Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Samplex Module 6 > Modulars Module 6 > Flashcards

Modulars Module 6 Flashcards

1
Q

The most common method for determining organic nitrogen from protein samples
a. Kjedhal method
b. Hydroxylamine method
c. Bisulfite method
d. Kjeldahl method

A

Kjeldahl method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is the primary standard of choice for standardizing acid solutions like HCI?
a. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
b. Potassium hydrogen iodate
c. Anhydrous sodium carbonate
d. Sulfamic acid

A

Anhydrous sodium carbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following indicator is colored blue on basic solutions?
a. Methyl orange
b. Bromocresol green
c. Phenolphthalein
d. Methyl red

A

Bromocresol green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is assayed via direct alkalimetry?
a. Boric acid
b. Sodium potassium tartrate
c. Zinc oxide
d. Sodium borate

A

Boric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

During non-aqueous acidimetry, which of the following is an example of a possible neutral solvent?
a. Acetonitrile
b. Formic acid
c. Acetic anhydride
d. Ethylenediamine

A

Acetonitrile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which pharmaceutical formulations will special methods like nephelometric and turbidimetric assay be applicable?
a. Waters
b. Solutions
c. Suspensions
d. Elixirs

A

Suspensions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

All of the following units of measurement are used in spectrometry, except
a. angstrom
b. milliliter
c. nanometer
d. micrometer

A

milliliter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Type III glass
a. highly resistant borosilicate
b. treated soda-lime
c. soda-lime
d. general purpose soda-lime

A

soda-lime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

All are in vitro biological reactivity assay, except
a. Systemic injection test
b. Elution test
c. Direct contact test
d. Agar diffusion test

A

Systemic injection test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A test to test the tightness of cap.
I. Torque test
II. Water vapor transmission test
III. Leak test

a. I only
b. II and III
c. III only
d. I, II, and III

A

I only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following scientist invented the concept of intermittent or fractional sterilization?
a. Louis Pasteur
b. John Tyndall
c. John Needham
d. Joseph Lister

A

John Tyndall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following scientist introduced the concept of phenol coefficient?
a. Louis Pasteur
b. John Tyndall
c. John Needham
d. Joseph Lister

A

Joseph Lister

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fungi can grow on dead matter. This characteristic ability is called
a. Saprophytic
b. Parasitic
c. Commensalism
d. Co-survival

A

Saprophytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

This is the causative agent for the East African Sleeping Disease
a. T. cruzi
b. T. brucei rhodesiense
c. T. brucei gambiense
d. T. crucis

A

T. brucei rhodesiense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is the most toxic aminoglycoside derived from Streptomyces?
a. Kanamycin
b. Amikacin
c. Neomycin
d. Netilmicin

A

Neomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Wool sorter’s disease is caused by which agent?
A. Streptococcus pneuomoniae
B. Clostridium botullinum
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Staphylococcus aureus

A

Bacillus anthracis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Urethritis is caused by a bean shape diplococcus, which of the following species is it?
A. Neisseria gonorrhea
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Listeria monocytogenes

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Legionella pneumophilla commonly found in ariconditioning units can cause which of the following diseases?
A. Scarlet fever
B. Hay fever
C. Legionnaire’s disease
D. Whooping cough

A

Legionnaire’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following organism is causative agent for atypical pneumonia?

Legionella pneumoohilla
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Mycoplasma pneumonia

A. I only
B. Ill only
C. Il and III
D. I, II, and III

A

I, II, and III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Undulant fever is a type of zoonotic infection. Which genus causes undulant fever?
A. Francisella
B. Yersinia
C. Barionella
D. Brucella

A

Brucella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Plastics decomposed by microorganism are described as
A. Recyclable
B. Earth-friendly
C. Reversible
D. Biodegradable

A

Biodegradable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which priority program of the DOH aims to promote availability of quality services at health centers and hospitals?
A. Health Passport Initiative
B. Sentrong Sigla
C. National Health Objectives
D. Health Sector Reform Agenda

A

Sentrong Sigla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which priority program of the DOH aims to promote shared responsibility and partnership among health sectors and other various sectors?
A. Health Passport Initiative
B. Sentrong Sigla
C. National Health Objectives
D. Health Sector Reform Agenda

A

National Health Objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An organization aiming to provide to all people the highest possible level of health.
A. WHO
C. DOH
B. UNICEF
D. Philhealth

A

WHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

It describes the amounts of energy, proteins, minerals, and vitamins that is needed by a regular health individual.
A. RDA
B. REA
C. RAD
D. RAE

A

RDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A type of analysis where a 5 mg sample is used.
A. Macro
B. Semi-micro
C. Micro
D. Ultra-micro

A

Micro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Instrumental analysis is based on
A. weight of substance
B. distinct properties of the sample
C. volume of a standard solution
D. physicochemical properties of sample

A

physicochemical properties of sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

An analysis resulted to the following percentages 90.4, 92.6. 100.4, 97.5, and 98.2, calculate the mean % of the analysis?
A. 95.80
B. 97.50
C. 90.40
D. 100.00

A

95.80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following type of errors can cause results to become too high or too low and are often called outliers?
A. Random
B. Systematic
C. Gross
D. Determinate

A

Gross

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following overage is used to extend a product’s shelf-ife?
A. Manufacturing overage
B. Stability overage
C. Production overage
D. Quality overage

A

Stability overage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Chemicals with high purity and are used for quantitative analysis.
A. USP grade
B. Technical grade
C. Primary standard grade
D. Reagent grade

A

Reagent grade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which animal model is used for bioassays of PTH?
A. Cats
B. Mice
C. Chicken
D. Dogs

A

Dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following must be covered by standards?
I. Raw Material Specification
Il. Formula
III. Testing methods
IV. Packaging materials

A. Il only
B. I, II, IV
C. Il and IlI
D. I. Il, Ill, and IV

A

I. Il, Ill, and IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A type of defect that alters overall product acceptabilty.
A. Minor
B. Major
C. Critical
D. Outlier

A

Minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A type of sample used for one complete analaysis.
A. Test sample
B. Laboratory sample
C. Gross sample
D. Retention sample

A

Test sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Residual precipitation method
A. Mohr’s method
B. Fajan’s method
C. Thiocyanate method
D. Volhard’s method

A

Volhard’s method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following masking agents is used to suppress aluminum in order to titrate magnesium metals?
A. Triethanolamine
B. Potassium cyanide
C. Ammonium fluoride
D. Thioglycolate

A

Triethanolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following sample assay is performed directly?
A. Ferrous sulfate
B. Menadione
C. Sodium nitrate
D. Titanium dioxide

A

Ferrous sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following is a reducing agent?
A. Ceric acid
B, Potassium permanganate
C. Oxalic acid
D. lodine

A

Oxalic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following metals is masked by using KCN?
A. Ca
B. Ni
C. Mg
D. AI

A

Ni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Compound 606 was introduced by Paul Erich and is also known as which antimicrobial agent?
A. Salvarsan
B. Asphetamine
C. Salicylic acid
D. Aspergilamine

A

Salvarsan

42
Q

Which of the following heavy metals is commonly used for control of trypanosomal infections?
A. Cu
B. Hg
C. Zn
D. Sb

A

Sb

43
Q

Drug of choice of the management of leprosy
A. Ampicillin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Dapsone
D. Dactinomycin

A

Dapsone

44
Q

Which of the following is the most O2 tolerant species and causes gas gangrene?
A. Clostridium difficile
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Clostridium botulinum

A

Clostridium perfringens

45
Q

Which of the following stains is useful for staining thin-walled organism like Spirochetes?
I. Giemsa stain
II. Wright stain
lIl. Silver stain
IV. Negative stain

A. I, ll, and Ill
B. II, Ill and IV
C. I, Ill, and IV
D. I, lI, ill, and IV

A

I, ll, and Ill

46
Q

Treponema pallidum is an exception to Koch’s postulates because it cannot be grown in synthetic media. It can only be grown in which specimen?
A. Mice’s eye
B. Chimpanzee’s scrotum
C. Mice’s foot pods
D. Bat’s ear

A

Chimpanzee’s scrotum

47
Q

Which of the following scientist discovered sulfanilamide from the dye prontosil?
A. Edward Jenner
B. Alexander Fleming
C. Domagk
D. Paul Erich

A

Domagk

48
Q

Which of the following methods of microbial control uses dry heat that causes cellular oxidation?
a. Tyndallization
b. Autoclaving
c. Boiling
d. Incineration

A

Incineration

49
Q

Which of the following is a broad tapeworm infecting fish?
a. Diphyllobotrium latum
b. Taenia solium
c. Taenia saginata
d. Dipillidium caninum

A

Diphyllobotrium latum

50
Q

Which of the following anal itch resulting to insomnia among infected children is classified as pinworm?
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Trichuris trichuria
c. Strongyloides stercoralis
d. Enterobius vermicularis

A

Enterobius vermicularis

51
Q

Which of the following metals is analyzed using indirect complexation methods?
a. Al
b. Mg
c. Ca
d. Zn

A

Al

52
Q

A 20.0mL of 0.1015 N silver solution was requirred 19.6mL of potassium thiocyanate solution to reach a flesh colored endpoint. Compute for the N of the thiocyanate solution
a. 0.0995 N
b. 0.1936 N
c. 0.1036 N
d. 0.1395 N

A

0.1036 N

53
Q

Calculate the titer value of a 0.5025 M HCl solution in terms of primary standard sodium carbonate (MW =106)
a. 1.06 mg
b. 26.6 mg
c. 53.3 mg
d. 502.5 mg

A

26.6 mg

54
Q

A 5.0 g sample of sdoium carbonate (MW= 106) was analyzed for purity and requied 21.68 mL of 0.5005N standard HCl to reach endpoint. Calculate the purity of the sample.
a. 4.60%
b. 5.78%
c. 10.98%
d. 11.50%

A

11.50%

55
Q

If a sample was analyzed to contain 0.0035% Pb, how much lead in ppm is present in the sample?
a. 0.35 ppm
b. 3.50 ppm
c. 35.0 ppm
d. 350 ppm

A

35.0 ppm

56
Q

The sudden unexpected occurence of a disease in given population
a. Zoonotic
b. Pandemic
c. Sporadic
d. Outbreak

A

Outbreak

57
Q

The DOH promoted the “4 o’ clock” habit to possibly prevent spread of which disease?
a. Dengue fever
b. Malaria fever
c. Chickenpox
d. Tuberculosis

A

Dengue fever

58
Q

What type of immunity does vaccines provide to patients?
a. artificial, active immunity
b. artificial, passive immunity
c. natural, active immunity
d natural, passive immunity

A

artificial, active immunity

59
Q

The number of individuals who became ill because of a specific disease within a susceptible population within a specific time period.
a. Mortality rate
b. Morbidity rate
c. Prevalence rate
d.Incidence rate

A

Morbidity rate

60
Q

Water suitable for drinking is described as
a. Edible
b. Bacteria-free
c. Potable
d. Clean

A

Potable

61
Q

The stage in the growth cycle of bacteria that reflects the period during which vigorous metabolic activity occurs, but cells do not divide.
a. Stationary phase
b. Log phase
c, Lag phase
d. Death phase

A

Lag phase

62
Q

Influenza develops rapidly and last only for a short time. This type of infection is an example of?
a. acute
b. subacute
c. Chronic
d. Latent

A

acute

63
Q

A person asymptomatic with COVID 19 and after 6 months of initial contact thhen develops the symptoms and becomes ill. This type of infection can be categoized as:
a. acute
b. subacute
c. Chronic
d. Latent

A

Latent

64
Q

It is a widespread occurence of a disease within a country or the world within a particular time.
a. Sporadic
b. Endemic
c. Pandemic
d. Epidemic

A

Pandemic

65
Q

A disease coccuring at irregular intervals in a few places scattered and isolated
a. Sporadic
b. Endemic
c. Pandemic
d. Epidemic

A

Sporadic

66
Q

What is the allowable overage for suppositories
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 30%

A

25%

67
Q

A functional group which absorbs radiant enegry in the UV or visible regions in the spectrum
a. Chlorophyll
b. Chromophore
c. Chromatogram
d. Chlorophore

A

Chromophore

68
Q

Which of the following is the light source of visible spectrum?
a. Tungsten
b. Deuterium
c. Hydrogen
d. Xenon

A

Tungsten

69
Q

Which of the following is best used for metal analysis?
a. UV spectrophotometry
b. Atomic absorption spectroscopy
c. HPLC
d. Gas chromatography

A

Atomic absorption spectroscopy

70
Q

Which vitamin can be analzyed using molecular emission spectroscopy?
a. Vit. B1
b. Vit A
c. Vit C
d. Vit K

A

Vit. B1

71
Q

Which of the following is a specific test for tabets
I. Volatile content
II. Tablet friability
III. Powder fineness
IV. Minimum fill

a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. I, II and III
d. II, III, IV

A

I and II

72
Q

Disintegration test is used for tablets except
a. Coated tabet
b. Extended release tabet
c. Uncoated tablet
d. Multi-layer tablet

A

Extended release tabet

73
Q

A tumbing apparatus where tabets are exposed to rolling and repeated shocks.
a. Disintergration apparatus
b. Hardness tester
c. Friabilator
d. Dissolution apparatus

A

Friabilator

74
Q

What is the USP limits for tablet content uniformity in %?
a. 90-100 %
b. 90-110 %
c. 85 - 115%
d. 95 - 105 %

A

90-110 %

75
Q

Which of the following are quality assessment tools for non-sterile dosage forms specific for suppositories, troches and lozenges?
I. weight variations
II. Color of preparations
III. Clarity
IV. Appearance

a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. I and III
d. II and IV

A

II and IV

76
Q

Which test is used to differentiate Staohyllococcus and Streptococcus species?
a. Coagulase test
b. Spore staining
c. Catalase test
d. Ascot Test

A

Catalase test

77
Q

Which of the following beta- hemoytic Streptococcus species is the causative agent of scarlet fever
a. Streptococcus pyogens
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Streptococcus pneomoniae
d. Streptococcus bovis

A

Streptococcus pyogens

78
Q

Entamoeba, Giardia, and Cryptosporidium are intestinal protozoan that can be treated with which agent?
a. Metronidazole
b. Ofloxacillin
c. Amphotericin B
d. TMP-SMX

A

Metronidazole

79
Q

A malignant tertian type of malarial infection is caused by which species of malaria?
a. P. vivax
b. P falciparum
c. P ovale
d. P malariae

A

P falciparum

80
Q

Which of the following is an example of a whipworm?
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Trichuris trichuria
c. Strongyloides stercoralis
d. Enterobius vermicularis

A

Trichuris trichuria

81
Q

Which of the following is a broad-spectrum penicillin that has use in managing Pseudomonas infection?
I. Ticarcillin
II. Piperacillin
III. Ampicillin
IV. Cloxacillin

a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. I and IV
d. II and III

A

I and II

82
Q

Which of the following is the only monobactam molecule used for gram negative infection and does not pose cross allergenicity?
a. Azlocillin
b. Aztreonam
c. Mezlocillin
d. Cilastatin

A

Aztreonam

83
Q

All of the following are reagents used for acid fast staining except?
a. carbol fuschin
b. malachite green
c. acid alcohol
d. methylene blue

A

malachite green

84
Q

Which of the following is a capsulated organism that can be identified using Indian ink stain?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Tinea vesicolor

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

85
Q

Black Piedra is a fungal infection of the hair shaft and is cause by which organism?
a. Piedraia hortae
b. Exophiala wernecki
c. Tinea nigra
d. Tinea versicolor

A

Piedraia hortae

86
Q

Which of the following is correct about Koch’s postulates?
a. Organisms must only be present in disease cases among animals not humans.
b. Organism should be isolated and grown in pure culture.
c. The isolated organism may or may not develop the same disease when inoculated to other species.
d. A different organism can be isolated from the diseases test model.

A

Organism should be isolated and grown in pure culture

87
Q

Which genus of non-free-living organism causes the Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
a. Rickettsia
b. Chlamydia
c. Treponema
d. Borrelia

A

Rickettsia

88
Q

Lyme’s disease characterized by skin lesions, CNS, and heart problems is caused by which genus?
a. Borrelia
b. Bordetella
c. Leptospira
d. Giardia

A

Borrelia

89
Q

Which of the following are naked DNA viruses?
I. Parvoviridae
II. Poxviridae
III. Hepaviridae
IV. Adenoviridae

a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. II and III
d. I and IV

A

I and IV

90
Q

Kissing disease is caused by which viral organism?
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. HSV1
c. Epstein-Barr virus
d. Retrovirus

A

Epstein-Barr virus

91
Q

Which of the following is analyzed using atomic emission spectroscopy?
I. Barium
II. Lithium
III. Calcium
IV. Sodium

a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. II, III, and IV
d. I, II, III, and IV

A

I, II, III, and IV

92
Q

Bioassays for insulin and tubocurarine uses which animal model?
a. Cats
b. Rats
c. Rabbits
d. Horses

A

Rabbits

93
Q

Which of the following uses an interferometer?
a. Polarimeter
b. Refractometer
c. Fourier Transform
d. NMR

A

Fourier Transform

94
Q

Which of the following drug product is assayed via GC?
a. Vit.E
b. Vit.B2
c. Barbiturates
d. Steroids

A

Vit.E

95
Q

All of the following are assayed using HPLC, except
a. Penicillin
b. Cod liver oil
c. Folic acid
d. Steroids

A

Steroids

96
Q

Which of the following analytes are analyzed using precipitimetric methods?
I. Halides
II. Silver
III. Copper
IV. Theophylline

a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. I, II, and IV
d. II, III, and IV

A

I, II, and IV

97
Q

An example of adsorption indicator.
a. Ferric alum
b. Phenolphthalein
c. Eosin Y
d. Eriochrome black

A

Eosin Y

98
Q

Which of the following is a unidentate molecule?
a. EDTA
b. Water
c. Glycine
D. Nitrilotriacetic acid

A

Water

99
Q

A heat of 1400°C is described as
a. White heat
b. Yellow red heat
c. Dull red heat
d. Bright red heat

A

White heat

100
Q

Which of the following sample is assayed for ash content via direct ignition?
a. Magnesium oxide
b. Aurothioglucose
c. Na amobarbital
d. Barium sulfate

A

Magnesium oxide

Samplex Module 6 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions