule on their cell surface (called CD4+ T-cells)

171
Q

when do helper T-cells become activated?

A

when T-cells recognize an antigen - MHC class II complex

172
Q

effector cells of helper T-cells

A

when activated, T-cells play a key role in activation of other immune cells such as B-cells, cytotoxic T-cells and macrophages

173
Q

memory cells of helper T-cells

A
  1. generated by activated CD4+ T-cells
  2. recognize the same specific antigen
  3. IF the pathogen reinfects the body, these cells display a quicker and stronger response to eliminate threat
174
Q

MHC class II

A

cell surface proteins essential for adaptive immunity to recognize foreign molecules

175
Q

cytotoxic T-cells (Tc-cells or cytotoxic T-lymphocytes)

A

specialized T-cells that express the CD8 co-stimulatory molecule on their cell surface (called CD8+ T-cells)

176
Q

when do cytotoxic T-cells become activated?

A

when they recognize an antigen-MHC class I complex

177
Q

effector cells of cytotoxic T-cells

A

when activated, cytotoxic T-cells play a key role in monitoring the cells of the body and eliminating any cells that display foreign antigen complexed with MHC class I (virus infected cells)

178
Q

memory cells of cytotoxic T-cells

A
  1. generated by CD8+ T-cells
  2. recognize the same specific antigen
  3. IF the pathogen reinfects the body, these cells display a quicker and stronger response to eliminate threat
179
Q

B-cells (B-lymphocytes)

A
  1. key players of humoral immunity
  2. non-phagocytic cells that have specific receptors at their cell surface called B-cell receptors (BCR)
  3. “B”-cells mature in the “B”one marrow
180
Q

B-cell receptors (BCR)

A

the membrane-bound form of antibodies

181
Q

characteristics of B-cells

A
  1. specificity
  2. diversity
182
Q

specificity of B-cells

A

one B-cell expressed many BCR that recognize the same antigen or epitope

183
Q

diversity of B-cells

A

every B-cell in the body recognizes a different antigen through their BCR specificity

184
Q

epitope

A

part of an antigen that is recognized by the IS, specifically by antibodies, B-cells or T-cells

185
Q

plasmoctyes (plasma cells)

A

the effector form of the activated naive cells

186
Q

function of plasmocytes

A

produce and secrete highly specialized antibodies which have the ability to bind free pathogens or foreign molecules

186
Q

memory cells of plasmocytes

A
  1. generated by the activation of B-cells
  2. recognize the same specific antigen
  3. have membrane-bound antibodies (or BCR) that have the same specificity as the mother cell
  4. IF the pathogen reinfects the body, these cells display a quicker and stronger response to eliminate threat
187
Q

naive cells

A

immunocompetent (mature) cells are considered “naive” until they interact with a foreign antigen for the first time

188
Q

components of the innate IS

A
  1. neutrophils
  2. eosinophils
  3. basophils
  4. monocytes
  5. natural killer cells
  6. mast cells
189
Q

components of the adaptive IS

A
  1. memory B-cell
  2. plasmocyte
  3. helper T-cell
  4. cytotoxic T-cell
  5. memory T-cell
190
Q

components of both the innate and adaptive IS

A
  1. macrophages
  2. dendritic cells
191
Q

1796

A
  1. edward jenner noticed that COWPOX can produce cross-immunity to small pox, through observation that milkmaids were generally immune to smallpox
  2. milkmaids received blisters from milking dairy cows, and the pus protected them from smallpox since these 2 diseases are similar
192
Q

pasteurization

A
  1. invented by louis pasteur
  2. demonstrated that pathogens were responsible for spoiling beverages (beer, wine, milk)
  3. introduced the concept of heat to destroy pathogens
193
Q

vaccination

A

pasteurs frist discovery was with a disease called chicken cholera, where he accidentally exposed chickens to attenuated form of the virus and th chickens became immune to the disease

194
Q

attenuated

A

less pathogenic form

195
Q

complement system

A

tightly regulated network of proteins in the body that has an important role in defence against pathogens and inflammatory response
- “aid” or “complement” killing of bacteria

196
Q

phagocytic theory

A
  1. by elie metchikoff
  2. hypothesized that the basis of inflammation and major defence mechanism against bacterial infection was a cellular reaction where cells are able to move or migrate in order to reach and internalize solid particles within intracellular vesicles
197
Q

father or humoral immunity

A

paul enrich

198
Q

paul enrich

A
  1. introduced concept of transferring blood serum to treat and counteract diphtheria
  2. recognized presence of bactericidal soluble substances in blood, lead to antibodies
199
Q

bactericidal

A

kill bacteria

200
Q

1913 - charles richet

A

charles and paul portier discovered anaphylaxis through studies involving dogs

201
Q

anaphylaxis

A

state of an organism in which it is rendered hypersensitive, instead of being protective no

202
Q

1972 - gerald M. edelman and rodney R. porter

A
  1. chemical structure of antibodies
  2. structure allows us to better understand how IS reacts during infection
203
Q

1987- susumu tonegava

A

determined mechanism by which IS generated an almost limitless variety of antibodies

204
Q

2011 - jules hoffman and bruce beutler

A
  1. toll-like receptors (TLRs)
  2. created a better understanding of the component of innate immunity and their complexity
205
Q

TLR identification

A
  1. first was identified in 1994, but role wss unknown
  2. 1996, TLRs play essential role in fly’s immunity to fungal infection
  3. 1998, discovered lipopolysaccharides (LPS) are ligand for TLR-4
206
Q

lipopolysacharrides (LPS)

A

large molecules found in outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria
- elicit a strong immune response

207
Q

5 major types of infectious agents

A
  1. bacteria
  2. viruses
  3. fungi
  4. protozoa
  5. helminths
208
Q

bacteria

A

unicellular, prokaryotic organisms that have no organized internal membranous structures such as nuclei, mitochondria, or lysosomes

209
Q

genomes of bacteria

A

genomes are circular, double-stranded DNA that do not code for as many proteins as eukaryotic genomes

210
Q

characteristics of cholera

A

acute, diarrheal illness caused by infection of the intestine with bacterium vibro cholerae

211
Q

symptoms of cholera

A
  1. often mild
  2. 1 in 10 infected persons will have severe disease characterized by profuse watery diarrhea, vomiting and leg cramps
212
Q

transmission of cholera

A

contracted by eating or drinking foods contaminated with the bacterium

213
Q

diagnosis of cholera

A

can be diagnosed via a stool sample and rectal swabs

214
Q

treatment of cholera

A

can be life-threatening if not treated properly through rehydration therapy and if needed antibiotic treatment

215
Q

viruses

A
  1. can infect a variety of organisms from fungi and bacteria to plants and animals
  2. are NOT considered organisms because they rely on host cell for metabolism and reproduction
216
Q

what is a virus particle composed of?

A

a viral genome or nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) that is surrounded by a protein coat called a CAPSID
- many viruses that infect animals are surrounded by an outer lipid envelope

217
Q

viral genome

A

may be double-or-single-stranded (dsDNA, ssDNA, dsRNA, ssRNA)

218
Q

characteristics of influenza

A

cause a contagious respiratory illness varying in severity
- 3 main types designated by A, B, and C

219
Q

symptoms of influenza

A
  1. fever
  2. cough
  3. sore throat
  4. headaches
  5. running or stuffy nose
  6. muscle or body aches
220
Q

transmission of influenza

A
  1. types A and B are responsible for seasonal flu epidemics every year
  2. they spread via droplets of saliva from infected people coughing, sneezing or talking
221
Q

diagnosis of influenza

A

can be confirmed by quick lab tests on respiratory specimens

222
Q

treatment of influenza

A
  1. most often treated with simple bed rest or antiviral medication
  2. flu vaccination is a preventative measure that is recommended for everyone over age of 6 months to get annually
223
Q

fungi

A

eukaryotic, heterotrophic organisms that have rigid cellulose or chitin-based cell walls

224
Q

how do fungi primarily reproduce?

A

forming spores
- these spores cause infection on skin or in lungs
- divided into molds and yeasts

225
Q

molds

A

multicellular

226
Q

yeasts

A

unicellular

227
Q

when are people most vulnerable to fungal infections?

A

when their IS is weakened or if they are taking antibiotics

228
Q

characteristics of a vaginal yeast infection (vulvovaginal candidiasis (VVC))

A
  1. occurs with overgrowth of yeast (candida) in the vagina
  2. common as nearly 75% have had it once
229
Q

symptoms of vaginal yeast infection (vulvovaginal candidiasis (VVC))

A

women= genital itching
men= itchy rash on the penis

230
Q

transmission of vaginal yeast infection (vulvovaginal candidiasis (VVC))

A

candida is always present in and on the body in small amounts , but when imbalance in IS occurs, candida can multiply

231
Q

diagnosis of vaginal yeast infection (vulvovaginal candidiasis (VVC))

A
  1. visual examination by a doctor
  2. confirmed via lab testing of cells collected from vaginal walls
232
Q

treatment of vaginal yeast infection (vulvovaginal candidiasis (VVC))

A

antifungal cream, ointment, tablets or suppository

233
Q

protozoa

A
  1. unicellular, heterotrophic eukaryotes
  2. do not have cell walls so they are capable of a variety of rapid and flexible movements
234
Q

example of protozoas

A

amoeba and paramecium

235
Q

characteristics of malaria

A

mosquito-borne disease cause by a protozoan parasite in genus plasmodium

236
Q

symptoms of malaria

A
  1. fever
  2. chills
  3. flu-like illness
    ***if left untreated it could lead to death
237
Q

transmission of malaria

A
  1. when a female anopheles mosquito (the vector) infected with the protozoan parasite bites a human, an infection begins that develops into malaria
  2. comes from travellers from sub-saharan africa and south asia
238
Q

diagnosis of malaria

A

identified in blood by microscopic analysis

239
Q

treatment of malaria

A

can be prevented by taking preventative drugs when travelling

240
Q

helminths

A
  1. parasitic worms
  2. simple invertebrates, some of which are infectious parasites
  3. multicellular and have differentiated tissues
241
Q

why are helminths difficult to treat?

A

because drugs that kill helminths are very toxic to human cells

242
Q

characteristics of schistosomiasis

A

disease caused by parasitic worms or helmints

243
Q

symptoms of schistosomiasis

A
  1. most people show no symptoms during early phase of infection
  2. when adult worms present, they produce eggs that travel to intestine, liver, bladder causing inflammation or scarring
  3. fever
  4. chills
  5. lymphoid organ enlargement
  6. abdominal pain
  7. diarrhea
    ***symptoms caused by body’s reaction to eggs produced by worms, not worms themselves
244
Q

transmission of schistosomiasis

A
  1. parasites are found in some types of freshwater snails
  2. when infectious form of parasite emerges from snail, it infects the water surrounding it
  3. this water affects humans by infecting skin causing disease
245
Q

diagnosis of schistosomiasis

A
  1. stool or urine sample
  2. blood sample can confirm if signs of infection
246
Q

treatment of schistosomiasis

A

short course of a medication called praziquantel which kills worms

247
Q

prions

A
  1. infectious agent consisting of only protein
  2. linked yo degenerative disorders of the CNS
248
Q

protein priors (PrPc)

A

are and function as normal proteins

249
Q

what happens IF protein prions (PrPc) misfold?

A

they are classified as the infectious particles called prions (PrPsc)

250
Q

normal prions vs abnormal prions

A

normal prions: can be degraded
abnormal prions: accumulate in brain tissue as they are resistant to degradation
- this causes rapid degeneration of healthy brain tissue and decline in the brain function

251
Q

simple definition of prions

A

proteins folded incorrectly

252
Q

characteristics of bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)

A
  1. also mad cow disease
  2. fatal neurodegenerative disease of cows due to prions
  3. prions attack the CNS of cows
253
Q

symptoms of bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)

A
  1. nervousness or aggressive behaviour
  2. difficulty with coordination
  3. trouble standing up
  4. reduced milk production
  5. weight loss
    ***symptoms not seen immediately - once present cow declines quickly
254
Q

transmission of bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)

A
  1. originated from food fed to cows that contained sheep products infected with scrape (prion disease in sheep)
  2. humans can become infected with prions by eating contaminated meat
255
Q

diagnosis and treatment of bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)

A

not very much prevalent anymore

256
Q

characteristics of crutzfeldt-jakob disease (CJD)

A

most common prion human disease

257
Q

early symptoms of crutzfeldt-jakob disease (CJD)

A
  1. loss of muscle coordination
  2. impaired memory and decision making
  3. visual disturbances
258
Q

later symptoms of crutzfeldt-jakob disease (CJD)

A
  1. rapidly progressing dementia
    2 involuntary muscle jerks
  2. coma and death
259
Q

transmission of vcrutzfeldt-jakob disease (CJD)

A
  1. exposure to brain tissue or spinal fluid from an infected individual
  2. inheriting mutated prion protein (PRNP) gene (autosomal dominant)
260
Q

diagnosis of crutzfeldt-jakob disease (CJD)

A

ruling out other diseases using EEG, cerebrpospinal fluid-based tests or MRI

261
Q

treatment of crutzfeldt-jakob disease (CJD)

A
  1. no specific treatment
  2. treatments are focused on symptoms, alleviating pain and involuntary movements

MICR 270 (5 decks)

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