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NUR 114 > Module 1 > Flashcards

Module 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Physical assessment findings for Crohn’s disease:

A

• Fever
• Diarrhea (Five loose stools, a day with mucus/pus)
• Distention 
• High pitched bowel sounds
• Steatorrhea

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2
Q

What disease has abdominal pain/cramping: often RLQ pain and Anorexia/ weight loss?

A

Crohn’s Disease

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3
Q

True or false hematocrit and hemoglobin are decreased in Crohn’s disease? 

A

True

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4
Q

List the diagnostic tests that can diagnose, ulcerative colitis:

A

• Sigmoidoscopy
• Colonoscopy
• Barium enema
• CT/MRI 
• Stool sample

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5
Q

Assessment findings for ulcerative colitis:

A

• Fever
• 15 to 20 liquid stools/day
• Mucus, Blood, or Pus in stools
• Distended abdomen
• High pitched bowel sounds
• Rectal bleeding

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6
Q

Name diseases that require yearly colonoscopies due to increased risk of cancer:

A

Ulcerative colitis & Crohn’s disease

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7
Q

Sulfasalazine is used to treat?

A

Crohn’s & Ulcerative colitis

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8
Q

Acute onset of LLQ pain, nausea/vomiting, fever, chills, tachycardia, and distention are manifestations of what disease?

A

Diverticulitis

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9
Q

A capsule endoscopy can be used to diagnose which IBD?

A

Crohn’s

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10
Q

Which IBD manifest with ulceration/inflammation of the sigmoid colon and rectum?

A

Ulcerative Cholitis

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11
Q

What is the treatment plan for treating severe diverticulitis?

A

•Make patient NPO
•Place an NG tube on suction
•IV fluids/ABX
•Opioids

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12
Q

What electrolyte needs to be closely, monitored and replaced with Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease?

A

Potassium

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13
Q

List the different classes of drugs that can be used to treat ulcerative colitis, and Crohn’s:

A

• Sulfonamides
•Non-Sulfonamides
• Corticosteroids
• Immuno suppressants
• Immunomodulators
• Antidiarrheals
• Antimicrobials

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14
Q

Therapeutically treated with a colectomy or possible ileostomy?

A

Ulcerative colitis

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15
Q

This is a life-threatening inflammation of the peritoneum, in the lining of the abdominal cavity:

A

Peritonitis

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16
Q

What occurs due to the destruction of the bowel wall leading to an infection generally caused after surgery and procedures and the G.I.?

A

Abscess / Fistula formation

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17
Q

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who has an acute exacerbation of Crohn’s deep seas, which of the following blood laboratory results. Should the nurse expect to be Elavated? SATA

A

•Hematocrit
• ESR(Erythrocyte sedimentation rate)*
• WBC*
• Folic acid
• Albumin

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18
Q

Name the condition that results from a massive dilation of the colon with perforation and the surgical procedure required?

A

Toxic Mega colon, Ileostomy

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19
Q

A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking prednisone falling in exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease. The nurse should recognize which of the following findings as the priority?

A

• Client reports difficulty sleeping
• The clients urine is positive for glucose
• The client reports having elevated body temperature*
• The client reports gaining 4lbs in the last 6 months

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20
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A

• Take the medication 2hrs after eating
• Discontinue this medication if your skin turns yellow-orange
• Notify the provider if you experience a sore throat*
•Expect your stools to turn black

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21
Q

A nurse is completing discharge teaching with a client who has Crohn’s disease which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A

• Decrease intake of calorie-dense foods
•Drink, canned protein, supplements *
•Increase intake of high-fiber foods
•Eat high-residue foods

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22
Q

A nurse in the clinic is teaching a client who has ulcerative colitis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A

• I will plan to limit fiber in my diet*
• I will restrict fluid intake during meals
• I will switch to black tea instead of drinking coffee
• I will try to eat cold foods, rather than warm when my stomach feels upset

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23
Q

Inflammation of the gall bladder wall

A

Cholecystitis

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24
Q

Stones in the gallbladder

A

Cholelithiasis

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25
Q

Yellowing greenish tent to the skin or sclera

A

Icterus

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26
Q

For mild gallbladder pain want pain medication would you use?

A

Ketorolac

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27
Q

The shockwave method is used to break up small stones and nonsurgical candidates.

A

Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy

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28
Q

For interest operative complications during a Coley cystectomy this can be placed in the common bile duct to drain.

A

T-tube

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29
Q

Scan that assesses the patency of the biliary duct system after an IV injection of contrast. 

A

HIDA scan

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30
Q

Patient presents with RUQ pain radiating to the right shoulder, belching, rebound tenderness, tachycardia. What is the patient’s condition? 

A

Gallbladder

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31
Q

An acute or chronic disease that can cause pancreatitis?

A

Cholecystitis

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32
Q

Female with a history of diabetes mellitus, estrogen, therapy, obesity, and of Native American descent is more likely to have what condition?

A

Cholecystitis or Cholelithiasis

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33
Q

A nurse is providing discharge, teaching to a client who is postoperative following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? SATA

A

• Take a bath rather than a shower
• Resume a diet of choice *
• Cleanse the puncture site using mild soap and water *
• Remove adhesive strips from the puncture site in 24 hours
• Report nausea and vomiting to the surgeon*

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34
Q

A nurse is reviewing risk factors with a client who has cholecystitis the nurse should identify Which of the following as a risk factor for cholecystitis?

A

• Obesity*
• Rapid wt gain
• Decreased blood triglyceride level
• Male sex

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35
Q

A nurse is completing preoperative, teaching for a client who is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, which of the following should be Included in the teaching?

A

• The scope will be passed through your rectum
• You might have shoulder pain after surgery*
• You will have a Jackson-Pratt dream place after surgery
• You should limit how often you walk for 1 to 2 weeks

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36
Q

A nurse is reviewing a new prescription for Chenodiol With a client who has cholelithiasis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A

• This medication is used to decrease acute biliary pain
• This medication requires thyroid function monitoring every 6 months
• This medication is not recommended for clients who have diabetes mellitus
• This medication dissolves call stones gradually over up to 2yrs*

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37
Q

A nurse in a clinic is reviewing the laboratory reports of a client who has suspected cholelithiasis. Which of the following is an expected finding?

A

• Blood amylase 80 units/ Liter
• WBC 9000/mm^3
• Direct Bilirubin 2.1 mg/dl*
•Alkaline phosphate 25 units/Liter

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38
Q

This occurs when the pancreas starts to use its digestive enzymes before they reach the intestines.

A

Pancreatitis

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39
Q

List the enzymes that assist with digestion in the pancreas:

A

• Lipase(fat)
• Amylase(carb)
•Trypsin(protein)

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40
Q

What is the target range for Annalise?

A

100-300

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41
Q

Target range for Bicarbonate?

A

19-25
What does Bicarbonate do in the body? Maintain healthy pH levels.

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42
Q

Left upper quadrant, pain, mid epigastric, pain, and or pain, radiating to the back that is sharp like a knife, severe in nature, and constant or signs of what disorder?

A

Pancreatitis

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43
Q

This is often associated with cholelithiasis, auto immune, pancreatitis, idiopathic pancreatitis, Or hereditary pancreatitis. This is associated with alcohol use in a constant calcifying of the pancreas:

A

Chronic Progressive Pancreatitis

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44
Q

List expected findings for pancreatitis:

A

• Fetal positioning
• N/V
• Hypocalcemia
• Ascites
• Paralytic ileus

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45
Q

List metabolic risk factors of pancreatitis:

A

• Hyperlipidemia
• Hypercalcemia
• Hyperparathyroidism

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46
Q

Another medical term for Ecchymosis of the flank

A

Grey Turners Spots

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47
Q

Laboratory findings for someone with pancreatitis

A

Increase in blood amylase and lipase, Increase in bilirubin, increased glucose, increased WBC, Decreased platelets, decreased calcium and magnesium

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48
Q

Breakdown of the pancreas causes the girl to be

A

Soapy

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49
Q

Another term for Periumbilical discoloration

A

Cullins sign

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50
Q

What is the best Diagnostic test for Pancreatitis?

A

CT w/Contrast

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51
Q

List complications of acute pancreatitis:

A

• Pseudocyst
• Abscess

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52
Q

List a ppi and it’s action

A

Omeprazole-Decreases gastric acid secretions

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53
Q

List, an H2 receptor antagonist and its action

A

Cimetidine- Decreases gastric excretions

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54
Q

List an antibiotic that is common for pancreatitis

A

Imipenem

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55
Q

What is a therapeutic treatment that is used if pancreatitis is caused by a gallstone?

A

An ERCP is Done to create an opening in the sphincter of Oddi.

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56
Q

A complication of hypovolemia

A

3rd spacing Up to 6 L of fluid can be lost in the retroperitoneal space

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57
Q

List complications of older adults that can cause pneumonia with pancreatitis:

A

Left lung effusion and atelectasis

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58
Q

A nurse is reviewing the admission laboratory results of a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A

• Decreased blood lipase level
• Decrease blood amylase level
• Increased blood calcium level
• Increased blood glucose level*

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59
Q

A nurse is preparing to administer pancrelipase to a client who has pancreatitis. Which of the following action should the nurse take?

A

• Instruct the client to chew the medication before swallowing
• Offer a glass of water following medication administration*
• Administer the medication 30 minutes before meals
• Sprinkle the continents on peanut butter glass of water

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60
Q

A nurse is completing an admission assessment of a client who has pancreatitis which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A

• Pain in RUQ radiating to right shoulder
• Report of pain being worse when sitting upright
• Pain relieved with defecating
• Epigastric pain radiating to the left shoulder*

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61
Q

A nurse is assessing a client who has pancreatitis which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of pancreatitis?

A

• Generalized cyanosis
• Hyperactive bowel sounds
• Gray blue discoloration of the skin around the umbilicus*
• Wheezing in the lower lung fields see

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62
Q

A nurse is completing nutrition, teaching for a client who has pancreatitis, which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? SATA

A

• I plan to eat small, frequent meals
• I will eat easy to digest foods with limited spice*
• I will use skim milk when cooking*
• I plan to drink regular Cola
• I will limit alcohol intake to 2 drinks per day

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63
Q

Three types of ulcers

A

Gastric, duodenal, esophageal

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64
Q

What is the types of stress ulcers?

A

Curling’s ulcers with your caused from severe burns
Cushing’s ulcers which are caused by head injuries

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65
Q

Common causes of PUD in kids

A

Alcohol, smoking, NSAIDs, H. pylori, and anxiety or stress

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66
Q

Adult knowing mid epigastric pain that occurs after eating or clinical characteristics of:

A

Gastric ulcers

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67
Q

This bacteria grows in the stomach and converts urea to carbon dioxide

A

H. pylori

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68
Q

List, noninvasive and invasive test for PUD

A

Breath urea test, Stool, antigen, serological, endoscopy, and biopsy

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69
Q

This test can be done after the insertion of an NG tube to test HCL acid

A

Gastric analysis

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70
Q

This test is used for patients that cannot undergo endoscopy and can diagnose gastric outlet obstruction

A

Barium contrast study

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71
Q

This blood test assesses for anemia

A

CBC or white blood count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit

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72
Q

This blood test can determine the pancreatic function win duodenal ulcer penetration of the pancreas is suspected

A

Serum amylase

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73
Q

What would be the plan of care for patient with PUD?

A

Stop the use of aspirin/NSAIDs for 4 to 6 weeks, smoking, cessation, dietary modification. Inform the patient it could take 3 to 6 days for the pain to subside, complete healing to take 3 to 9 weeks, follow up treatment in 3 to 6 months.

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74
Q

List drug therapy for H. Pylori

A

Antibiotics such as Amoxicillin and Clarithromycin, Proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole, And bismuth salts such as Pepto-Bismol

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75
Q

Describe Carafate

A

It’s a cytoprotective drug, it creates a sucrose barrier, needs to be taken one hour before a meal on an empty stomach, It is a short term treatment for ulcers

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76
Q

This synthetic prostaglandin is specifically used to prevent ulcers in the stomach due to NSAIDS.

A

Misoprostol
*Cannot be given to pregnant patients

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77
Q

This medication is used in chronic ulcer patients. I have persistent pain and an over secretion of stomach acid.

A

Tricyclic antidepressants

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78
Q

Six small meals a day are recommended during the symptomatic phase of what disorder

A

PUD

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79
Q

Which type of ulcer accounts for a greater percentage of upper G.I. bleeds

A

Duodenal

80
Q

What is the most common complication of PUD?

A

Hemorrhage

81
Q

At what point would a physician order for patient to be transfused?

A

Hemoglobin 8 or below

82
Q

What is the most lethal complication of PUD?

A

Perforation

83
Q

Complications of PUD perforation

A

Bacterial peritonitis, which can occur within 6 to 12 hours

84
Q

A patient is predisposed to a gastric outlet obstruction, when ulcers occur in what locations:

A

The antrum of the stomach, the pre pylorus and the pylorus, as well as the duodenum

85
Q

Signs and symptoms of patient may have an obstruction

A

N/V, Epigastric, fullness, constipation, weight loss for anorexia, and relief is felt when belching or vomiting.

86
Q

List treatments for gastric outlet obstruction

A

Continuous section NG allowing for the stomach to heal and regain muscle tone, IV. Fluids, checking residual on your NG, endoscopy with possible balloon, dilation.

87
Q

What is a BilRoth 1?

A

Removing the antrum and sewing the stomach to the duodenum

88
Q

What is the BilRoth 2? And risk?

A

Removal of the Antrum, and sewing the stomach to the jejunum- Short gut syndrome

89
Q

What procedure can be done to reduce gastric acid production in the stomach it is highly selective It is followed with what procedure to aid in emptying gastric contents

A

Vagotomy- Pyloroplasty

90
Q

How fast can dumping syndrome occur after eating

A

15-30 min

91
Q

To avoid dumping syndrome what is recommended with meals

A

To avoid drinking fluids, smaller meals, and to lying down for 30 minutes after

92
Q

Name a rare tumor, causing condition caused by hyper suppression of acid, Tell me about the condition.

A

ZES-Tumor occurs in the gastric triangle which consist of the pancreas, duodenum and stomach because of its location. These tumors are known to wrap around the aorta.

93
Q

Patience on total parenteral, nutrition are at risk for what gallbladder conditions

A

Cholecystitis
Cholelithiasis

94
Q

When the gallbladder is inflamed with no stone

A

Acalculous

95
Q

When the gallbladder is inflamed with stones

A

Calculi

96
Q

What percentage of patients are fine after conservative treatment for gallbladder issues

A

80%

97
Q

Is it indicated for contraindicated for morphine to be used for gallbladder pain? Explain.

A

It is not recommended to use morphine in Cholelithiasis patients. It can cause contractions in the sphincter of Oddi.

98
Q

Client scheduled for a cholecystectomy ask the nurse how a person can live without a gallbladder. What is the most appropriate response?

A

• You will be prescribed by a replacement therapy
• You will have to permanently eliminate fat from your diet
• Try not to worry the gallbladder does not have a vital bodily function
• The bile produced by the liver will be directly deposited into the small intestine. *

99
Q

Client is admitted to the post anesthesia recovery unit following an open Cholecystectomy, which finding would require further investigation?

A

• Hemoglobin 11.2 mg/dl
• Temperature 100.2 F
• Urine output of 20 ml/hr*
• Incisional pain rated at 7/10

100
Q

Which client would be most at risk to develop a disorder of the gallbladder?

A

• A 55-year-old female, receiving TPN following a motor vehicle accident*
• A 32-year-old female with one child prescribed an oral contraceptive
• Hey 64-year-old male with a BMI of 28 and DM
• A 42-year-old male diagnosed with a hiatal hernia and hypertension

101
Q

Famotidine is what class of drug and what can it be used to treat?

A

H2 receptor antagonists - H. Pylori

102
Q

A nurse in the emergency department is completing an assessment of a client who has suspected stomach perforation due to peptic ulcer which of the following findings should the nurse expect? SATA
A. Rigid abdomen B. Tachycardia C. Elevated blood pressure D. Circumoral cyanosis. E. Rebound tenderness.

A

Rigid abdomen, tachycardia, and rebound tenderness

103
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of dumping syndrome following gastric surgery, which is the following information. Should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. 83 moderate sized meals a day B. Drink at least one glass of water with each meal. C. Eat a bedtime snack that contains a milk product. D. Increase protein in the diet. 

A

Increased protein in the diet

104
Q

A nurse is completing discharge, teaching for a client who has an infection due to H. pylori, which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. I will continue my prescription for corticosteroids
B. I will schedule a CT scan to monitor improvement
C. I will take a combination of medication’s for treatment
D. I will have my throat swab to recheck for this bacteria.

A

I will take a combination of medication’s for treatment

105
Q

A nurse is completing an assessment of a client who has a gastric ulcer which of the following findings should the nurse expect SATA
A. Client reports pain relieved by eating
B. Client states that pain often occurs at night
C. Client reports a sensation of bloating
D. Client states the pain occurs 30 minutes to an hour after a meal
E. Client experiences pain upon palpation of the epigastric region.

A

Client reports a sensation of bloating, client states the pain occurs 30 minutes to an hour after a meal, client experiences pain upon palpation of the epigastric region

106
Q

The nurse is Teaching a client who has a duodenal ulcer in a new prescription for Esomeprazole. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? SATA
A. Take the medication one hour before meal
B. Limit NSAIDs when taking this medication
C. Expect skin flushing when taking this medication
D. Increase fiber intake when taking this medication
E. Choose the medication thoroughly before swallowing.

A

Take the medication one hour before meal, limit NSAIDs, when taking this medication

107
Q

What is the average age for diagnosis of prostate cancer?

A

66

108
Q

Inflammation with possible infection of the prostate

A

Prostatitis

109
Q

Diagnostic procedures for prostate

A

Digital rectal exam, transracial ultrasound with the Bx, And an early prostate cancer antigen blood test

110
Q

Prostate metastasizes via 3 routes

A
  1. Lymph system
  2. Direct extension
  3. Bloodstream
111
Q

Direct extension involves:

A

Seminal vesicles, urethras mucosa, bladder wall, and external sphincter

112
Q

Blood steam metastasizes to

A

Pelvic bones, head of femur, lower lumbar spine, liver and lungs.

113
Q

Dietary factors that contribute to prostate cancer

A

Diets high in red meat

114
Q

Clinical manifestation of prostate issues

A

All the Urias, retention hesitancy, urgency, interruption of urine stream.

115
Q

Symptom of Prostate CA spreading

A

Back pain. Hip pain. Perineal and rectal discomfort. Weight loss. Spontaneous pathologic fractures.

116
Q

Diagnostic test for prostate and the normal range

A

PSA 0-4 ng/ml

117
Q

Diagnostic test done to get a prostate biopsy

A

TRUS

118
Q

DHT lowering medication

A

Finasteride - This medication can cross the placenta to a male fetus, decreased libido, could take up to 6 months to work

119
Q

What stage of prostate cancer is cancer that has grown outside of the prostate could’ve possibly spread to the seminal vesicles?

A

Stage 3

120
Q

What is the first line treatment for prostate cancer?

A

Radical prostatectomy involving vesicles, Best of Friends, nerves, fat, and blood vessel

121
Q

Post surgical expectations after prostatectomy

A

Turning at the surgical site, indwelling catheter(30ml), Monitor incision sites educate patient on adverse outcomes( dvt, incontinence, hemorrhage, infection, PE, ED)

122
Q

Name the types of radiation therapies for prostate cancer

A

Teletherapy -Extertal being radiation therapy that is the most common used and it takes 28 treatments over the course of 5 1/2 weeks
Brachytherapy-Use of radioactive seeds placed into the prostate. This is used in early-stage disease for advanced tumors. That’ll be used in combination with external being radiation. It is generally it one time outpatient procedure.

123
Q

Hormonal strategies can be both medical and surgical list the therapy’s

A

Medical castration with androgen deprivation
Surgical castration/Orchiectomy

124
Q

Name the medication for LHRH agonist the suppresses testicular androgen

A

LEUPROLIDE

125
Q

This medication is an anti-androgen receptor antagonist

A

FLUTAMIDE

126
Q

Chemotherapy that is used in late stage disease in for palliative care. This is only used if the tumor is non-androgen dependent.

A

DOCETAXEL

127
Q

Nursing care and education for prostate issues

A

Preventative screening start at age 50, younger If risk factors are present.

128
Q

What are some of the quality of five interventions that can be done for prostate health?

A

Pharmacological, Penile implants for ED, negative pressure devices

129
Q

This is the score that is used as an assessment tool to determine the severity of manifestations in their effect on the clients quality of life

A

I-PSS/ The international prostate symptom score

130
Q

What is the most common urologic problem in male adults?

A

BPH

131
Q

What is often the first symptoms of BPH

A

Nocturia

132
Q

BPH symptoms types

A

Irritating symptoms are associated with inflammation or infection
Obstructive sometimes I do to urinary retention

133
Q

BPH Complications

A

Urinary retention, UTI, renal, calculi, kidney failure, or via chemical abnormality that creates sediment build up

134
Q

Range for BUN

A

7 to 21

135
Q

Your bio chemical abnormality defined as elevation, or buildup of nitrogen is products in the blood and other secondary waste products within the body

A

Azotemia

136
Q

Diagnostic studies, the porch

A

DRE, UA, PSA, TRUS
Uroflowmetry, Cystoscopy

137
Q

Conservative treatment for BPH

A

Avoid certain meds, diet, restrict fluid intake, Pee schedule

138
Q

a-Adrenergic receptor blockers and their function

A

Tamsulosin, Doxazosin, Terazosin
Remotes, smooth my story like station in frosting in the bladder neck improves urine flow.

139
Q

5a-Reductase inhibitors and there action

A

Finasteride & Dutasteride
Take 3 to 6 months to show improvement. Where are the size of the prostate gland and can offer symptomatic relief of BPH

140
Q

Saw Palmetto blocks?

A

The effects of DHT

141
Q

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors and there action

A

Sildenafil, Taldalafil, Vardenafil
Effectively reduce the symptoms of those BPH and erectile dysfunction
And AVOID nitroglycerin

142
Q

Therapeutic procedure for ED

A

Vacuum construction device, penile implant

143
Q

Colorectal cancer, most commonly metastasize to what site in the body

A

Liver followed by the lungs, Bones and brain

144
Q

What is the most common type of CRC?

A

Adenocarcinoma

145
Q

What is the most common hereditary colon cancer?

A

Lynch syndrome

146
Q

And women what is thought to decrease the risk of CRC

A

Long term use of NSAIDs

147
Q

What type of diet is thought to prevent CRC?

A

Large amounts of fruit, vegetables and grains

148
Q

What is often the first finding before CRC

A

Polyps in the colon

149
Q

Which side of the body will lesions, most likely present with doll, abdominal pain, tarry stools, and diarrhea?

A

Right

150
Q

What is the feelings in complete inoculation after a BM?

A

Tenesmus

151
Q

I have seven gamers in the colon present as:

A

Bowel obstruction and bright red blood in the stool

152
Q

The location of a tumor if the patient is experiencing pain obstruction change in bowel, habits, or anemia

A

Transverse colon

153
Q

Location of a tumor if the patient experiences pain mass change in bowel habits and anemia

A

Ascending colon

154
Q

Location of the chamber if the patient is experiencing blood in stool change in bowel habits and rectal discomfort

A

Rectum

155
Q

Location of a Tamar if the patient is experiencing pain change in bowel habits, bright red blood in stool and obstruction

A

Descending colon

156
Q

Consider the highway to everything else in the body

A

Lymph nodes

157
Q

Surgical procedure to remove all or part of your colon

A

Colectomy

158
Q

This results in a temporary colostomy

A

Preparation/peritonitis

159
Q

Which stage of colorectal cancer which treatment consist of surgery and chemotherapy

A

Stage 3

160
Q

Bring out nursing care for Bowel prep

A

Clear liquid diet 24 to 48 hours prior to surgery, bowel prep that was prescribed, antibiotics prior to surgery, we close to the bathroom, educate patient on expectations for postop care

161
Q

When is indicated after balance surgery that a patient is ready for nutrients

A

When bowel sounds resume and patient has flatulence

162
Q

Which type of ostomy has a lot of output, and is very liquidy

A

Ileostomy

163
Q

Osteomyelitis on which side would be more formed in a less amount of stool

A

Left sided

164
Q

In the case where the tumor has involved in the rectum and his large enough to need to remove the anal sphincter, what happens?

A

A permanent ostomy is placed in the anus is sutured shut Occurs with ulcerative colitis.

165
Q

At what stage is there still enough tissue to be anastomosed and no ostomy is needed

A

Stage 1-3

166
Q

Ostomy that is continuously draining

A

Ileostomy

167
Q

Dusky blue stoma indicate

A

Ischemia

168
Q

How often do you says this time if you’re bleeding?

A

Q4h

169
Q

Eric acid kidney stones are result of

A

Too much shellfish, organ meats, mushrooms, and asparagus
Patients with gout

170
Q

Calcium oxalate kidney stones, a result of too much

A

Chocolate, tea, coffee, spinach, sweet potatoes, tomatoes, beans, berries, and beats

171
Q

Struvite kidney stones occur due to

A

Bacteria that causes urine to come to alkaline leading to stones and then renal infection

172
Q

Diagnostic study to diagnose kidney stones

A

Noncontrast CT ultrasound UA

173
Q

Treatment for struvite stones

A

Acetohydroxamic acid
Antibiotics
Surgical removal

174
Q

Procedures to remove urinary tract calculi

A

Ureteroscopy, Cystolitholapaxy
Percutaneous nephrolithotomy

175
Q

What type of diet is best for Cystine kidney stones?

A

Low protein

176
Q

Pyelonephritis and example of

A

Upper UTI

177
Q

Antimicrobial therapy for UTI

A

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
Ampicillin
Cephlosporin-tendon rupture

178
Q

Types of acute nephritis

A

Interstitial nephritis pyelonephritis Glomerulonephritis

179
Q

Pyelonephritis is left untreated

A

Kidney failure occurs

180
Q

This leads to hydronephrosis and renal impairment

A

Interstitial nephritis

181
Q

Renal vasoconstriction, reduced medullary blood flow and intrarenal ischemia result from

A

Hypokalemia

182
Q

What is a common side effect due to allergic reactions to drugs?

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

183
Q

Symptoms of acute interstitial nephritis

A

Mental status changes, decree steering output, fever, edema, weight gain, hypertension, hematuria

184
Q

Lab that is drawn for metabolic acidosis

A

ABG

185
Q

Inflammatory disease of the lungs

A

Sarcoidosis

186
Q

Urosepsis can result from

A

Acute pyelonephritis

187
Q

The septic shock resulting from acute pyelonephritis

A

Urosepsis which can lead to death

188
Q

Diagnostic test to confirm acute pyelonephritis

A

CT scan ultrasound blood culture urine culture

189
Q

Acute paranoia, Friday’s treatment could last for

A

6 weeks

190
Q

Chronic pyelonephritis

A

Due to the current infections in the air for your new retract, the Kimmie uses shape, shrinks and loses function due to scarring

191
Q

Dietary changes for chronic Pyelonephritis

A

Oh sodium diet fresh foods, not prepackaged

192
Q

Treatment for chronic pyelonephritis

A

Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy 3 to 4 L of fluids a day antibiotics and antipyretics

193
Q

This is an acute Postinfectious glomerulonephritis that occurs after

A

5-21 Days after infections in the tonsils, pharynx or skin

194
Q

This can lead to you in stage kidney disease without treatment

A

Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

195
Q

Treatment for rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

A

Corticosteroid, Cytotoxic agents, and plasmapheresis

196
Q

This type of medication or lower proteinuria and help to lower bp

A

ACE inhibitors

NUR 114 (3 decks)

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