Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Module 1 - 11 > Flashcards

Module 1 - 11 Flashcards

1
Q

What is pharmacology (4)

A

Study of Drugs =

  • route of administration
  • mechanism of action
  • therapeutic effect
  • adverse effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Classification of therapeutics

A

1) Drugs
2) biological
3) natural health products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are drugs

A

traditional conception of medicine - chemical agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are biologics

A

antibodies, hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Canadian drug legislation 3 levels

A

1) Food and drugs act
2) health canada
3) health canada product and food branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

3 branches of health canada

A

1) thereapeutic product directorate
2) Biologic and genetic therapies directorate
3) natural health products directorate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a drug

A

more than a pill = chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Three types of names

A

1) chemical name
2) generic name
3) trade name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the chemical name

A

describes the chemical structure of a molecule, used by chemists
- EX 7-chloro-1,3-dihydrol-1-methyl…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Generic name + example

A

Unique name that identifies a drug. Name most used in pharmacology. Should be used by HCP.
- EX - diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Trade name

A

name assigned by a drug company. is easy to remember. Companies may make the same drug, but differet trade names exist
EX/ valium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Stages of approval of marketing drugs

A

1) preclinical testing/drug discovery
2) clinical trial application
3) phase I clinical trial
4) phase II clinical trial
5) Phase III clinical trial
6) New drug submission (NDS)
7) Phase IV Clinical trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what happens in the preclinical testing/drug discovery phase

A
  • cells, living tissue, experimental animals

- evaluate biological effects, pharmacokinetics, toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens in clinical trial application

A

submit to Health Canada, data = 30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Phase I clinical trial

A

20-100 healthy volunteers, pharmacokinetics evaluated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Phase II Clinical trial

A

300-500 people with target disorder

- evaluate therapeutic effects, side effects, dosing (2 years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Phase III Clinical Trial

A
  • 500-5000 people with the target disorder

- therapeutic effect verrified, LT side effects (~4 years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

New drug submission (NDS)

A
  • Drug submitted to Health Canada
  • therapeutic effect and safety verified via
    1) notice of compliance
    2) drug information number
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Phase IV clinical trial

A

post marketing surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Routes of administration

A
  • enteral
  • Parenteral
  • topical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Enteral administration

A
  • oral or rectal

- = GI administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Parenteral administration

A
  • IV
  • Intramuscular
  • subcutaneous
  • = injection of medication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Topical administraiton

A

creams and patches

= absorbed thorugh the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pharmacokinetics steps

A

ADME

  • absorption
  • distribution
  • metabolism
  • excretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Oral pharmacokinetics (AMDE)

A
  • absorption = in the small intestine
  • Metabolism = in hte liver
  • distribution = systemic circulaiton
  • excretion = billary, renal, feces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pharmacokinetics - other routes (ADME)

A
  • Absorption - skin/blood vessel/muscle
  • distribution = sstemic circulaiton
  • metabolism = liver
  • Excretion = renal, biliary, feces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Two examples of physiologic barrier to drug transportation

A
  • intestinal villi (barrier against ingested drugs, toxins, nutrients)
  • tight junctions (prevent molecules from passing between cells)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cell membrane

A
  • separates internal from exterior of cell
  • affects which drugs can enter the cell
  • lipid bilayer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

nucleus

A

genetic material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

mitochondria

A

energy source of cell - ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Rough endoplasmic recticulum

A

synthesis of protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A
  • metabolism of drugs, carbs, steroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

golgi apparatus

A

processing and packaging of proteins/lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Characteristics of the cell membrane (3)

A

1) phospholipid (1 polar = water soluble head and 2 fatty acid tails = lipid soluble
2) cell membrane is fluid
3) cell membrane contains proteins embeded in phospholipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How can drugs cross the cell membrane

A

1) direct penetration of the cell
2) through ion chanels and pores
3) specific transport proteins (drug transporters)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Direct penetration of the cell membrane requires that drugs are

A

lipid soluble (cell membranes are primarily lipids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Ion channels requires that drugs are…

A
  • very small (molecular weight of less than <200 Da) as channels and pores in cell membrane are small
  • the specific drug (channels are selective = why only certain small compounds can fit through them)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Drug transporters

A

carrier proteins that move drugs from one side of the cell to the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

2 types of cell drug transporters

A
  • uptake transporters

- efflux transporters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

uptake drug transporters

A

move drugs from outside the cell to inside

- mediate intestinal absorption, renal excretion, reaching target sites of action inside cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Efflux transporters

A
  • move drugs from inside of cells to outside

- important for protecting cells and are present in intestine, placenta, kidney, blood-brain-barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Chemistry of pharmacology - types of drug molecules (5)

A
  • polar molecules
  • ions
  • quaternary ammonium compounds
  • ionizable molecules
  • lipophilic molecules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Polar molecules - solubility, chemical structure, example

A
  • H2O soluble
  • uneven distribution of electrical charge but no net charge
  • EX: water, glucose, kanamycin (antibiotic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Ions - what, charge, can they pass through the cell membrane?, EX

A
  • atoms or molecules where # electrons does not equal # protons
  • have a net + or - charge
  • due to charge they cannot directly pass through the cell membrane (very small ions can pass through channels or pores)
  • EX - Na+, Cl-, Li+
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Quatenary ammonium compounds - structure, charge, cross cell membrane?

A
  • have at least one N atom that has a + charge at all times

- + charge –> can’t cross cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Ionizable molecule - structure, what, what determines charge

A
  • exist in charged or uncharged form
  • weak acids or weak bases
  • pH determines whether a weak acid or base carries a charge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When is a weak acid ionized

A

in an alkaline solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

when is a weak acid non ionized

A

in an acidic environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

when is a weak base ionized

A

in an acidic environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

when is a weak base non-ionized

A

in a alkaline solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Ion trapping (what, where do drugs accumulate, clinical use)

A

difference in pH on different sides of a membrane
= drugs accumulate om side of the membrane where they are ionized (since they can’t cross back)
- sued clinically in some cases of drug overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Capilaries

A
  • supply tissue with oxygenated blood and allow drugs and other molecules to move from blood to tissue
  • have fenestrations = small holes in endothelial cells that allow molecules to pass through
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Drug movement out of capilaries = hydrophilic

A
  • cannot penetrate endothelial cell membrane

- must pass thorugh fenestrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Drug movement out of capilarries - lipophilic

A
  • can penetrate endothelial cell membrane

- can also pass through fenestrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Capillaries and the BBB

A
  • hydrophilic drugs can’t pass the blood brain barrier

- lipophilic drug = pass through cell membrane/tight junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

study of drug movement in the body (what the body does to the drug)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

4 properties of pharmacokinetics

A

1) absorption
2) distribution
3) metabolism
4) excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Pharmacokinetics - absorption

A
  • movement of drugs from site of administration of the blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what determines how a drug’s absorption affects the body?

A

1) rate of absorption = determines how quickly a drug effects will occure
2) amount of drug absorption = determines how intesnse the effect of the drug will be

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Factors affecting drug absorption (6)

A

1) rate of dissolution
2) surface area
3) blood flow
4) lipid solubility
5) pH partitioning
6) activity of drug transport proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Factors affecting drug absorption - rate of drug dissolution

A
  • drugs must dissolve before they can be absorbed

- fast rate of dissolution = faster onset of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Factors affecting drug absorption - surface area

A
  • larger surface area = faster drug absorption

stomach rugae have lower SA where intestinal villi have increased SA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Factors affecting drug absorption - Blood flow

A
  • absorption is faster in areas with increased blood flow

- (high blood flow creates increased concentration gradient, low blood flow creates less concentration gradient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Factors affecting drug absorption - factors affecting blood flow

A
  • exercise increases blood flow = increased drug absorption

- heart failure, severe hypotension, hypothermia, circulatory shock = decreased blood flow, decreased absorptions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Factors affecting drug absorption - Lipid solubility

A

Lipophilic drugs are absorbed more rapidly than hydrophilic drugs (lipophilic cross cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Factors affecting drug absorption - pH partitioning

A
  • drug absorption is grater where there is a difference between pH at the site of administration and the blood, where the drug is ionized in the blood
  • EX - weak acid in the acidic stomach, cross membrane to alkaline bllod, weak acid ionized, and drug is stuck in blood)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Drug transporters + drug absorption

A
  • uptake transporters increase absorptions

- efflux transporters decrease absorptions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Routes of administration

A
  • oral, sublingual, transdermal, rectal, IV, subQ, IM, pulmonary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Oral administration - advantages and disadvantages

A
  • advantage = safety, convinient, economical

- disadvantage = incomplete and variable absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Oral absorption - weak acids

A
  • pH effect - drug better absorpbed in stomach
  • SA effect - drug not absorbed as well in stomach
  • rate of absorption will be greater in intestine even if it is ionized*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Gastric emptying + rate of absorption

A
  • movement of stomach contents into the intestine
  • rate of absorption is greater in intestine
  • therefore anything that increases gastric emptying will increase the rate of absorption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Ways to increase gastric emptying

A
  • Take meds on an empty stomach
  • take med with cold water
  • lying on right side after med is given
  • high osmolarity feeding (tube feeding)
  • taking a prokinetic drug (drug that increases GI motility)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Decreasing gastric emptying

A
  • high fat meal
  • heavy exercise
  • lying on left side
  • drugs that inhibit vagus nerve (anticholinergic drugs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Enteric coating

A
  • drugs covered with a coating that prevents their disolution int he acidic stomach
  • coating dissolves in more alkaline intestine
  • use - drugs that would be destroyed by acid or that would destroy stomach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Bioavaliability

A
  • fraction of a dose that reaches systemic circulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

factors affecting bioavailibility (3)

A
  • drug formulation
  • route of administration
  • degree of metabolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which formulations have the most oral bioavailibility + why

A

1) aqueous solution
2) syrup
3) suspension

why? no dissolution phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which formulations have medium oral bioavailibility

A
  • chewable tablet
  • granules
  • capsules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

which formulations have the least oral bioavailibility`

A

1) compresed tablet
2) enteric coated tablet
3) time released capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what is sublingual medication administration

A

placing a drug under the tongue (drug enters oral mucosa, then superior vena cava, then heart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

benefits of sublingual administration (2)

A

1) drug avoids first pass metabolism thorugh liver

2) useful for drugs that act directly on the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

transdermal administration medication characteristics (3)

A

1) lipophilic
2) somewhat hydrophobic
3) small (<600 Da)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Transderamal preperations

A
  • patches, ointments, sprays, lotions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Transdermal disadvantages

A

tolerance can develop unless a drug-free period is enforced

- (constant plasma drug levels with minimum peaks or troughs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Factors affecting transdermal absorbtions

A
  • thickness of the skin (decreased absorption)
  • hydration (increased absorption
  • more hair follicles (increased absoption)
  • application surface area (increased abospriont)
  • integrity of skin barier (poor integrity is increased psoriasis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

rectal administration use

A

when a patient is unconsious or vomitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

metabolism after rectal administration

A

50% bipasses the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

how rectal administration works

A
  • drug in supository, supository dissolves and drug corsses rectal mucosa into blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

disadvantages of rectal absorption

A

incomplete absorption and may iritate rectal musosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Intravenous drug administration

A

drugs injected into a pheripheral vein (back or hand or median cubital vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

type of ways to administer IV med

A

1) IV bolus

2) IV drip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

IV bolus

A

a single dose administered over a short time period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

IV drip

A

continuous infusion over a long time period. Drugs diluted in a vehicle (ex saline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Advantages of IV administration (4)

A
  • no absorption required = 100% bioavailibility
  • allows precise control over drug dosage and duration of action
  • allow adminitration of poorly soluble drugst hat must be diluted
  • allows injections of drugs that are diluted in blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

IV disadvantages

A
  • expensive, invasive, inconvinient
  • drug cannot be removed once injected
  • risk of injection and fluid overload
  • risk of injecting hte wrong fomula
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Subcutaneous

A
  • drug is injected beneath skin into subcutaneous tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

factors affecting subcutaneous absorption

A
  • blood flow to an area

- water solubility

98
Q

Intramuscular medication

A

drug is injected directly into muscle

99
Q

factors affecting intramuscular injection

A

ability of drug to pass thorugh fenestrations in capilary wall

  • blood flow
  • water solubility
100
Q

intramuscular injection advantages

A
  • poorly soluble drugs

- aminister depot preperations (where drug is absorbed slowly over time)

101
Q

intramuscular injeciton disadvantages

A
  • pain

- may cause local tissue/neve damage if injection is done improperly

102
Q

Factor affecting rate of absorption IM

A

blood flow

  • deltoid> vastus lateralis > gluteal
  • exercise increases absorption
  • heart failure, hypotension, hypothermia decreases absorption
103
Q

Pulmonary medication administration

A
  • gaseous + volatile drugs can be inhaled = very rapidly absorption
104
Q

where can drugs distribute in the body? (7)

A
  • intersitial space
  • total body water
  • plasma
  • adipose tissue
  • muscle
  • bone
  • other
105
Q

What drugs distibute into intersitial space

A

drugs with

  • low molecular weight,
  • water soluble drugs
106
Q

what drugs distribute into the plasma

A

drugs that bind to plasma proteins or with high omlecular weight

107
Q

what drugs distribute into adipose tissue?

A

lipid soluble drugs

108
Q

what drugs distibute into bone?

A

someslow release drugs

109
Q

what drugs can distribute into other compartments?

A

ONLY FREE DRUGS

110
Q

3 factors affecting drug distribution

A

1) blood flow to tissues
2) ability of drugs to move out of capillaries
3) ability of drug to move into cells

111
Q

blood flow and drug distribution

A
  • where tissues are well perfused there is faster distribution
112
Q

which organs have greater blood flow?

A

liver, kidney, brain, drug distribution,

113
Q

when does poor blood flow limit drug distribution? (4)

A

rarely in adult patients

  • neonates
  • pt with heart failure or shock
  • certain solid tumours with limited blood flow
  • absess
114
Q

how a drug exits vasculature

A
  • (not brain) it is easy for drug to leave into interstitial space due to permeability of capillary wall
  • harder for drugs to enter the target organ for an effect (cell membrane)
115
Q

P- Glycoprotein

A
  • most widely used efflux transporter

- p = protective = facilitates drug efflux from cells, drug excretion, protects body from exposure to drugs

116
Q

is P-glycoprotein active or passive transport

A

active

117
Q

where is P-Gp located

A
  • liver (hepatocytes)
  • intestine (enterocytes)
  • kidney (proximal tubule cell)
  • brain (capilary endothelial cells facing blood)
118
Q

Plasma protein binding

A

in plasma the drugs can be bound to plasma proteins, or they can be free

119
Q

is plasma protein binding reversible

A

yes

120
Q

can plasma bound proteins exit capilary

A

no

121
Q

what are the two main plasma proteins that bind drugs

A

1) albumin

2) alpha 1 acid glycoprotein

122
Q

albumin and binding drugs

A
  • lipophilic and anionic (weak acid) drugs
123
Q

Conditions affecting albumin drug binding (5)

A
  • malnutrition
  • trauma
  • aging
  • liver/kidney disease
  • decreased plasma alumin concentration
124
Q

result of decreased albumin binding

A
  • increased in free drug concentration

- toxicity

125
Q

Factors affecting alpha 1 acidic glycoprotein (4)

A
  • aging
  • trauma
  • hepatic inflammation
  • concentration of alpha in plasma
126
Q

calculating volume of distribution

A

vd = d/c

where
vD = volume of distribution
D is total amount of drug in the body (dose)
C - plasma concentration of the drug (concentration)

127
Q

Volume of distribution

A

represents the apparent volume that a drug distributed into

not a physical anatomical space

128
Q

Fluid compartments

A 
intracellular fluid
extracellular fluid (plasma and intersitial fluid)
129
Q

Drugs with a small vD characteristics (2)

A

1) highly protein bound (retained in plasma)

2) large molecular weight (can’t pass through capillary fenestrations)

130
Q

Small vD effects

A
  • unable to leave vascular space

- plasma voluem of 0.057 L/kg or 5.7% of body weight

131
Q

Intermediate vD characteristincs

A

1) low molecular weight (pass through capillary)
2) very hydrophillic (can’t cross cell membrane)
3) intermediate protein binding

132
Q

intermediate vD transport out of blood vessels

A
  • leave vascular space and enter intersitial space
  • unable to enter cells
  • distribute in extracelular space
  • 20% of body weight
133
Q

large vD characteristics

A

1) low molecular weight
2) lipophi.ic
3) minimal protein binding

134
Q

large vD and transporting to tissues

A
  • exit vascular space
  • enter interstitial space
  • enter body compartments
  • distribute into greater than 0.2 L/kg
135
Q

Drug displacement - of small vD

A

if drug B displaces drug A (with small Vd) the drug remains in the plasma and doesnt distribute into the tissue
aka free drug concentration increases

136
Q

Drug Displacement - drug with a large Vd

A

the drug enters the tissue

  • decreases the free plasma concentration
  • increases the volume of distribution
137
Q

Body composition and drug distribution (obese people)

A
  • larger proportion of body mass as fat

- drugs that distribute into fat will have a larger Vd

138
Q

Body composition and age (elderly)

A
  • elderly have a decreased muscle mass and increased fat

- drugs that distribute into muscle will have a decreased Vd

139
Q

Metabolism organs in the body (5)

A
  • Liver (primary)
  • intestine (eneterocytes that linegut)
  • stomach (alcohol)
  • kidney
  • intestinal bacteria (normal flow)
140
Q

Importance for metabolism (exogenous)

A
  • metabolize drugs, food, coffee, alcohol, etc as they can be toxins
141
Q

importance for metabolism (endogenous)

A

vitamin D synthesis, Bile acid syntehsis, cholesterol metabolism, steroid hormones, bilirubin

142
Q

Therapeutic consequences of drug metabolism (5)

A

1) increase water solubility of drugs to promote their excretion
2) inactivate drugs
3) increase a drug’s effectiveness
4) activate protodrugs
5) increase drug toxicity

143
Q

protodrugs

A

compounds that are inactivated until metabolized

144
Q

First order kinetics

A
  • when the concentration of the drug is much lower than the metabolic capacity of the body (most times)
  • drug metabolism is directly proportional to the concentration of free durg
  • = a constant fraction of drug is metabolized per unit time
145
Q

zero order kinetics

A
  • when the plasma drug concentration is much higher than the metabolic capacity of the body
  • drug metabolism is constant over time
146
Q

First pass metabolism

A
  • when a drug undergoes significant metabolism prior to entering systemic circulation (common with PO drugs)
  • RESULT = a decreased amount of the parent drug enters systemic circulation
147
Q

where can first pass metabolism occur (4)

A

1) hepatocytes (liver)
2) intestinal enterocytes
3) stomach
4) intestinal bacteria

148
Q

Metabolizing enzymes in the stomach (ex alcohol)

A
  • parent drug = alcohol
  • enzyme = alcohol dehydrogenaze
  • metabolite = acetahyde
149
Q

metabolizing enzymes in the intestine

A
  • drug–>
  • enzyme = cypenzyme–>
  • metabolite
150
Q

metabolizing enzymes in the liver

A

many enzymes

- primary site

151
Q

metabolizing enzymes in the large bowel

A
  • drug –>
  • enzyme (bacterial enzyme)–>
  • metabolite
152
Q

what part of metabolism determines bioavailibility

A

the amount of metabolism on the first pass through the liver

153
Q

what determines how much metabolism occurs on first pass thorugh liver?

A

high vs low extration ratio (ER)

154
Q

High extraction ratio drugs and first pass metabolism

A
  • significant first pass metabolism
155
Q

High extraction ratio drugs and PO vs IV route

A

much higher PO dose than IV dose to compensate for high first pass metabolism

156
Q

high extraction ratio and changes in hepatic enzymes

A

CHANGE IN HEPATIC ENZYME = LARGE CHANGE IN BIOAVALIABILITY

157
Q

High ER drugs and drug-drug interactions

A

very susceptible to drug-drug interactions

158
Q

Low ER drugs and bioavailability

A

high oral bioavalibility

159
Q

Low ER drugs and changes between PO and IV route

A

PO dose similar to IV dose

160
Q

Low ER drugs and changing hepatic enzyme

A
  • small changes in hepatic enzyme have little effect on bioavalibility
161
Q

Low ER drugs and drug-drug interactions

A

not very susceptible to drug-drug interactions

162
Q

Phases 1 metabolism goal

A

convert lipophilic drugs to be more polar moleculs by introducing or unmasking polar functional groups (hydroxyl, OH-, amine, NH2)

163
Q

Phase I metabolism chemical events (3)

A
  • oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis reactions
164
Q

phase I metabolism enzymes

A

cytocrome P450, enzymes, estonins, dehydrogenases

165
Q

Phase I metabolites and effect on drug potency

A
  • can be more active, less active, or equally active as parent drug
166
Q

Phase II metabolism Goal

A
  • increase the polarity of lipophilic drugs by conjucation reactions
167
Q

Phase II metabolism potential congugates

A
  • glucaronic acid
  • sulfate
  • acytel group
  • amino acits
  • large water soluble molecules
168
Q

Phase II metabolism potency after metabolism

A
  • metabolites less active than parent drug
169
Q

Phase II metabolism (POTENCY EXEPTION)

A

morphine G-glucoromide is more potent than morphine

170
Q

Goal of metabolism

A

make drugs more water soluble so they can be excreted

171
Q

Where does phase one metabolism occure

A

smooth endoplasmic recticulum

172
Q

where does phase 2 metabolism occur

A

cytosol

- gluconidation in smooth ER

173
Q

What are cytochrome P450 drug metabolising enzymes? (CYPs)

A
  • predominant phase I drug metabolizing system

- most of drug metabolism

174
Q

how do CYP enzymes work?

A

insert one atom of O2 into a drug molecule producing water as a product

175
Q

What can decrease activity of CYPs?

A

malnutrition (these enzymes require dietary protein)

176
Q

How are CYPs named?

A
  • CYP-family-subfamly-isosyme

EX CYP3A4

177
Q

Which CYP metabolizes the largest fraction of currently marketed drugs?

A

CYP34A

178
Q

Phase II metabolic enzymes (4)

A
  • UGTs
  • GSTs
  • SULTs
  • NATs
179
Q

UDD-glucorosyltransferases (UGTs) location

A

smooth ER

180
Q

UDD-glucorosyltransferases (UGTs) function

A
  • catabalize transfer of flucuronic acid (sugar) to a drug to make it more polar and easier to excrete
181
Q

sulfotransferases (SULTS) location

A
  • cytosol
182
Q

sulfotransferases (SULTS) function

A
  • catabolyze transfer of a sulfate group to a drug to make it more soluble and more easily excreted
183
Q

Glutathione S Transferases (GSTs) location

A

cytosol

184
Q

Glutathione S Transferases (GSTs) function

A

catabolize transfer of glutathiole molecule to a drug

- anioxidant (makes a toxic/reactive drug metablite less toxic

185
Q

N-acetyltransferases (NATs) location

A

cytosol

186
Q

N-acetyltransferases (NATs) function

A

catalyze transfer of an acetyl group from acetyl CoA to a drug

187
Q

N-acetyltransferases (NATs) variability

A

genetic polymorphisms

188
Q

Thidurine methyl-transferases (TDMT) location

A

Cytosl

189
Q

Thidurine methyl-transferases (TDMT) location

A

transfer of a methyl group from S-adenosytemethione to a drug

190
Q

Thidurine methyl-transferases (TDMT) variations

A
  • genetic polymorphisms

- rarely can have dramatic effect on drug safety

191
Q

Factors affecting drug metabolism

A
  • age
  • drug interactions
  • disease state
  • genetic polymorphisms
192
Q

Age and metabolism

A
  • young (0-6m) almost 0 hepatic activity
  • metabolisms develop from 6m to 2yrs
  • 2-17 normal metabolism
193
Q

Enzyme induction and metabolism (3)

A
  • certain CYP isotymes are susceptible to induciton by drugs = increased drug metabolism
  • result
    1) decreased plasma drug concentration
    2a) decreased drug activity (if metabolite is inactive)
    2b) increased drug activity (if metabolite is active)
194
Q

enzyme induction and metabolism example

A

cigarette smoking increases drug metabolism

195
Q

Enzyme inhibition and metabolism (3)

A

1) increase plasma drug concentration
2) increased therapeutic effect of drugs
3) increased drug toxicity

196
Q

Diseases that decrease CYP activity (4)

A
  • liver disease
  • kidney disease
  • inflammatory disease
  • infection
197
Q

genetic polymorphisms and metabolism

A

aka SNPs (single nucleotide change = ATCG)

198
Q

Genetic polymorphism - CYP2C9.- metabolizes the drug

A

anticoagulant warfarin

199
Q

Genetic polymorphism - CYP2C9.- effect on activity

A

polymorphism decreases enzyme activity = increased bioavalibility = increased side effect of bleeding

200
Q

Genetic polymorphism - CYP2D6 - metabolizes

A
  • codein to morphine (morphine is more potent)
201
Q

Genetic polymorphism - CYP2C9.- phenotypes and effect (4)

A
  • ultra rapid (lots of CYP)
  • extensive metabolism (normal)
  • intermediate metabolizers (decrased CYP)
  • poor metabolizers (almost no CYP activity)
202
Q

UGTIAI polymorphism

A
  • polymorphism decreases its activity

- RESULT = decrased marrow supression that could be fatal

203
Q

NAT2 genetic polymorphism

A
  • metabolizes ionazid, caffeine, cancer causing chemicals
  • 23 SNPS
  • phenotype = slow or fast
  • snow acytelators = more susceptible to ionizad tocicity and are at higher risk for developing certain cancers
204
Q

Drug Drug interactions in the elderly

A

on average 65+ takes 7 medications

205
Q

common drug-drug interactions

A

those affecting pharmacokinetics

206
Q

consequences of drug interactions

A

1) incraesed effects
2) decreased effects
3) generation of a new effect

207
Q

Drug-Drug interactions = increased effect (2)

A

1) increase the therapeutic effect

2) increase adverse effect

208
Q

Drug-Drug interactions - increased effect - increased therapeutic effect (ampicilin and sulbactam)

A

EX -
1) ampicilin the antibiotic is rapidly inactivated by bacterial enzymes
2) Sulbactam is an inhibitor of the bacterial enzyme that inactivates ampicilin
RESULT = ampicilin + sulbactam = increased therapeutic activity of ampicilin

209
Q

Drug-Drug interactions - increased effect - increased adverse effect (warfarin and asprin)

A
  • Warfarin = anticoagulant
  • asprin = analgesic that also thins blood
  • RESULT = warfarin + aspirin thins blood too much and causes bleeding (potentially life threatening)
210
Q

Drug-Drug interactions - decreased effect

A
  • reduce therapeutic effects

- reduce adverse effects

211
Q

Drug-Drug interactions - decreased effect - reduced therapeutic effect (clopidogrel and omeprazole)

A
  • Clopidogrel = anticoagulant (is a pro drug that requires metabolic activation by CYP)
  • Omeprazole = stomach ulcer drug (inhibits CYP)
  • RESULT = active metabolite of clopidogrel is not formed = insuficcient anticoagulation
212
Q

Drug-Drug interactions - decreased effect - reduced adverse effects (morphine + naloxone)

A
  • morphine = analgesic (that when overdosed, can produce coma, resp depression, death)
  • naloxone = a competitive antagonist
  • RESULT = treat overdose
213
Q

Drug-Drug interactions - generation of a new effect (disulfiram and alcohol)

A
  • disulfiram = drug used to treat chronic alcoholism. (alc is metabolized to acetahyde then to acetic acid)
  • acetahyde causes hangover (headache, nausea, vomit)
  • Disulfiram inhibits the metabolism of acetadhyde (use of this drug causes patient to have very severe hangover like symptoms
214
Q

Types of drug interactions (4)

A

1) direct physical interaction
2) pharmacokinetic interaction
3) pharmacodynamic interaction
4) combined toxicity

215
Q

Direct physical interaction

A

direct chemical or physical interaction of 2+ drugs

- often occurs when mixing IV solutions –> precipitate forms

216
Q

Direct physical interaction - problems before administration

A
  • CONSULT COMPATIBILITY CHART

- diazepam is particularly problematic

217
Q

Direct physical interaction problems after administration

A
  • sodium bicarbonate followed by calcium glucanate can form a precipitate in the blood
218
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction

A
  • interactions affecting absorption, distribution, metabolism, or excretion (ADME)
  • most common
219
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - absorption

A
  • altered pH
  • chelation/binding
  • altered blood flow
  • gut motility
  • vomitting
  • drugs that kill intestinal bacteria
220
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - absorption - altered pH

A
  • drugs that effect gastric or intestinal pH can alter drug absorption (effect ionization of some drugs)
221
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - absorption - altered pH - EXAMPLE of antacids

A
  • antacids increase gastrib pH
  • incrase absorption of drugs that are weak bases
  • decrease absorption of drugs that are weak acids
222
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - absorption - altered pH - enteric coated drugs and antacids

A
  • designed to pass thorugh acidic stomach without dissolution (when in alkaline environemnt)
  • antacid taken = increase pH of stomach and therefore promotes premature dissolution of enteric coated drugs
  • consequence = less absorption?
223
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - absorption - chelation/binding

A
  • some drugs known to bind other drugs in the intestine –> formation of insoluble complezes that can;t be absorbed
  • EX - Cholestyramine (bile acid sequestrant) binds to digoxin (bile acid) preventing its absorption
224
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - absorption - altered blood flow

A
  • drug decrase blood flow will decrease absorption of other drugs
  • EX local anaestetic administered, it may diffuse into the blood away fron injection site
  • EX2 = epinephrine is injected iwth local anestetic, it causes vasoconstriciton and decreases absorption of local anestetic so that the anestetic stays at the injection side
225
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - absorption - gut motility

A
  • increase intestinal motility (ex laxatives) = decreased drug absorption
  • decrease intestinal motility (ex opiate) = decreased gut motility
226
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - absorption - vomiting (3)

A
  • drugs that induce vomiting will decrease the absorption of other drugs
  • if vomiting occurs within 20-30 mins after taking one or more medications it is likely that absorption is incomplete
  • if vomiting occurs after the drug has entered the intestine, giving another dose may produce toxicity
227
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - absorption - drugs that kill intestinal bacteria

A
  • Intestinal bacteria = metabolism of some drugs
  • ex antibiotics that kill intestinal bacteria = decreased deconjugation –> decreased absorption during enterohepatic recycling –> decreased plasma drug concentration
228
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - distribution - altering pH

A
  • change in pH can influence ionization of other drugs
  • drug sodium bicarbonate increases extracellular pH where ammonium chloride decreases extracellular pH
  • pH partitioning = draw out drug from inside the cell to outside by changing its ionization (ex asprin overdose of weak acid asprin, increase extracellular pH with sodium bicarbonate will draw asprin outside of the cell and cause it to become ionized. once trapped the asprin can be eliminated
229
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - distribution - protein binding

A
  • if two drugs are bound tot he same site on plasma proteins, co-administration will result in competition for binding
  • drug with lower affinity for protein will become free
  • may result in increased T effect, increased toxicity, increased excretion
230
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - metabolism - cyp induction

A
  • some drugs increase synthesis of CYP enzymes = induction
  • result = increased drug metabolism
  • induction is delayed = 2-10 days following exposure to the enzyme inducer before the induction occurs
  • after inducer is stopped it takes 7-10 days before the CYP enzyme levels return to normal
231
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - metabolism - CYP induction examples

A
  • cigarette/marijuana smoke (one J = 5-10 cigarettes)
  • rifampin - induces CYP34A
  • phenobarbital
  • BBQ food (induce CYP1A2)
  • alc - induces CYP2E1 (severe alcoholism will decrease CYP)
232
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - metabolism - CYP inhibition

A
  • enzyme inhibition = decreased metabolism of other drugs metabolized by the same enzyme
  • result = increased plasma concentration of the parent drug
  • exept if a pro-drug is given when CYP enzymes are inhibited (decreased metabolic activation)
233
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - metabolism - CYP inhibitors example

A
  • antibiotics and antifungals inhibit CYP3A4
  • HIV protease inhibitors inhibit CYP3A4
  • omeprazole inhibits CYP2C19
  • selective seretonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) inhibid CYP2D6
  • fluvozamine - inhibits CYP1A2
  • grapefruit juice - inhibits CYP3A4
234
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - excretion = altered blood flow

A
  • drugs that decrease renal blood flow = decreased glomerular filtration = decreased renal excretion = increased plpasma drug concentrations
  • EX non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) = renal vasoconstriction
  • EX2 = beta blockers act on heart to decrease cardiac output (indirectly decreases renal flow)
235
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - excretion - altered pH

A
  • change pH of renal tubular filtrate –> alter drug excretion
  • pH partitioning and ion trapping
  • USE = drug overdose (overdose on amphetamine, a weak base = acidify filtrate with ammonium chloride = prevent reabsorption in the blood = increased renal excretion of amphetamine)
236
Q

Pharmacokinetic interaction - excretion - tubular

A
  • mediated by transporters at prozimal tubule
  • if a drug blocks the transporter, it may block another drug from being secreted into the tubule lumen = decreased renal excretion and increased plasma concentration
  • EX antibioti penecilin and probenecid (causes renal penecilin excretion to decrease + blood penicillin to rise)
237
Q

Pharmacodynamic interaction (2) types

A

1) interactions that occur at the same receptor

2) interactions that occur at separate sites

238
Q

Interactions that occur at the same receptor (3)

A
  • usually drug interactions that occur at the smae receptor = antagonist blocking action of an agonist (inhibitory)
  • result = decreased therapeutic action, or decrease toxicity in overdose situations
  • EX = overdose of morphine….use a competitive antagonist to reverse the symptoms
239
Q

Pharmacodynamic interaction - interactions that occur at separate sites (2)

A
  • drugs that have different mechanisms can interact if they produce the same physiologic response
  • EX MORPHINE (ACTS ON OPIOD RECEPTORS) AND DIAZEPAM (ACTS ON BENZODIAZAPINE RECEPTOR) –> CNS depression
240
Q

Combined toxicity - drug-drug interaction

A
  • two drugs that cause toxicity should not be administered together
  • EX acetaminophen and alcohol - both are hepatotoxic and when used together can increase amount of liver damage

Pharmacology (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions