Module 1 Flashcards

1
Q

FAR Part 139 is applicable to airports in the US that which passenger operations occur?

A
  1. Scheduled operations by small aircraft designed for more than 9 but less than 31 seats, except for the State of Alaska
  2. Scheduled operations by large aircraft designed for 31 or more seats
  3. Unscheduled operations by large aircraft designed for 31 or more seats
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2
Q

FAR Part 139 is not applicable to the following:

A
  • Heliports
  • Airports operated by the U.S. Government
  • Airports serving scheduled air carrier operations only because they have been designated as an alternate airport
  • Airports located in the State of Alaska that only serve scheduled operations of small air carrier aircraft and do not serve scheduled or unscheduled operations of
    large air carrier aircraft
  • Airports located in the State of Alaska when not serving operations of large air carrier aircraft, unless specified by FAA Headquarters
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3
Q

Which U.S. Government-owned airport is certificated under Part 139?

A

Midway Atoll, Henderson Airfield

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4
Q

How many airport classifications exist?

A

Four

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5
Q

A class I airport can receive which types of air carrier operations?

A

Scheduled large air carrier
Unscheduled large air carrier
Scheduled small air carrier

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6
Q

A class II airport can receive which types of air carrier operations?

A

Unscheduled large air carrier
Scheduled small air carrier

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7
Q

A class III airport can receive which types of air carrier operations?

A

Scheduled small air carrier

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8
Q

A class IV airport can receive which types of air carrier operations?

A

Unscheduled large air carrier

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9
Q

What is a scheduled operation?

A

Any common carriage passenger-carrying operation for compensation or hire conducted by an air carrier for which the air carrier or its representatives offers in advance the departure location, departure time, and arrival location

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10
Q

What is an air carrier?

A

A person who undertakes directly by lease, or other arrangement, to engage in air transportation

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11
Q

What is an unscheduled operation?

A

Any common carriage passenger-carrying operation for compensation or hire, using aircraft designed for at least 31 passenger seats, conducted by an air carrier for which the departure time, departure location, and arrival location are specifically negotiated with the customer or the customer’s representative

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12
Q

What does Part 139.103 describe?

A

The process for the application for an operating certificate

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13
Q

What is FAA Form 5280-1?

A

Application for Airport Operating Certificate

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14
Q

What government agency is authorized to modify the Class Certificate of an airport?

A

The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)

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15
Q

What does Part 139.105 describe?

A

Inspection Authority - the FAA can make regular and unannounced inspections

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16
Q

What factors does the FAA consider to determine the Class for an airport?

A

-Letter of Intent from the air carrier
-Aircraft size, number of passenger seats, and number of operations per day or within a 3-month period
-Aircraft Rescue Fire Fighting (ARFF) requirements for the aircraft and intended operations

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17
Q

What is the purpose for establishing a Class for an airport?

A

To allow the appropriate level of safety regulation to be applied for the type of aircraft operation at the airport and avoid imposing more stringent requirements than necessary

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18
Q

What is FAA Form 5010-1?

A

The Airport Master Record

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19
Q

What is the NFDC?

A

National Flight Data Center

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20
Q

Can an airport without air carrier service be certificated under Part 139?

A

Yes, and placed in “Inactive Status”

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21
Q

How can an Inactive Status airport return to Active Status?

A

The airport must be scheduled to resume air carrier service and undergo a full airport inspection by the FAA

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22
Q

How much notice must be given to the Administrator from an airport in Inactive Status of resumption of air carrier activity?

A

90 days

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23
Q

What is 14 CFR Part 11?

A

General Rulemaking Procedures; A certificate holder may petition for an exemption from any requirement under Part 139

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24
Q

What is the time limit for any Part 139 exemption?

A

Not to exceed 3 years and reviewed annually

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25
Q

Any deviation from Part 139 (emergency conditions) must be notified to the FAA within what time frame?

A

As soon as possible but within 14 days

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26
Q

Which advisory circular describes guidance for ACM development?

A

AC 150/5210-22

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27
Q

Who is legally liable for executing portions of an approved ACM?

A

Any airport person, acting on behalf of a certificate holder

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28
Q

Which advisory circular provides guidance to airports in revising or developing an Airport Certification Manual?

A

AC 150/5210-22, Airport Certification Manual

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29
Q

If the FAA initiates an amendment to the ACM, what is the period of time that the certificate holder may submit any written information on the proposed amendment?

A

Not less than seven days

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30
Q

What must each certificate holder include in the Airport Certification Manual unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator?

A
  • a description of operating procedures
  • facilities and equipment
  • responsibility assignments
  • any other information needed by personnel to comply with applicable provisions of subpart D and paragraph (b) of this section.
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31
Q

When must a certificate holder submit a proposed amendment to its Airport Certification Manual?

A

A certificate holder must submit in writing a proposed amendment to its Airport Certification Manual to the Regional Airports Division Manager at least 30 days before the proposed effective date of the amendment, unless a shorter filing period is allowed by the Regional Airports Division Manager

32
Q

What is the purpose of the FAA’s AC 150/5200-18, Airport Safety Self-Inspection?

A

The FAA’s AC 150/5200-18 guides airport operators in meeting the self-inspection requirements of Part 139. It emphasizes the importance of having an airport safety self-inspection program to monitor specific airport conditions, identify unsatisfactory conditions, and take prompt corrective actions

33
Q

What are the four different types of inspections that may be conducted?

A
  • Regularly scheduled inspection
  • Continuous surveillance inspection
  • Periodic condition inspection
  • Special inspection
34
Q

What advisory circular guides airport operators in meeting the self-inspection requirements of Part 139?

A

AC 150/5200-18, Airport Safety Self-Inspection

35
Q

When are inspections necessary for airports with air carrier operations?

A

Inspections are necessary before the first air carrier operation in the morning. For airports with 24-hour operations, several inspections are usually conducted over a 24-hour period, with either one inspection deemed the inspection of record or the total inspections conducted within that period.

36
Q

What are some examples of deteriorating conditions during FAA inspections?

A
  • Deteriorating pavement which results in FOD
  • Buildup of rubber deposits that obscure runway markings and reduce the friction of wet pavement
  • Faded pavement markings that are not clearly visible
  • Faded wind socks that are difficult to see from the air
  • Potentially hazardous surface variations in safety areas due to erosion
  • Pavement lips developing as a result of settling of soil after projects
  • Potentially hazardous depressions developing at runway thresholds as a result of jet blast
  • Lights and signs becoming dim because of buildup of dirt inside lenses and on bulbs
  • Turf buildup along pavement edges causing standing water problems
  • Farming activity encroaching into the safety areas
  • Mounting stakes for lights exposed over 3 inches due to frost heave
  • Exposed concrete bases around signs and lights due to erosion or frost heave
  • Non-standard marking, lighting or signage installed during construction projects
  • Standing water that appears periodically after rain or melting snow
37
Q

What should inspection personnel do when conducting a runway inspection with time for only one pass?

A

Inspection personnel should drive towards the direction of landing aircraft

38
Q

What is the most effective way to conduct a runway inspection?

A

The most effective way to conduct a runway inspection is to inspect the runway in both directions.

39
Q

What must each certificate holder prepare and maintain regarding inspections?

A

Each certificate holder must prepare and maintain a record of each inspection for at least 12 consecutive calendar months.

40
Q

How long must training records be maintained after the completion of training?

A

Training records must be maintained for 24 consecutive calendar months after completion of training.

41
Q

What physical barriers might airports use to secure the perimeter?

A

-Fences
-Earthen berms
-Large boulders
-Tree trunks
-Manmade culverts

42
Q

What is the responsibility of the Transportation Security Administration (TSA) at airports?

A

The TSA is responsible for the screening of passengers and baggage

43
Q

What responsibilities does airport management have regarding security?

A

Airport management is responsible for controlling access to aircraft and airport facilities, and for reporting and responding to bomb threats, hijackings, and weapons discovered during the screening process.

44
Q

What is Part 1542?

A

Prescribes rules for airport operators who service and facilitate domestic air carriers, foreign air carriers, and both foreign and domestic air cargo carriers.

45
Q

What is the purpose of Part 1542?

A

To prevent any act of unlawful interference with the safety of persons and goods in the air.

46
Q

What is an FAA approved Sign Plan?

A

A detailed graphic of the movement areas of the airport showing every surface marking and installed airfield sign.

47
Q

What is the purpose of an FAA approved Sign Plan?

A

To ensure safety and consistency by accurately representing sign locations, design, and color coding. The plan must be in color.

48
Q

What does VMC stand for (weather)?

A

Visual Meteorological Conditions

49
Q

What is VMC (weather)?

A

Atmospheric conditions that permit pilots to approach, land, or takeoff by visual reference and see and avoid other aircraft.

50
Q

What are the requirements for VMC?

A
  • 3 miles of lateral visibility
  • minimum cloud base height of 1,000 feet Above Ground Level (AGL)
51
Q

What does IMC stand for (weather)?

A

Instrument Meteorological Conditions

52
Q

What is IMC (weather)?

A

Conditions in which pilots cannot see other aircraft, and safe separation must be assured solely by ATC rules and procedures using Instrument Flight Rules (IFR).

53
Q

What is IFR?

A

Occurs when visibility or ceiling heights are less than VMC. Pilots often operate their aircraft using IFR in VMC conditions as an added safety measure (or as required, as in Class A airspace).

54
Q

Navigation under IMC

A

Requires a pilot to rely on aircraft instruments and electronic NAVAIDs.

55
Q

Navigation under VMC

A

Can be done visually, including the approach to landing

56
Q

What are 3 basic weather conditions operation personnel should become familiar with?

A
  • Temperature
  • Atmospheric Pressure
  • Dew point
57
Q

What are two reliable sources of weather information?

A
  • Airport Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)
  • Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)
58
Q

Terminal controllers often advise pilots of hazardous weather conditions within how many miles of the controller’s assigned jurisdiction?

59
Q

What does a Meteorological Aerodrome Report (METAR) include?

A
  • Airport Identifier
  • Time of observation
  • Wind
  • Visibility
  • Runway Visual Range (RVR)
  • Present weather phenomena
  • Sky conditions
  • Temperature
  • Dew point
  • Altimeter setting
60
Q

What is an Automated Terminal Information Service (ATIS)?

A

A continuous broadcast of recorded information in selected terminal areas

61
Q

What are two types of automated weather observing systems?

A
  • Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS)
  • Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS)
62
Q

What is Airport Weather Warning (AWW)?

A

Addresses weather phenomena that can adversely impact airport ground operations (strong winds, freezing rain, snow, lightening)

63
Q

What are two weather phenomenon that affect aircraft operations?

A
  • Wake vortices
  • Wind shear
64
Q

What are wake vortices?

A

Aerodynamic disturbance that originates at the wingtips, flaps, and landing gear of an aircraft that trails behind in a corkscrew, turbulent fashion

65
Q

What is a normal air traffic separation separation interval for wake vortices?

A

One-minute departure intervals

66
Q

What is wind shear?

A

A rapid change in wind velocity or direction

67
Q

What system was developed to combat wind shear?

A

Low Level Windshear Alert System (LLWAS)

68
Q

What is Integrated Terminal Weather System (ITWS)?

A

An air traffic management tool that provides highly accurate, graphical weather information and hazard alerts on a single, integrated color display

69
Q

What is Weather Support to Deicing Decision Making (WSDDM)?

A

Provides 30-minute forecast of precipitation intensity and movement, current precipitation type, temperature, wind conditions and forecast of liquid equivalent snowfall rate

70
Q

What is Terminal Doppler Weather Radar (TDWR)?

A

A doppler weather radar system used primarily for the detection of hazardous windshear conditions, precipitation, and winds aloft on and near major airports

71
Q

What is Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS)?

A

A system of guidance, control, and regulation of aircraft, ground vehicles, and personnel on the movement areas during low visibility conditions

72
Q

When are SMGCS plans required?

A

Required at airports where scheduled air carrier are authorized to conduct operations when visibility is less than 1,200 feet Runway Visual Range (RVR)

73
Q

What is the time limit for IROPS?

73
Q

Which rule established a hard time limit after which US airlines must allow passengers to deplane from domestic flights?

A

Tarmac Delay Plan (IROPS)

74
Q

How often are airports required to submit updated Tarmac Delay Plans?

75
Q

What are four terms used when discussing airfield capacity and delay?

A
  • Operation
  • Delay
  • Throughput Capacity
  • Practical Capacity
76
Q

What are two critical Capacity Determinants?

A
  • Runway configuration
  • Runway Occupancy Time (ROT)