Module 1 Flashcards
-Sectional nephrolithotomy is performed because of coronary artery disease. To reduce blood loss it is
shown:
Administration of epsilon-aminocaproic acid in the pre-vein
-A 26-year-old G3P0030 has had three consecutive spontaneous abortions in the first trimester. As part
of an evaluation for this problem, which of the following tests is most appropriate in the evaluation of
this patient?
Chromosomal analysis of the couple
-A 61-year-old man with a history of stone disease and multiple bilateral ureterolithotomies is seen with
a fever of 103◦F, pyuria and microheamaturia. An IVP reveals a 6-mm right mid-ureteral calculus with
delayed function of the right kidney and marked obstruction. In addition to beginning parenteral
antibiotics, the most reasonable immediate management option is:
placement of a ureteral stent to bypass the obstruction
-A 19-year-old G1P0 presents to the obstetrician’s office for a routine OB visit at 34 weeks gestation. Her
pregnancy has been complicated by gestational diabetes requiring insulin for control. She has been
noncompliant with diet and insulin therapy. She has had two prior normal ultrasounds at 20 and 28
weeks gestation. She has no other significant past medical or surgical history. During the visit, the fundal
height measures 38 cm. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the discrepancy
between the fundal height and the gestational age?
Polyhydramnios
-diagnosis of kidney aplasia is based on:
Angiography
-A 38-year-old G6P4 is brought to the hospital by ambulance for vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks. She
undergoes an emergency cesarean delivery for fetal bradycardia under general anesthesia. In the
recovery room 4 h after her surgery the patient develops respiratory distress and tachycardia. Lung
exam reveals rhonchi and rales in the right lower lobe. Oxygen therapy is initiated and chest x-ray is
ordered. Which of the following is most likely to have contributed to her condition?
Extubation with the patient in the semierect position (semi-Fowler’s)
-Your patient had an ultrasound examination today at 39 weeks gestation for size less than dates. The
ultrasound showed oligohydramnios with an amniotic fluid index of 1.5 centimeters. The patient’s cervix
is unfavorable. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Admit her to the hospital for cervical ripening then induction of labor
-the patient is 16 years old, has congenital phimosis. What can be suitable for him:
Circumcision
-A 39-year-old wants first-trimester prenatal diagnosis. Which of the following is an advantage of
amniocentesis over CVS?
CVS has a higher complication rate than midtrimester amniocentesis
-A 36-year-old obese woman with known PCOS presents to your infertility practice. She was diagnosed
with PCOS at the age of 24 years, at which time she reports having had a battery of tests done. She has
been followed by her general gynecologist who has maintained her on oral contraceptive pills since that
time. She reports she is otherwise healthy. She now desires to get pregnant and is coming to you for
advice. What is one of the most important tests to perform at this time?
2-hour oral glucose tolerance test
-You are following a 38-year-old G2P1 at 39 weeks in labor. She has had one prior vaginal delivery of a
3800-g infant. One week ago, the estimated fetal weight was 3200 g by ultrasound. Over the past 3 h
her cervical exam remains unchanged at 6 cm. Fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. An intrauterine
pressure catheter reveals two contractions in 10 min with an amplitude of 40 mmHg each. Which of the
following is the best management for this patient?
Administration of oxytocin
-You are a world-renowned reproductive endocrinologist and are asked to make a diagnosis for a patient
who has ambiguous genitalia. Here are the data: Karyotype XY Spermatogenesis Absent Müllerian
structures Absent Wolffi an structures Present External genitalia Male hypospadias Breast Gynecomastia
The diagnosis is:
Reifenstein syndrome
-A mother brings her 18-year-old daughter in to see you because she has not started to develop breasts
and has not had a period. You diagnose delayed puberty. Which one of the following statements is true?
Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism affects approximately 50% of patients presenting with delayed
puberty
-A 15-year-old girl, gravida 0, para 0, presents with a history of severe midline lower abdominal pain
associated with her periods since the age of 12 years. Vaginal examination is not performed because the
patient is still virginal. An abdominal ultrasound reveals normal pelvic anatomy. The patient’s mother
and two older sisters have a history of endometriosis. She has tried NSAIDs and oral contraceptive pills
to control her pain but neither has helped. What is the next step in your management?
Diagnostic laparoscopy
-An 8-year-old girl is brought to your office by her mother because of occasionally bloody vaginal
discharge. Her mother suspects sexual abuse because she does not “know of any other reason why a
little girl should be bleeding from her vagina.” She has no other medical history except for a throat
infection a few weeks ago, which was treated with penicillin. On physical examination, she has
enlargement of both breasts and enlarged areolae. There is no axillary hair growth. No pubic hair is
apparent. The external genitalia have an age-appropriate clitoris and normal labia minora. There are no
bruises, hematomas, or lacerations. You take a culture of the vaginal discharge, which is pink to red
colored and not foul smelling. You are not able to perform a more thorough examination. The most
likely cause of her vaginal bleeding is:
Bacterial infection
-the peak of occurrence of urolithiasis coincide with:
Max Temp
-A 30-year-old G2P0 at 39 weeks is admitted in active labor with spontaneous rupture of membranes
occurring 2 h prior to admission. The patient noted clear fluid at the time. On exam her cervix is 4 cm
dilated and completely effaced. The fetal head is at 0 station and the fetal heart rate tracing is reactive.
Two hours later on repeat exam her cervix is 5 cm dilated and the fetal head is at +1 station. Early
decelerations are noted on the fetal heart rate tracing. Which of the following is the best next step in
her labor management?
Initiate Pitocin augmentation
-You are delivering a 33-year-old G3P2 and encounter a shoulder dystocia. After performing the
appropriate maneuvers, the baby finally delivers, and the pediatricians attending the delivery note that
the right arm is hanging limply to the baby’s side with the forearm extended and internally rotated.
Which of the following is the baby’s most likely diagnosis?
Erb palsy
A 30-year-old woman presents to your office with an ultrasound report stating she has “polycystic
appearing ovaries.” She has a friend who has PCOS and is currently having trouble conceiving and wants
to know what this means for her. You tell her that she may have PCOS if she also
Is hirsute
-You performed a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery on a 20-year-old G1 at 40 weeks for maternal
exhaustion. The patient had pushed for 3 hours with an epidural for pain management. A second-degree
episiotomy was cut to facilitate delivery. Eight hours after delivery, you are called to see the patient
because she is unable to void and complains of severe pain. On examination you note a large fluctuant
purple mass inside the vagina. What is the best management for this patient?
. Incision and evacuation of the hematoma
-A pediatrician asks you to consult on a case of a baby that was born with because they are not able to
assign a gender. There is a significant degree of clitoral enlargement and labial folds are
uncharacteristically large and partially fused. You recommend:
C Serum sodium level
-An 11-year-old girl presents with a 1.5-month history of a persistent white colored vaginal discharge
that is watery and odorless. There is no associated pain or pruritis. Examination reveals Tanner stage III
breasts and stage II pubic hair. Wet mount is negative for clue cells and yeast. Please select the most
appropriate management:
Observation
-A 65-year-old man has continuous urinary dribbling following a trans-urethral resection of the prostate
for benign hyperplasia. Possible explanations include:
all of the above
-A 24-year-old woman is in a car accident and is taken to an emergency room, where she receives a
chest x-ray and a film of her lower spine. It is later discovered that she is 10 weeks pregnant. Which of
the following is the most appropriate statement to make to the patient?
The fetus has received less than the assumed threshold for radiation damage
-A man of 60 is investigated for symptoms of bladder outlet obstruction and the diagnosis is made of
moderate benign prostatic hypertrophy leading to an obstructed urinary flow and incomplete bladder
emptying. It is decided to treat him conservatively with medication. He is on no other medication and is
otherwise fit. Appropriate drugs would include:
all of the above
-Diagnosis of Urethritis is based on all except:
Blood clinical analysis and prostate secretion analysis
-The most common location of the urethral hole during hipospady is
On the ventral surface of the penis
-The most common histological type of testicular, genital cancer is:
Seminoma
-. A healthy 34-year-old G1P0 patient comes to see you in your office for a routine OB visit at 12 weeks
gestational age. She tells you that she has stopped taking her prenatal vitamins with iron supplements
because they make her sick and she has trouble remembering to take a pill every day. A review of her
prenatal labs reveals that her hematocrit is 39%. Which of the following statements is the best way to
counsel this patient?
Tell the patient that she needs to take the iron supplements even though she is not anemic in order to
meet the demands of pregnancy
-the patient is 40 years old, has a solitary cyst of the middle segment of the kidney 7X8X8 cm without
any signs of urodynamic disturbance and inflammation. It is more advisable..?
percutaneous puncture of the cyst, aspiration and insertion of a sclerosing solution into the cavity of the
cyst
in men with benign prostatic hyperplasia, the symptoms which correlate most with obstruction are all
the following except:
Urgency
- A 28-year-old women with PCOS and her husband present to your infertility clinic for consultation. She
stopped taking her oral contraceptive pills 6 months ago and has not had a period since. She is morbidly
obese and her past medical history is significant for sleep apnea and diabetes. She and her husband
want get pregnant and ask for your help. What would be your first recommendation to increase their
chances of conception at this time?
Weight loss program
-A 28-year-old G1P0 presents to your office at 18 weeks gestational age for an unscheduled visit
secondary to right-sided groin pain. She describes the pain as sharp and occurring with movement and
exercise. She denies any change in urinary or bowel habits. She also denies any fever or chills. The
application of a heating pad helps alleviate the discomfort. As her obstetrician, what should you tell this
patient is the most likely etiology of this pain?
Round ligament pain
-While acute cystitis, which type of examination is shown:
Cystoscopy (in most cases)
-A 26-year-old woman presents complaining of intermenstrual spotting over the last 3 months,
accompanied by minimal flow during her menses. She has been taking the same low-dose combined oral
contraceptive faithfully for the last 5 years. Her physical examination is unremarkable. The most
probable explanation for her symptoms is:
Progesterone breakthrough bleeding
-the torsion of the testis is characterized by:
Sudden onset of the disease, with rapidly increasing scrotal oedema, pronounced pain syndrome, scrotal
hyperthermia
-32-year-old female, gravida 1, para 1, presents with worsening pelvic pain with her period. She reports
that her previous providers told her she likely has endometriosis based upon a longstanding history of
dysmenorrhea but lately her pain is worse. She also complains of left-sided pain with intercourse and
when she is jogging. She is sexually active with a single partner and uses condoms for birth control. She
has had no prior surgeries and no other medical problems. On physical examination she is afebrile, has a
nontender abdomen but on pelvic examination, has an enlarged left adnexal mass that is approximately
5 cm and is mildly tender to palpation. The next appropriate step is:
Obtain a pelvic ultrasound to evaluate the pelvis
- During the follicular phase, hormone X provides negative feedback and suppresses FSH expression
from the pituitary. Hormone Y is responsible for stimulation of the LH surge. Hormone Z is responsible
for the conversion of primary oocytes to secondary oocytes.
Hormones X and Y are the same
-A 23-year-old G1 at 40 weeks gestation presents to the hospital with the complaint of contractions. She
states they are occurring every 4 to 8 minutes and each lasts approximately 1 minute. She reports good
fetal movement and denies any leakage of fluid or vaginal bleeding. The nurse places an external
tocometer and fetal monitor and reports that the patient is having contractions every 2 to 10 minutes.
The nurse states that the contractions are mild to palpation. On examination the cervix is 2 cm dilated,
50% effaced, and the vertex is at −1 station. The patient had the same cervical examination in your
office last week. The fetal heart rate tracing is 140 beats per minute with accelerations and no
decelerations. Which of the following stages of labor is this patient in?
False labor
-a 15-year-old female is brought to your office complaining of severe dysmenorrhea that has become
progressively worse since the onset of menses. Menarche occurred at age 13. The pain is located
predominantly on the right side, lasts for the duration of the menstrual fl ow, and at its worst is
associated with nausea and vomiting. She has had to miss school with every menstrual period for the
past year. She has tried nonsteroidal medications, which initially helped but no longer relieve the pain
significantly. The next step in management is:
Obtain a pelvic ultrasound
- A 41-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks, who has been completely dilated and pushing for 3 hours, has an
epidural in place and remains undelivered. She is exhausted and crying and tells you that she can no
longer push. Her temperature is 38.3°C (101°F). The fetal heart rate is in the 190s with decreased
variability. The patient’s membranes have been ruptured for over 24 hours, and she has been receiving
intravenous penicillin for a history of colonization with group B streptococcus bacteria. The patient’s
cervix is completely dilated and effaced and the fetal head is in the direct OA position and is visible at
the introitus between pushes. Extensive caput is noted, but the fetal bones are at the +3 station. Which
of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Attempt operative delivery with forceps
-the paradoxal ishuria is:
Combination of urinary retention with involuntary urinary incontinence
-Urethral stricture may develop in men as a consequence of
All of the above
-In which age is urolithiasis most common?
20-40
-A 38-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 3, undergoes a laparoscopy and bilateral tubal ligation. During
her laparoscopy, you find incidentally that she has endometriotic lesions on her uterosacral ligaments
and the peritoneum overlying her bladder. She is not consented for fulguration of her endometriosis;
therefore, you only perform her tubal ligation. She comes to your office for her postoperative visit. She
has no symptoms from her endometriosis. Your next step in her management is:
Expectant management
-A 23-year-old G1 at 38 weeks gestation presents in active labor at 6 cm dilated with ruptured
membranes. On cervical examination the fetal nose, eyes, and lips can be palpated. The fetal heart rate
tracing is 140 beats per minute with accelerations and no decelerations. The patient’s pelvis is adequate.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Allow spontaneous labor with vaginal delivery
-anterior and medial to the left kidney
Pancreas
-after a caesarean section, a 30-year-old woman underwent lower-third ureteral occlusion at 5 cm in
length. percutaneous nephrostomy was performed. Hereafter the optimal treatment is
Nephrectomy