Mod1 Flashcards

1
Q

How Many branches of Government did the Constitution establish?

A

Three

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2
Q

What was the predecessor to the Constitution?

A

The Articles of the Confederation

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3
Q

Where are all federal-level laws enacted?

A

Congress

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4
Q

In which article of the Constitution is the power to raise taxes found?

A

Article 1

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5
Q

What occurs when Congress is not in session and the President does not sign a properly-presented enrolled bill within 10 days?

A

Pocket Veto

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6
Q

How frequently does Congress review the DoD budget request?

A

Annually

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7
Q

Approximately what percentage of total federal spending is discretionary spending?

A

Thirty percent (30%)

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8
Q

Which branch of Government implements laws?

A

Executive Branch

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9
Q

Which branch of Government is authorized to raise taxes and borrow money?

A

Legislative Branch (Congress)

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10
Q

Which committee attempts to resolve differences between House and Senate versions of a bill?

A

The Conference Committee, sometimes referred to as “The Third Chamber”

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11
Q

Which agency issues directions for use by other agencies in submitting their budget estimates?

A

Office of Management and Budget

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12
Q

What type of legislation provides an agency with budget authority?

A

Appropriation Acts provide budget authority

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13
Q

What term is used to describe a subdivision of an apportionment?

A

Allotment

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14
Q

What agency issues apportionments?

A

Office of Management and Budget (OMB)

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15
Q

Which branch of Government conducts hearings on the effectiveness of Government programs?

A

Legislative Branch (Congress)

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16
Q

In the federal budget process, which organizations actually prepare budget estimates?

A

Federal Agencies

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17
Q

What is the largest single source of Federal Government tax revenues?

A

Individual Income Taxes (50% in 2020)

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18
Q

What are requests for funds in addition to amounts already appropriated called?

A

Supplemental

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19
Q

What financial control document is issued by the Treasury Department following signature of the Appropriations Act?

A

Appropriation Warrant

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20
Q

What term describes a postponement in the use of appropriated funds?

A

Deferral

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21
Q

What term describes a cancellation of appropriated funds?

A

Rescission

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22
Q

After the DoD Appropriations Bill is signed into law, what does DoD request from OMB?

A

Apportionment

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23
Q

An administrative reservation of funds is known as what?

A

Commitment

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24
Q

What gives a federal agency the legal authority to operate a program?

A

Authorization Legislation

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25
Q

Article 1, section 8, Clause 1 of the U.S. Constitution empowers which branch of the Federal Government to collect taxes?

A

The Legislative Branch

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26
Q

OMB stands for?

A

Office of Management and Budget

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27
Q

Where can the rules for calculating FTE employment be found?

A

OMB Circular A-11

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28
Q

What term is used to refer to the totality of units in a DoD component?

A

Force Structure

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29
Q

What term is used to refer to the authorized and programmed strength at the end of the fiscal year for the active forces, the Selected Reserve, and the appropriated-fund civilian employees in the FYDP?

A

Peacetime Strength

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30
Q

What process involves assembling, organizing, and using manpower and material resources in preparation of war or other emergency?

A

Mobilization

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31
Q

What is the maximum number of days that units of the Selected Reserve and members of the Individual Ready Reserve may be ordered to active duty (other than for training) without the consent of Congress?

A

365

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32
Q

What is the maximum number of members of the Selected Reserve and the Individual Ready Reserve who may be on duty at any one time? Of these, what is the maximum number who may be members of the Individual Ready Reserve?

A

200,000: 30,000

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33
Q

What term is used to describe a civilian who could be deployed to a crisis area?

A

Emergency Essential Employee (E-E)

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34
Q

What types of activities are excluded from competition under OMB Circular A-76?

A

Inherently Governmental

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35
Q

How frequently must federal agencies compile lists of activities that are not inherently governmental?

A

Annually

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36
Q

What kind of activity is so intimately related to the public interest as to mandate performance by federal employees?

A

Inherently Governmental Activity

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37
Q

What is one of the exceptions to the ban on gifts from outside sources?

A

The value of the gift is $20.00 or less

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38
Q

FYDP is?

A

Future Years Defense Program (FYDP)

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39
Q

What is the name of the Department’s internal control effort?

A

Manager’s Internal Control Program

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40
Q

The purposes of the Federal Managers’ Financial Integrity Act of 1982 are to prevent waste or misuse of agency funds or property and to assure the accountability of what?

A

Assets

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41
Q

What do internal controls reasonably ensure?

A

Programs achieve intended results; Resources are used efficiently; Programs/resources are protected from waste, fraud and mismanagement; Laws and regulations are followed; Financial reporting is reliable and accurate

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42
Q

What agency issues “Standards for Internal Control in the Federal Government”?

A

Government Accountability Office (GAO)

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43
Q

Segregation of duties is a type of which internal control standard?

A

Control Activities

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44
Q

The Financial Managers Financial Integrity Act report must include agency plans to correct what type of weakness?

A

Material Weakness

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45
Q

Who decides whether a weakness is material enough to warrant reporting as a “material weakness” to the next higher level?

A

It is a management judgment

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46
Q

What should be the last milestone of the corrective action plan for each material weakness?

A

Correction Validation

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47
Q

The DoD component head’s Statement of Assurance must take one of how many forms?

A

Three

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48
Q

How many components are there in the GAO Standards of Internal Controls?

A

Five

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49
Q

For what program is the full scope of management responsibility defined in DoD instruction 5010.40?

A

DoD’s Managers’ Internal Control Program

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50
Q

When a DoD component head provides a Statement of Assurance that the component’s controls are in place and achieving their intended objectives, is this a statement of absolute assurance or reasonable assurance?

A

Reasonable Assurance

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51
Q

What is the term for the probable or potential adverse effects from inadequate internal control that may result in the loss of Government resources or cause an agency to fail to accomplish significant mission objectives through fraud, waste, or mismanagement?

A

Risk

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52
Q

What kind of weakness significantly impairs the fulfillment of a DoD component’s mission?

A

Material Weakness

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53
Q

True or False: The July 15, 2016 updated version of OMB Circular A-123 requires CFO Act Agencies to hire a Chief Risk Officer for the purpose of establishing an Enterprise Risk Management capability within the agency.

A

FALSE

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54
Q

What are the two major categories of control areas included in GAO’s Federal Information System Controls Audit Manual (FISCAM)?

A

General and Business Process Application Controls

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55
Q

What are the 3 documents that are the genesis of the US Federal Legislative process?

A

Declaration of Independence
Articles of Confederation
Constitution

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56
Q

What are the 4 major events that are the genesis of the US Federal legislative process?

A

Declaration of Independence adopted July 4, 1776
Articles of Confederation ratified March 1, 1781
Constitution ratified by 9 states on June 1788
Constitution took effect on March 4, 1789

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57
Q

When was the Declaration of Independence adopted?

A

July 4, 1776

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58
Q

When were the Articles of Confederation ratified?

A

March 1, 1781

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59
Q

When was the Constitution ratified? And by how many states?

A

June 1788 and by 9 states

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60
Q

When did the Constitution take effect?

A

March 4, 1789

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61
Q

What was notable about the Articles of Confederation?

A

Precursor to the Constitution
Explicit in guarding the independence of the States
Did not provide for a Federal Chief Executive or Judicial System

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62
Q

What are 3 ways that the Constitution defines the fundamental of the US Federal Government?

A

Sets forth the 3 principal branches
Outlines their jurisdictions
Propounding the basic rights of the US Citizen

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63
Q

What was one of the main purposes of the Constitution?

A

The Constitution established the 3 branches of Government and defined their roles

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64
Q

What is the essential principle of the constitution?

A

The essential principle of the Constitution is that the Government must be confined to the rule of law.

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65
Q

What does Article 1, Section 8 of the Constitution state?

A

Art 1, Sect 8 states - Congress shall have the authority ‘To make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution (the various powers allotted to the Federal Government by the Constitution)’

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66
Q

What is one of the most important excerpts from the Preamble?

A

We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defense, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.

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67
Q

What is the purpose of Article 1 of the Constitution?

A

Article 1 establishes the Legislative Branch of the Federal Government.

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68
Q

What is the main purpose of Article 1 Section 1 of the Constitution?

A

Article 1 Section 1 states in part ‘All legislative Powers herein granted shall be vested in a Congress of the United States, which shall consist of a Senate and House of Representatives.’

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69
Q

What is the main purpose of Article 1 Section 2 of the Constitution?

A

Article 1 Section 2 states that ‘The House of Representatives shall be composed of members chosen every second Year by the People of the several States, and the Electors in each State shall have the Qualification requisite for Electors of the most numerous Branch of the State Legislature.’

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70
Q

What is the main purpose of Article 1 Section 3 of the Constitution?

A

Article 1 Section 3 states ‘The Senate of the United States shall be composed of 2 Senators from each State, (Chosen by the Legislature thereof) for 6 years and each Senator shall have one Vote.’

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71
Q

The way that Senators were chosen changed in what year and how?

A

Senators were to be chosen by the people vice the legislature due to the 17th Amendment to the Constitution ratified in 1913.

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72
Q

What is the main purpose of Article 1 Section 7 of the Constitution?

A

Article 1 Section 7 states ‘All bills for raising Revenue shall originate in the House of Representatives, but the Senate may propose or concur with Amendments as on other Bills.’

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73
Q

What is the main purpose of Article 1 Section 8 of the Constitution?

A

Article 1 Section 8 States ‘The Congress shall have power to lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defense and general Welfare of the United States: but (all) shall be uniform throughout the United States’

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74
Q

What are 10 functions granted by Article 1 Section 8 of the Constitution?

A

The 10 functions granted by Article 1 Section 8 are:
Borrow money on the credit of the United States
Regulate Commerce with foreign Nations, and among the several States, and with the Indian Tribes
Coin Money, regulate the Value thereof, and of foreign Coin, and fix the standard of Weights and Measures
Constitute Tribunals inferior to the Supreme Court
Declare War, grant Letters of Marque and Reprisal, and make rules concerning Captures on Land and Water
Raise and support Armies, but no Appropriation of Money to that Use shall be for a longer Term than 2 years
Provide and maintain a Navy
Make Rules of rate Government and Regulation of the land and naval Forces
Provide for calling forth the Militia to execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections and repel Invasions
Make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution the foregoing Powers, and all other Powers vested by this Constitution in the Government of the United States, or in and Department or Officer thereof.

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75
Q

What is the main purpose of Article 1 Section 9 of the Constitution?

A

Article 1 Section 9 states ‘No money shall be drawn from the Treasury, but in Consequence of Appropriations made by Law; and a regular Statement and Account of Receipts and Expenditures of all public Money shall be published from time to time.’

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76
Q

What is the main purpose of Article 2 of the constitution?

A

Article 2 of the Constitution establishes the Executive Branch of the Federal Government and directs the President to execute laws

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77
Q

What are the main points of the first 3 sections of Article 2?

A

Article 2 Section 1 - The President us the United States of America shall hold his Office during the term of 4 years
Article 2 Section 2 - The President shall be Commander in Chief..
Article 2 Section 2 - Shall from time to time give to the Congress Information of the State of the Union, and recommend to the Consideration such measures as he shall judge necessary…

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78
Q

What is the main purpose of Article 3 of the Constitution?

A

Article 3 establishes the Judicial Branch of the Federal Government.

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79
Q

What are the 2 main roles of the Judicial Branch?

A

The Judicial branch main roles are to be the Supreme Court and to interpret law

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80
Q

Who establishes inferior courts?

A

The Legislative Branch establishes all courts inferior to the Supreme Court

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81
Q

What is the purpose of Article 3 Section 1 of the Constitution?

A

Article 3 Section 1 states ‘the judicial Power of the United States, shall be vested in on supreme Court, and in such inferior Courts… the Judges .. Shall hold their Offices during good Behavior… receive for their Services a Compensation which shall not be diminished during their Continuance in Office

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82
Q

What is the purpose of Article 3 Section 2 of the Constitution?

A

Article 3 Section 2 states ‘the judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution, the Laws of the United States, and Treaties made, or which shall be made, under their Authority..’

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83
Q

What are the 4 types of legislative documents that congress uses?

A

The 4 types of documents that are used in Congress are:
Bills
Joint Resolutions
Concurrent Resolutions
Simple Resolutions

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84
Q

Which types of documents from Congress go to the President for signature?

A

Congress sends bills and Joint Resolutions to the President for signature

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85
Q

What does Congress use in order to propose an amendment to the Constitution?

A

Congress proposes amendments to the Constitution using Joint Resolutions

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86
Q

What are the 3 ways that legislation is introduced into Congress?

A

The 3 ways that legislation may be introduced into Congress are from:
Recommendations by the President
Introduced by Members either the Senate or the House
Introduced by Committees of either the Senate or the House

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87
Q

What does one have to do in order to introduce a bill to Congress?

A

In order to introduce a bill to Congress a bill must be placed in the ‘Hopper’.

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88
Q

Where is the first place a bill goes when introduced to Congress?

A

All bills introduced to Congress must first go to the appropriate committee

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89
Q

What is usually the first step when considering a bill in committee?

A

When considering a bill in committee the first step is usually public hearings

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90
Q

After the committee hears all public opinion what is the next phase for a bill that is being considered?

A

After the public hearings the next phase is popularly known as the ‘mark up’ session.

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91
Q

If a bill has been marked up or amended extensively and the committee decides to completely rewrite the bill with all changes and a new number, what is the bill then called?

A

When a bill has been extensively marked up and rewritten as a new bill with a new number, that bill is now called a ‘clean bill’.

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92
Q

After a bill is marked up / amended or rewritten what happens to it?

A

After a bill has been marked up / amended or rewritten the bill is voted upon by the committee or subcommittee and can be reported (with or without amendments, tabled (which means no further action will be taken) or rewritten (clean bill is created and has a new number)

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93
Q

What is the label for a bill that has passed one part of Congress (House or Senate) but not yet passed the second?

A

The identifier for a bill that has passed one body of Congress but not yet the other is called an ‘engrossed’ bill.

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94
Q

When a bill is not acceptable to one body of Congress or the other and must be resolved, what entity is called upon to resolve the differences and what is a common term for it?

A

When a bill cannot be reconciled between both bodies of Congress it must go to a combined committee called a Conference Committee which is commonly referred to as the ‘Third Chamber’ of Congress

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95
Q

Who decides what members will comprise the Conference Committee?

A

Conference Committees are selected by the ranking majority and minority members of the committees and may include committee and non-committee members.

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96
Q

What is the identifier of a bill that has passed both bodies of Congress?

A

After a bill has passed both parts of Congress and is to be sent to the President it is called an ‘enrolled’ bill.

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97
Q

What 4 actions does the President have after receipt of a bill passed by Congress?

A

Once the President receives a bill passed by Congress, the President must:
Approve the bill by signing
Not sign the bill but it still becomes law if sits for 10 days while congress is still in session
if Congress has adjourned then the President may allow the bill to remain unsigned and it is stagnant
Veto the bill and send it back to Congress

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98
Q

May Congress overrule the Presidential Veto and how?

A

The bill goes back to the originating body of congress and can be passed with a 2/3 majority vote be sent to the other body and if passed with a 2/3 majority vote there will become law without the Presidents signature.

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99
Q

what are the 3 phases of the Budget Process / cycle?

A

The 3 main phases of the budget process or cycle are:
Budget Formulation
Congressional Action
Budget Execution

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100
Q

What are the 6 steps of the budget formulation phase?

A

The 6 steps of the budget formulation phase are:
OMB Issues Guidance
Organization develops draft
Agency submits budget estimates to OMB
OMB holds hearings on Agency budgets
President makes final decisions on Agency budgets
President transmits the budget to Congress

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101
Q

What legislation (law) requires the President to submit the budget of the federal government for the next FY?

A

the 1974 Congressional Budget Act requires the President to submit the budget for the next FY NLT the 1st Monday in February.

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102
Q

What documentation governs the budget formulation phase?

A

The budget formulation process is governed by OMB Circular A-11

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103
Q

Inside the DoD what is the process that is used to formulate the budget?

A

The DoD use the Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution (PPBE) process to formulate the DoD portion of the Presidents budget.

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104
Q

When is the Presidents budget submitted to Congress for consideration?

A

NLT the first Monday in February

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105
Q

when must an Agency submit their budget to OMB?

A

All other Executive Agencies are required to submit their budget to OMB in September, however, DoD does not submit until mid-January.

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106
Q

What is the DoD budget having done to it from September to Mid-January when it must be submitted to OMB?

A

From September to Mid-January the OSD and senior OMB budget examiners conduct an review of the submissions from the services and defense agencies called the ‘fall review’.

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107
Q

Who submits the DoD budget?

A

The USD(C) submits the DoD budget on behalf of the SECDEF.

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108
Q

After OMB reviews the submissions from the agencies, what happens?

A

The Director of OMB provides a letter to the Director of each Agency with changes to funding, or adjustments to Agency budgets. This letter is called the OMB ‘Passback’

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109
Q

Can Passback results be appealed? And by whom to whom?

A

Passback results can be appealed to the President by the Agency Head.

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110
Q

What are the 4 steps for the decision process for the budget for the President?

A

1 as portions of the review are completed, OMB Director’s recommendations, together with those of the Agency are placed before the President
2 when President makes decision Agencies are notified
3 Revisions of the individual budget schedules for each agency are completed, and the figures from the revised schedules are summarized by agency
4 Figures are consolidated to make up overall summary tables that present agencies with final revenue estimates prepared by the Treasury Department and set forth in the Government-wide budget totals.

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111
Q

What is the name of the Act that drives the Congressional Action concerning the Federal budget process?

A

The congressional process is driven by the Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act of 1974.

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112
Q

Has the Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act of 1974 been amended and what was the name of that legislation?

A

The congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act of 1974 was amended by the Gramm, Rudman, Hollings Budget Control Act and its amendments

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113
Q

What are the 3 main actions to from the Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act of 1974?

A

Congress focuses on overall budget totals and relates individual appropriation actions to one another within a general set of spending priorities
New budget committee was established in each house and a new, professionally staffed Congressional Budget Office (CBO) was also established
Fiscal year shifted from July/June to October 1/September 30. This action was designed to give Congress additional time to complete action on the Federal budget.

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114
Q

What are the 3 separate, but related, processes that occur in eh Congress associated with the congressional action phase of the budget process?

A

The Budget Resolution Process
The Authorization Process
The Appropriation Process

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115
Q

During the congressional action phase testimony is received from what groups?

A

During the congressional action phase committees and subcommittees hold separate hearings to review the justifications from each agency and receive testimony from:
Members of Congress
Representatives of Federal departments and agencies
General public
Organizations that the committees deem appropriate

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116
Q

Who manages the budget resolution step of the congressional action phase?

A

the House and Senate budget committees manage the budget resolution step

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117
Q

Who provides the analysis that is used by the House and Senate budget committees?

A

the Congressional Budget Office (CBO) provides analysis that is used in conjunction with other data

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118
Q

What is the date that the House and Senate budget committees should receive reports from all other congressional committees on their respective views and estimates?

A

The House and Senate budget committees should receive reports not March 15.

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119
Q

What are the reports that should be received NLT March 15 by the House and Senate budget committees on the respective views and estimates?

A

The reports received from all other congressional committees on the respective views and estimates of the appropriate levels of:
Total budget outlays
Total new budget authority
public debt (art 1, Sect 8 gives Congress the power to ‘borrow money on the credit of the United States’)
Surplus or deficit
Federal revenues

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120
Q

What is another of the functions of the Congressional Budget Office?

A

The Congressional Budget Office provides support thru Scorekeeping.

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121
Q

What is scorekeeping accomplished by the Congressional Budget Office (CBO)?

A

Scorekeeping is the process of estimating the budgetary effects of pending legislation and comparing them to a baseline such as the budget resolution or to any limits that may be set in law.

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122
Q

What is a concurrent budget resolution (CBR) and who generates it?

A

Each House and Senate budget committee drafts a budget resolution to eventually be passed by both houses. The end product of this is a Concurrent Budget Resolution (CBR) which represents a very high-level overall budget plan that includes revenue and spending.

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123
Q

What is the culmination of the first step in the Congressional budget process and who authorizes it?

A

The Concurrent Budget Resolution (CBR) does NOT require the signature of the President and signifies the culmination of the first step of the Congressional budget process.

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124
Q

What are the 3 main goals of the Concurrent Budget Resolution?

A

The Concurrent Budget Resolution (CBR) fixes max for the new budget authority and sets outlay targets (total of checks issued, interest on Federal Debt, or other payments) for the budget as a whole and for the various major functions of the Federal Government.
Establishes targets for the Gross National Debt, Federal revenues, and the surplus or deficit.
Is used to develop a joint explanatory statement that includes estimated allocation of the budget total to each committee having jurisdiction over spending or revenue measures. Appropriations committees then subdivide the allocations among subcommittees.

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125
Q

What is the 2nd step in the congressional budget process and what does it do?

A

The 2nd step in the congressional budget process is the Authorization Process and the output may be considered ‘enabling’ or ‘organic’ legislation that creates an agency, establishes a program, or prescribes a function.

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126
Q

May funding be provided during the Authorization process?

A

(in rare situations) Generally, the authorization process does not give an agency the authority to obligate funds or permit the withdrawal of funds from the US Treasury, only the appropriation act permits those actions

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127
Q

What is the name of the authorization for the DoD?

A

The DoD is authorized every year by the National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA)

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128
Q

What are the names of the Committees that manage the authorization process for DoD?

A

The House Armed Services Committee (HASC) and the Senate Armed Services Committee (SASC) manage the Authorization process for DoD.

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129
Q

There are 7 House and Senate Authorization Committees, they are?

A

HASC & SASC,
Permanent Select Committee on Intelligence (House)
Select Committee on Intelligence (Senate)
Energy and Natural Resources Committee (Senate)
Energy and Commerce Committee (House)
Environment and Public Works (Senate)

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130
Q

The third/final step in congressional budget process is called?

A

The third/final step in the congressional budget process is called the Appropriations Process

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131
Q

Are appropriations required to follow funding ceilings dictated in authorization bills?

A

The appropriations committees generally follow the lead on the authorizing committees but are not required to, and often do not, adhere to funding ceilings set in the authorization bills.

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132
Q

What are the 3 main congressional actions on appropriations?

A

OSD prepares and submits justification, providing detailed information to support the President’s budget requests for consideration by the appropriations committees and their subcommittees
Justification material presented to the Committees generally is the same type of material earlier given to OSD but is revised to reflect the President’s decisions on the budget
Agency witnesses appear before Appropriations Subcommittees to explain the estimates and answer questions.

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133
Q

What are the 2 main committees that control the appropriations process and how many subcommittees are a part of them?

A

The House and Senate Appropriations Committees (HAC & SAC) are responsible for the 12 Appropriations and have that number subcommittees

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134
Q

How many appropriations are there and what are they called?

A

The 12 annual Appropriations are:
Agriculture, Rural Development, Food & Drug Administration, and related agencies
Commerce, Justice, Science, and related agencies
Energy and Water Development, and related agencies
Defense
Homeland Security
Labor, Health & Human Services, Education, and related agencies
State, Foreign Operations, and related agencies
Military Construction, Veterans Affairs, and related agencies
Interior, Environment, and related agencies
Transportation, Housing & Urban Development, and related agencies
Financial Services and General Government
Legislative Branch

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135
Q

What is the process for changing revenue laws? And who are they referred to?

A

Requests to change revenue laws, which are referred to the Ways and Means Committee in the House and to the Finance Committee in the Senate, follow the same pattern as to appropriations bills in the HAC & SAC

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136
Q

What are the 3 main Appropriations Acts that concern DoD?

A

The 3 appropriations subcommittees in each house that directly impact DoD are the:
Appropriations Subcommittee on Defense, which drafts same named Bill
Appropriations Subcommittee on Military Construction/Veterans Affairs, which drafts same named Bill
Energy and Water Development subcommittee, which appropriations bills such as those that provide money to the Department of Energy for military purposes (e.g. nuclear fuel and nuclear warheads) and for the Army Corps of Engineers Civil Work projects

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137
Q

Are agencies able to appeal the actions taken on the budget by House and Senate authorization and appropriations committees? And what document dictates that process? And who does the appeal come from?

A

The Secretary of Defense may address a letter to the Chairman of the correct committee as dictated by DoD FMR 7000.14R, Volume 2A Paragraph 010406. The agency may submit an appeals package that may be referred to in that letter - 1 page for each action being appealed.

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138
Q

What is the difference between a Budget Amendment and a Supplemental Request?

A

Both documents are submitted to congress by the agency, however a budget amendment is an estimate that amends (revises) a budget estimate transmitted previously and on which Congress has not completed action, and a supplemental request is a request to provide funds in addition to amounts already appropriated for the ongoing fiscal year. Congress may not consider a supplemental request that would exceed the limits of the most recently approved concurrent resolution on the budget.

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139
Q

What happens if the budget process is not complete prior to October 1, the first day of the new fiscal year? And what can be done to avoid negative consequences?

A

If the process is not complete prior to the start of the fiscal year, the federal government is required to shut down. The only way to avoid this is thru the use of stopgap measures or temporary short term appropriation legislation called Continuing Resolutions.

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140
Q

What are some caveats to a continuing resolution?

A

A CR provides budget authority for specific ongoing activities for a specific period of time and congress can extend.
CRs are at the rate of the previous fiscal year, no new contracts may be entered increasing rate.
Extensions may run beyond the session of congress.
Portions can continue for the entire fiscal year
The regular appropriation, when enacted, supersedes the continuing resolution
Because a CR provides appropriated funds, those funds are also required to be apportioned by OMB.

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141
Q

What happens when the President signs an appropriation bill?

A

When the President signs the appropriation bill, it becomes an act (a law)

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142
Q

What are the 3 main restrictions concerning the availability of Budgetary Resources?

A

Purpose, Time, and Amount (PTA) are the 3 main restrictions when utilizing budgetary resources.

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143
Q

What is budget authority and how is it granted?

A

Budget authority is distributed to agencies by OMB as part of the apportionment process

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144
Q

What is the first step (key event) once the appropriation is signed into law aka the Budget Execution Phase? And when must it happen?

A

The first step after the appropriation is signed into law initiating the Budget Execution Phase, that must happen as soon as possible it that the Department of Treasury issues Appropriation Warrants (FMS form 6200) aka Treasury Warrants

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145
Q

What does FMS stand for and what is the FMS form 6200 used for?

A

FMS stands for Financial Management System (Department of Treasury) and the FMS form 6200 is the Treasury Warrant or Appropriation Warrant that grants appropriation authority to OMB.

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146
Q

What does budget authority become and when?

A

Budget authority, once apportioned by OMB becomes the authority to obligate, or ‘obligation authority’

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147
Q

What is the second key event in the budget execution phase?

A

Within 10 days after the appropriations act is signed into law by the President OSD/OMB negotiates apportionments (OSD must request apportionment via form SF-132) OMB has 30 days after the appropriations act passage to effect apportionment.

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148
Q

For the DoD what is the 3rd key event of the budget execution phase?

A

as soon as practical after apportionment by OMB the OSD allocates o Military Departments with a funds authorization document (FAD). The Military Departments then allot to subordinate units. OSD allots to Defense Agencies

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149
Q

What key event in the budget execution phase happens continuously throughout the fiscal year?

A

OSD and military departments obligate for goods and services

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150
Q

What key event in the budget execution phase happens throughout the FY but especially quarterly?

A

OSD monitors/reports financial activity and assesses performance against objectives. Agency controls obligations within allotted budget authority.

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151
Q

What key event in the budget execution phase happens quarterly?

A

OSD reports to OMB the status of expenditures using the SF-133

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152
Q

What key event in the budget execution phase happens mid-year?

A

Comprehensive reviews of all performance indicators are conducted throughout DoD and programs are adjusted as required.

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153
Q

What key event in the budget execution phase happens throughout the FY?

A

Programs are adjusted to meet emerging conditions. Agencies/DoD reprograms/transfers funds with proper approvals.

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154
Q

What key event in the budget execution phase happens end of fiscal year?

A

OSD through services completes year-end closeout

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155
Q

Is the same budget execution phase used for both full appropriations and continuing resolutions?

A

No, a different warrant procedure is used if under continuing resolution. TD usually require that temporary warrants be prepared by the agency.

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156
Q

What is the first key event of the budget execution phase dictated by?

A

Apportionment, required by 31 USC 1512, is part of the government-wide system for administrative control of appropriations and funds.

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157
Q

What is another name for the SF-132?

A

The SF-132 submitted to OMB is also called an initial apportionment request

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158
Q

When is OMB required to act on the apportionment request?

A

OMB is required to act on the apportionment request within 30 days after the approval of the act providing new budget authority by the President.

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159
Q

What is the guiding principal behind the ‘purpose’ part of the ADA?

A

Funds may be obligated and expended only for the purposes authorized in appropriations acts or other laws.

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160
Q

What is the guiding principal behind the ‘time’ part of the ADA?

A

the period of time that budgetary resources may incur new obligations (ie order new goods or services) is different from the period of time during which the budgetary resources may be used to incur expenditures (eg pay bills)

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161
Q

What is the guiding principal behind the ‘amount’ part of the ADA?

A

Obligations and expenditures may not exceed the amounts established in law

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162
Q

what are the steps of the budget execution phase from start to finish?

A

Appropriations bill passed in identical form by both House and Senate
President’s signature
Treasury issues Appropriation Warrant
Agencies submit SF-132 and OMB issues apportionment
Agencies issue allotments
allotments are distributed via suballotments
obligations, then commitments, then outlays/disbursements occur

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163
Q

May the President withhold funds from appropriations without sufficient reason and why?

A

The President may not withhold funds without sufficient reason due to the Impoundment Control Act of 1974

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164
Q

Are there any reasons why the President may withhold funds from lawful appropriations?

A

Yes, due to the Impoundment Control Act of 1974 the President may withhold funds for programmatic or technical reasons.

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165
Q

What are the 2 reasons how the President may withhold funds from lawful appropriations?

A

The 2 reasons how the President may withhold funds from lawful appropriations are thru the use of deferrals or postponement of funds and rescission or cancellation of funds.

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166
Q

Where are the codifications for rescissions and deferrals?

A

The codifications for rescissions and deferrals are rescissions - 2 USC 683 and deferrals 2 USC 684

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167
Q

What are some stipulations concerning deferrals?

A

The President is required to send a notice to the appropriate committees in the event of a proposed deferral
these deferrals may be made either as reserves ‘to provide for contingencies’ under the Antideficiency Act of for other reasons under the Impoundment Control Act
the amounts deferred through the apportionment are withheld from obligation temporarily, until released by OMB. Amounts deferred must be released (ie apportioned) to the receiving agency in sufficient time prior to the funds going into an ‘expired’ status to allow the funds be obligated.

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168
Q

What must be known about rescissions within the budget execution phase?

A

Funds may be held pending congressional action on a proposal by the President that authority to obligate such funds be rescinded(cancelled).
As with deferrals, congress must be notified.
Congress has 45 days of session to complete action or the funds must be made available for obligation.

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169
Q

What are the 4 guiding documents (laws / regulations) for DoD Agency management of funds?

A

The 4 guiding laws / regulations for agency management of funds for DoD are
31 USC 1514
OMB Circular A-123, Appendix D
Compliance with the FFMIA of 1996
DoD FMR Volume 14

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170
Q

What does 31 USC 1514 require?

A

31 USC 1514 requires the official having administrative control of an appropriation to prescribe by regulation a system of administrative control consistent with account procedures prescribed under law. The system shall be designed to:
Restrict obligations or expenditures from each appropriation to the amount of apportionments or reapportionments of the appropriation.
Enable the official or the head of the executive agency to fix responsibility for an obligation or expenditure exceeding and an apportionment or reapportionment.

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171
Q

What does OMB Circulate A-123 Appendix D accomplish?

A

OMB Circular A-123, Appendix D issues requirements for the Executive Branch to implement 31 USC 1514

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172
Q

What does DoD FMR Volume 14 accomplish?

A

DoD FMR Volume 14 issues DoD actions to implement 31 USC 1415

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173
Q

Where are funds allotted?

A

Agencies distribute funds within the agency by allotment and suballotment.

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174
Q

What is the concept behind fund allotments?

A

The concept behind fund allotments is to place operational and obligational authority at the lower practical level to increase the likelihood of effective management.

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175
Q

What dictates the requirement for the use of funds for the purpose intended?

A

The Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act of 1974 makes it clear that appropriated funds must be used for the purpose specified by congress via the appropriation.

176
Q

what is a commitment? What does it do? And what does it provide the vehicle for?

A

A Commitment is an administrative reservation of funds based on a firm procurement request, orders, directives, and equivalent instrument.

177
Q

Who must sign a commitment and why?

A

A commitment document is signed by a person authorized to reserve funds aka have administrative control of funds.

178
Q

What is an obligation?

A

An obligation is a legal reservation of funds. It is the amount of orders placed, contracts awarded, services received, and similar transactions during an accounting period that will require payment during the same period or future periods.

179
Q

what is the resource management and contracting process in the DoD?

A

There are 6 steps to the contracting process from the suballotment level:
Program office submits a PR/MIPR/PO to comptroller office
The comptroller issues a certification to the contracting officer (KO). The is the fiduciary certification and is the basis of a commitment
The KO receives the certification and signs the contract - obligating the funds, sends a copy to DFAS and provides reports to comptroller
the contractor performs work, incurs costs, submits invoice to the certifying officer (CO)
the CO certifies payment is accurate and forwards to DFAS who disburses/outlays. This is the pecuniary certification as the CO is personally liable for improper payment.
DFAS makes payment / outlays and reports the expenditure to the us treasury.

180
Q

What must budget analysts at the agency maintain an awareness of and when do they report that awareness?

A

Budget analysts at the agency must maintain an awareness of 5 items:
unapportioned appropriations (funds appropriated but not apportioned by OMB) ie rescissions and deferrals
unallotted apportionments (funds apportioned but not allotted by the agency) ie held in reserve not yet suballotted
Unobligated allotments (funds allotted but not yet obligated) ie remaining balance
unliquidated obligations (funds obligated but not yet outlayed) ie undelivered order
expended appropriation (portion of the total appropriation for which goods and services are received or benefits provided. Subsequent payment to the vendor is called a disbursement or outlay. ie spend rate

181
Q

How does the agency report to congress quarterly and what does it report?

A

The agency submits an SF-133 (Standard Form) to OMB quarterly which covers each open year.

182
Q

What is the short version of the complete budget execution process?

A

Congress appropriates
OMB Apportions
Agency requests via SF-132 and receives allotment
Agency Sub allots, Commits, Obligates & Outlays

183
Q

What are the monitoring requirements for DoD and what sets those requirements?

A

DoD FMR Volume 14 issues DoD actions to implement 31 USC 1415 which include:
Administrative control of funds
Reporting of actual results
assessment of applicability of those results to the preparation of future plans, programs, and budget
supply of financial information to DoD managers

184
Q

How does Congress maintain oversight on the budget execution phase via performance review and audit?

A

The Congress maintains oversight of the Budget execution phase via performance review and audit thru:
Conducting hearings on the effectiveness of programs
Conducts financial and program audits through the Government Accountability Office (GAO)

185
Q

How Does DoD and other Agencies satisfy their accountability to congress during the budget execution phase?

A

DoD and other agencies:
Conduct financial and program audits
Conduct management and internal control reviews
Testify before Congress on effectiveness of programs

186
Q

What is an additional aw that specifies financial requirements?

A

The Chief Financial Officers Act of 1990 specifies organization and reporting requirements to improve government-wide financial management

187
Q

What is the cyclical process that forms the basis of the federal budget process?

A

The federal budget process is a cyclical process that is required by the Government Performance and Results Act (GPRA). The 3 phases are:
Budget Formulation
Budget Execution
Congressional Review
They are guided by the GPRA that requires:
Strategic Planning
Performance Planning and Goal Setting
Performance Reporting

188
Q

What is the definition of the Budget Execution Term - Borrowing authority?

A

Borrowing authority is authority that permits agencies to incur obligations and make payments to liquidate the obligation out of moneys borrowed from the Treasury.

189
Q

What is the definition of the Budget Execution Term - budget authority?

A

Congress provides budget authority in an appropriations act. This is the authority to enter into obligations that will result in outlays.

190
Q

What is the definition of the Budget Execution Term - budget deficit?

A

The budget deficit is the amount by which the government’s budget outlays exceed its budget receipts for any given period. Deficits are financed primarily by borrowing from the public.

191
Q

What is the definition of the Budget Execution Term - Budget totals?

A

budget totals are the totals included in the budget for budget authority, outlays, and receipts.

192
Q

What is the definition of the Budget Execution Term - On-budget total?

A

On-budget totals reflect the transactions of all federal government entities, except those excluded from the budget totals by law.

193
Q

What is the definition of the Budget Execution Term - off-budget totals?

A

Off-budget totals reflect the transactions of government entities that laws exclude from law (those of the Social Security Trust Fund and the Postal Service)

194
Q

When budget totals are presented, are on-budget / off-budget totals included? What is another name for this?

A

Some presentations include on/off-budget totals. ‘The budget’ or the unified budget presents combined on/off budget totals so as to derive totals for all federal activity.

195
Q

What must a comptroller certify in order to commit funds?

A

To commit funds, the comptroller must certify the availability of funds identified in the document by ensuring the following:
They are for the correct appropriation (‘Color’ of money)
The work identified is for the correct year
There are enough funds to cover the anticipated obligation (amount)
Purpose/Time/Amount

196
Q

What is the definition of the Budget Execution Term - cost?

A

Cost refers to the cash value of the resources allocated to a particular program.

197
Q

What is the definition of the Budget Execution Term - cost - when used in connection with federal credit programs?

A

when used in connection with federal credit programs, the term cost means the estimated long-term cost to the government of a direct loan or loan guarantee.

198
Q

What is the definition of the Budget Execution Term - Discretionary spending?

A

Discretionary spending refers to budgetary resources (except those provided to fund direct spending programs) provided in the 12 appropriations acts which makes up roughly 30% of the federal budget.

199
Q

What is the definition of the Budget Execution Term - entitlement authority?

A

Entitlement authority is the authority to make payments to persons or governments that the government is obligated to pay. Ie social security, Medicare, and unemployment insurance.

200
Q

What is the definition of the Budget Execution Term - expenditure?

A

an expenditure occurs when a check is issued (or eft) in response to an invoice/payment request for costs incurred, services rendered, products delivered, etc.

201
Q

What is the definition of the Budget Execution Term - mandatory spending?

A

Mandatory spending is spending that is controlled by laws other than appropriations acts - Social security, Medicare, unemployment insurance, food stamps which makes up 70% of the federal budget

202
Q

What is the definition of the Budget Execution Term - obligation?

A

Obligation results from orders placed, contracts awarded/signed, services received, or similar transactions. From the comptroller’s point of view, this is the legal reservation of funds.

203
Q

What is the definition of the Budget Execution Term - sequestration?

A

According to the Congressional Budget Office, sequestration refers to automatic spending cuts that occur through the withdrawal of funding for certain (but not all) government programs.

204
Q

What is the definition of the Budget Execution Term - spending authority from offsetting collections?

A

Spending authority from offsetting collections includes payments and repayments authorized by law to be credited to an appropriation or fund account

205
Q

What is the definition of the Budget Execution Term - payments and repayments?

A

Payments and repayments consist of reimbursements, advances, refunds, and other income.

206
Q

Where may payments come from?

A

Payments may come from federal (another government account) or non-federal (state, local, tribal, or foreign government)

207
Q

What is the definition of the Budget Execution Term - surplus - what does it include?

A

Surplus is the amount by which receipts exceed outlays in a fiscal year. It may refer to the on/off/unified budget.

208
Q

Where do the largest portion of federal revenue come from?

A

The largest portion of federal revenue comes from individual income taxes (for 2020=50%) and so/Medicare (36%)

209
Q

What is the purpose of the Federal Budget Legislation - 1921 Budget and Accounting Act?

A

The 1921 Budget and accounting Act requires the President to submit an annual budget proposal to Congress and established the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and the Government Accountability Office (FAO)(formerly, the General Accounting Office).

210
Q

What is the purpose of the Federal Budget Legislation - 1974 Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act?

A

There are 5 main tasks that the 1974 Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act accomplished:
Established House and Senate Budget Committees
Created Congressional Budget Office
Established detailed calendar for the Congressional Budget process
Established the framework and guidance for impoundment
Changed FY from 1July-30Jun to 1Oct-30Sept

211
Q

What percentage of the federal budget is appropriated for DoD?

A

15.3% of the complete federal budget or 50% of all discretionary spending is appropriated for DoD

212
Q

What is the purpose of the Federal Budget Legislation - 1985 Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act?

A

The 1985 Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act:
Established Deficit reduction goals aimed at a balanced budget in FY 1991.
Established sequestration procedures when agency budgets exceeded limits

213
Q

What is the purpose of the Federal Budget Legislation - 1987 Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Reaffirmation Act?

A

The 1987 Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Reaffirmation Act:
Revised sequestration process from fixed to adjustable target established 2 new procedures - 1) discretionary spending limits on annual appropriations: and 2) pay-as-you-go on any spending outside of appropriations that would increase the deficit.
the 1985 and 1987 acts are often referred to as the ‘Gramm-Rudman-Hollings’ acts, named for the acts’ principal sponsors

214
Q

What is the purpose of the Federal Budget Legislation - 1990 Budget Enforcement Act?

A

The 1990 Budget Enforcement Act:
Divided spending into 2 types - DS and MS
Replaced G-R-H targets with new annual ceilings on budget authority and outlays for 5 years
Established ‘pay-as-you-go (PAYGO) for entitlements
Provided separate ceiling for defense, international, and non-Defense DS thru 1993

215
Q

What is the purpose of the Federal Budget Legislation - 1990 Chief Financial Officers (CFOs) Act?

A

The 1990 Chief Financial Officers (CFO) act:
Established CFOs in specified agencies and cabinet departments

216
Q

What is the purpose of the Federal Budget Legislation - 1993 Government Performance and Results Act (GPRA) Amended by the 2010 GPRA Modernization Act)?

A

The 1993 Government Performance and Results Act (GPRA):
Changed the way budgets are to be justified and managed
Focused budget process on planning
Required agencies to submit strategic plans by Sept 30 1997
Required annual performance plans effective FY 1999
Required performance reports by March 31, 2000

217
Q

What is the purpose of the Federal Budget Legislation - 1993 Omnibus Reconciliation Act?

A

The 1993 Omnibus Reconciliation Act:
Established discretionary spending limits for fiscal years 1994-1998
Outlined the process for sequestration
Note: Even though spending limits do not pertain after FY98, this is current law for the sequestration process

218
Q

What is the purpose of the Federal Budget Legislation - 1996 Line Item Veto Act?

A

The 1996 Line Item Veto Act briefly granted line item veto authority and was used by President Clinton until it was declared unconstitutional in 1998
Based on this ruling, the President has to either accept legislation in its entirety or veto it in its entirety

219
Q

What is the purpose of the Federal Budget Legislation - 2010 GPRA Modernization Act?

A

the 2010 GPRA Modernization Act:
Annual Performance Plan requires OMB to establish federal priority goals and agencies to establish priority goals.
Agency performance reports (APR) required annually, but quarterly for any priority goals APR must show actual performance trend over past five years

220
Q

What is the purpose of the Federal Budget Legislation - 2011 Budget Control Act?

A

The 2011 Budget Control Act:
Solved the 2011 debt ceiling crisis
Mandated a vote on a constitutional balanced budget amendment, which failed to pass congress
Called for automatic sequestration of budget authority to achieve deficit reduction targets.

221
Q

What is another name for the Gramm-Rudman-Hollings Acts?

A

the 1985 Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control act and the 1987 Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Reaffirmation Act.

222
Q

What is the mission of the Department of Defense (DoD)?

A

The mission of the DoD is provide a lethal Joint Force to defend the security of our country and sustain American influence abroad

223
Q

What Military Departments and Agencies report to the Secretary of Defense?

A

Reporting to the Secretary of Defense are 3 Military Departments and 20 defense agencies.

224
Q

How many Armed Services report to the SECDEF?

A

Five (5) DoD Armed Services (Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, and Space Force) as well as 20 Defense agencies report to SECDEF during peace time.

225
Q

What responsibilities do the Military Departments retain responsibility for? And who has operational control over those forces?

A

The military departments are responsible for recruiting, training, and equipping their forces, but operational control of those forces is assigned to on of the unified Combatant Commands.

226
Q

What is the US Coast Guard and to whom do they report when?

A

The US Coast Guard is also part of our US Armed Forces and also an Armed Service. It is aligned under the Department of Homeland Security, however, by statute, it can be transferred to the operational control of the Department of Defense in wartime.

227
Q

What is the process for manpower management?

A

The processes for determining manpower requirements for budgetary purposes and reporting manpower strengths to OMB

228
Q

What are the 4 concentrations of Defense Manpower Resources Management?

A

The 4 concentrations of Defense Manpower Resources Management are:
Manpower Structure
Mobilization and Crisis Issues
Restructuring Initiatives
Ethical Standards

229
Q

What are the 3 Initiatives of the Restructuring Initiatives concentration for Defense Manpower Resources Management?

A

The 3 initiatives of the restructuring Initiatives concentration of the Defense Manpower Resources Management are:
Federal Work Force Restructuring Act of 1994
Federal Activities Inventory Reform Act of 1998
Commercial Activities - OMB Circular A-76

230
Q

What is the Operational Chain of Command for the Military?

A

The Operational Chain of Command flows from the President to
The Secretary of Defense to
The Combatant Commanders

231
Q

What is the purpose of the Joint Chiefs of Staff?

A

The Joint Chiefs of Staff are the senior military members of each services and serve as the strategic advisors to the President.

232
Q

What does USD stand for?

A

USD stands for the ‘Under Secretary of Defense’ and there are many of them

233
Q

Who issues guidance annually for the Services to use in preparation and administration of the military and civilian manpower programs?

A

The Under Secretary of Defense (Personnel and Readiness) issues guidance annually for the Services to use in preparation and administration of their military and civilian manpower programs.

234
Q

What are the 6 guidelines that the USD(PR) passes to be used while adhering to the strengths assigned by the Secretary of Defense?

A

The 6 guidelines USD (PR) passes to be used while adhering to the strengths assigned by the SECDEF are:
The first priority for programming manpower is major Combat Commands based on the Joint Chiefs of Staff guidance
Remaining forces are manned, within approved total strengths, to support combat forces
Civilian requirements are based on planning and workload factors at the minimum necessary to accomplish the required tasks
Manpower requirement for an area that requires both military and civilian personnel are projected as a total
Civilian personnel can be used only in positions that do not require military incumbents by reasons of law, training, security, discipline, rotation, or combat readiness
Indigenous personnel are utilized to the maximum extent practical consistent with security and readiness. For example, indirect Hires are indigenous personnel hired by the foreign Government to support the mission of the DoD

235
Q

Concerning Manpower Management Terminology - Actual Strength means what?

A

Actual Strength is the number of personnel in - or projected to be in - an organization or account at a specified power in time.

236
Q

Concerning Manpower Management Terminology - Assigned Strength means what?

A

Assigned strength is the Actual strength of an entire service, not necessarily equal to combined unit actual strengths because individuals may be assigned but not joined

237
Q

Concerning Manpower Management Terminology - Authorized Strength means what?

A

Authorized strength is the total strength authorized by Congress (for internal service applications only). Authorized strength may be use synonymously with documented strength.

238
Q

Concerning Manpower Management Terminology - Average strength means what?

A

Average strength is the arithmetic mean strength for a specific time span. The average strength for 1 year is equivalent to work years.

239
Q

Concerning Manpower Management Terminology - DoD Civilian Work Force means what?

A

DoD Civilian Work Force are the US citizens or foreign nationals hired directly or indirectly to work for DoD, paid from appropriated or non-appropriated, permanent, temp, full/part/intermittent/on-call. Not contractors

240
Q

Concerning Manpower Management Terminology - End strength means what?

A

End strength is the strength at the end of a FY and is same as end-year strength.

241
Q

Concerning Manpower Management Terminology - Future Year Defense Program (FYDP) means what?

A

The Future Year Defense Program (FYDP) is an official report (database) that summarizes the resources provided to DoD.

242
Q

What does the FYDP supply?

A

The FYDP identifies funding for each appropriation, manpower authorization and program, and selected types of unit or equipment authorization by resource management packages called program elements

243
Q

Concerning Manpower Management Terminology - Force Structure means what?

A

Force Structure is the totality of units in a DoD component.

244
Q

Concerning Manpower Management Terminology - Manpower Programming means what?

A

Manpower programming is the process of compiling and projecting future manpower requirements; documenting these requirements; integrating them into the overall planning, programming, and budgeting process; and translating them into a form that provides a basis for personnel procurement, training, and assignment.

245
Q

Concerning Manpower Management Terminology - Peacetime Strength means what?

A

Peacetime strength is the authorized and programmed strength at the end of the fiscal year for active forces, the Selected Reserve (to include drilling reservists, military technicians, and active Guard and Reserve), and appropriated-fund civilian employees in the FYDP.

246
Q

What is the definition of mobilization and crisis issues manpower planning?

A

Mobilization and crisis issues manpower is the ability to make the transition from peacetime manning levels to wartime manpower demands and the ability to provide filler and replacement personnel over the course of a conflict and are critical to successful resolution of a crisis.

247
Q

What is the DoD Manpower utilization policy and during mobilization or wartime what is the policy based on?

A

During mobilization or wartime, the DoD manpower utilization policy is based on:
Terminating or deferring activities not essential to the war effort in order to permit the reallocation of personnel to higher priority tasks.
Assigning military personnel only to those jobs that contribute to the war unless:
Military incumbency is required by law
Possessing military-unique skills or experience is essential for successful performance of required duties.
Military authority or discipline is requisite to the position.
Alternative manpower is not available

248
Q

What are some of the many constraints that must be considered in manpower planning during mobilization?

A

Plans for the civilian workforce during contingencies and emergencies shall include assessments and alternatives for the following:
The loss of civilian employees who are reservists or retired from military service who may be recalled to active duty.
The loss of civilian employees who may be drafted into military service.

249
Q

During mobilization or wartime, to bolster the civilian workforce, what are possible avenues of assets?

A

Installation planning for civilian workforce expansion and recruitment during contingencies and emergencies shall include consideration of:
The availability and use of DoD civilian retirees
The placement of military retirees not normally subject to military recall (those over age 60 or prevented from recall by serious disability)
the borrowing of employees from other Federal agencies
The use of contractors
the use of overtime and temporary employees

250
Q

What is the DoD Total Force Policy and what does it dictate?

A

Under the DoD Total Force Policy, many military functions not required during peacetime are assigned to the Reserve components. The execution of contingency operation may require:
The mobilization of all or part of the reserve components to bring the force structure to the levels required for a particular conflict.
The augmentation of active and activated reserve units by non-unit reservists, recalled retirees, volunteers, and draftees.

251
Q

What is the Master Mobilization Plan (MMP)?

A

The Master Mobilization Plan (MMP) is the process of assembling, organizing, and using manpower and material resources in preparation for war or other emergency. The mobilization process can help deter war as well as enhance warfighting capability. The DoD MMP prescribes mobilization policies, authorities, and responsibilities within DoD.

252
Q

What is the law Title 10 USC 12304 and what does it do?

A

Title 10 12304 gives the President authority to activate reserve forces, without the consent of Congress, and order to active duty (other than for training) for not more than 365 days: selected reservists, individual ready reservists

253
Q

What are the statutory limits under Title 10 USC 12304?

A

The President may not activate more than 200,000 Selected Reserve and Individual Ready Reservists onto active duty and not more than 30,000 individual ready reservists

254
Q

What must the President determine in order to utilize the authority of Title 10 12304?

A

The President must determine that it is necessary to augment the active forces for any operational mission or emergency involving the use or threatened use of a weapon of mass destruction, terrorist attack, or a threatened terrorist attack in the US.

255
Q

What laws govern the National Guard and DoD Civilians?

A

Title 32 USC governs the National Guard and
Title 5 USC governs the use of Defense Agency Civilians

256
Q

When considering manpower management and based on DoDD 1404.10 23 January 2009, the DoD Civilian Expeditional Workforce during a crisis situation what is the definition of Crisis Situation?

A

During crisis situation based on DoDD 1404.10, 23 January 2009, DoD Civilian Expeditionary Workforce a crisis situation is a civil insurrection, civil war, terrorism, wartime, or hostile condition that threatens physical harm or imminent danger tot the health or well being of the E-E civilian employee

257
Q

When considering manpower management and based on DoDD 1404.10 23 January 2009, the DoD Civilian Expeditional Workforce during a crisis situation what is the definition of Emergency Essential (E-E) Employee?

A

During crisis situation based on DoDD 1404.10, 23 January 2009, DoD Civilian Expeditionary Workforce an Emergency Essential (E-E) employee is a position-based designation to support the success of combat operations or the availability of combat-essential systems in accordance with 10 US 1580 (e) and will be designated as key in accordance with Paragraph 4c(5). A person occupying and E-E position could be deployed to a crisis area

258
Q

When considering manpower management and based on DoDD 1404.10 23 January 2009, the DoD Civilian Expeditional Workforce during a crisis situation what is the definition of Non-Combat Essential (NCE) Employee?

A

During crisis situation based on DoDD 1404.10, 23 January 2009, DoD Civilian Expeditionary Workforce a Non-Combat Essential (NCE) Employee is a position based designation to support the expeditionary requirements in other than combat or combat support situations and will be designated as Key in accordance with Paragraph 4d(5).

259
Q

When considering manpower management and based on DoDD 1404.10 23 January 2009, the DoD Civilian Expeditional Workforce during a crisis situation what is the definition of Capability-Based Volunteer (CBV)?

A

During crisis situation based on DoDD 1404.10, 23 January 2009, DoD Civilian Expeditionary Workforce a Capability-Based Volunteer (CBV) is an employee who may be asked to volunteer for deployment, remain behind after other civilians have evacuated, or backfill other DoD civilians who have deployed to meet expeditionary requirements in order to ensure that critical expeditionary requirements that may fall outside or within the scope of an individual’s position are fulfilled.

260
Q

When considering manpower management and based on DoDD 1404.10 23 January 2009, the DoD Civilian Expeditional Workforce during a crisis situation what is the definition of Capability-Based Former Employee Volunteer Corps?

A

During crisis situation based on DoDD 1404.10, 23 January 2009, DoD Civilian Expeditionary Workforce a Capability-Based Former Employee Volunteer Corps is a collective group of former (including retired) DoD civilian employees who have agreed to be listed in a database as individuals who may be interested in returning to Federal service as a time-limited employee to serve expeditionary requirements or who can backfill for those serving other expeditionary requirements. When these individuals are re-employed, they shall be deemed CBV employees.

261
Q

When considering manpower management and based on DoDD 1404.10 23 January 2009, the DoD Civilian Expeditional Workforce during a crisis situation what is the definition of Key Employees?

A

During crisis situation based on DoDD 1404.10, 23 January 2009, DoD Civilian Expeditionary Workforce a Key Employee is a DoD civilian employee in positions designated as E-E and/or CVE will be designated key in accordance with DoDD 1200.7

262
Q

Per what document are personnel budget estimates prepared and how?

A

Personnel budget estimates are prepared in terms of full-time equivalent (FTE) employment, as required in OMB Circular A-11.

263
Q

Concerning Manpower Management, Full-Time Permanent (FTP) means?

A

Full-Time Permanent (FTP) is a position normally filled on a permanent basis and having a regular schedule.

264
Q

Concerning Manpower Management, Other than Full-Time Permanent (OTFTP) means?

A

Other than Full-Time Permanent (OTFTP) are all positions other than full-time permanent, including temporary, part-time, and intermittent.

265
Q

Concerning Manpower Management, Turnover Rate (TR) means?

A

Turnover Rate (TR) means the number of employees who left positions during a past year divided by the number of positions.

266
Q

For manpower management what is the formula for Turnover Rate (TR)?

A

The formula for Turnover Rate (TR) is # of personnel who left divided by the total number of personnel. Ie 10 / 100 = 10% TR

267
Q

Concerning Manpower Management, Fill Rate (FR) means?

A

Fill Rate (FR) is the average number of days between an employee leaving a position and the position being filled divided by the workdays in a year.

268
Q

For manpower management what is the formula for Fill Rate (FR)?

A

The mathematical formula for Fill Rate (FR): assume it takes 65 workdays from an employee leaving until the position is filled and there are 2080 hours (260 workdays) in a year. So 65 / 260 =25% fill rate

269
Q

Concerning Manpower Management, Lapse Rate (LR) means?

A

Lapse Rate (LR) means the percentage of the year a vacancy occurs

270
Q

For manpower management what is the formula for Lapse Rate (LR)?

A

Lapse Rate (LR) formula is accomplished by acquiring the Turnover Rate (TR) and multiplying it by the Fill Rate (FR). Ie 10% turnover rate x 25% fill rate = 2.5% lapse rate

271
Q

Concerning Manpower Management, Number of Positions to Budget means?

A

The Number of Positions to Budget is acquired by taking the total # positions authorized and subtracting (100 x lapse rate) ie 100-2.5 = 97.5 positions to budget.

272
Q

DoD has permanent Separation Incentive programs and they are authorized under what?

A

The permanent early retirement and separation incentive programs are authorized by Title 5 USC 9902

273
Q

What are the names of the 2 permanent separation incentive programs?

A

The names of the 2 permanent separation incentive programs are Voluntary Separation Incentive Pay (VSIP) (commonly called buyout program) and Voluntary Early Retirement Authority (VERA)

274
Q

Under the permanent separation incentive programs how many buyout - aka VSIP - separations may happen in a single year and are there any additional caveats?

A

The DoD is permitted NMT 25,000 buyout separations per year but this does not apply to members impacted by Base Realignment and Closure (BRAC) actions or for non-appropriated fund employees

275
Q

The Voluntary Separation Incentive Pay Program - Buyout - is governed by what and states what?

A

Voluntary Separation Incentive Pay Program - Buyout - is governed by 5 USC 9902 (f) and states that buyout payments (the lesser of $40,000 [this limit is in place until 30Sep2021] or the amount of the employee’s severance pay) be paid from amounts available for the employee’s pay, and generally, be fully repaid if the employee rejoins the fed gov within 5 years

276
Q

When can an employee who has participated in the Voluntary Separation Incentive Pay Program - Buyout - be reemployed with the fed gov?

A

An employee accepting a buyout cannot be re-employed by DoD for 12 months after receiving the incentive pay unless the Secretary of Defense approves an exception.

277
Q

What are 4 of the products required by the Federal Activities Inventory Reform Act of 1998?

A

The 4 products that are required by the Federal Activities Inventory Reform Act of 1998 are:
Annual Lists of Government Activities not inherently governmental in nature
Public Availability of those lists
Competition required
Realistic and Fair Cost Comparisons

278
Q

The Annual List that is required by the Federal Activities Inventory Reform Act of 1998 must be completed by when who must it go to and what notifications are required?

A

The Annual List required by the Federal Activities Inventory Reform Act of 1998 requires annual lists of government activities not inherently governmental in nature NLT the end of the 3rd quarter of each fiscal year and be transmitted to Congress after review by OMB and public notification shall be made by the Dir OMB in the Fed Register that the list is available and retransmitted and re-notified if there are any changes.

279
Q

What 3 pieces of information are required on the Annual List that is required by the Federal Activities Inventory Reform Act of 1998?

A

On the Annual list required by the Federal Activities Inventory Reform Act of 1998 each entry for an activity shall include:
The fiscal year for which the activity first appeared on a list prepared under this section.
The number of full-time employees (or equivalent) necessary for the performance of the activity by a fed gov source
The name of a Fed Gov employee responsible for the activity from whom additional information about the activity may be obtained.

280
Q

Other than the annual lists and their availability what process is dictated by the Federal Activities inventory Reform Act of 1998?

A

Other than the annual lists and their availability the Federal Activities inventory Reform Act of 1998 requires
Competition for these activities
Realistic and Fair Standard Competitions

281
Q

What are some explanations for the Competition required and the realistic and fair standard competitions required by the Federal Activities Inventory Reform Act of 1998

A

Further explanation of the Competition required and the realistic and fair standard competitions required by the Federal Activities Inventory Reform Act of 1998 are that there must be a process for completion, ensuring that all fully allocated costs are considered and they are realistic and fair.

282
Q

What OMB Circular defines activities for manpower management? And what are those classifications?

A

OMB Circular A-76 classifies activities as Commercial Activity and Inherently Governmental Activity

283
Q

Per OMB Circular A-76 what is a commercial activity?

A

According to OMB Circular A-76 a commercial activity is the process resulting in a product of service that is or could be obtained from a private sector sources. Agency missions may be accomplished through commercial facilities and resources, government facilities and resources, or mixes thereof, depending upon the product, service, type of mission and equipment required.

284
Q

Per OMB Circular A-76 what is a inherently governmental activity?

A

An inherently governmental activity is one that is so intimately related to the public interest as to mandate performance by federal employees. Activities that meet these criteria are not in competition with commercial sources, are not generally available from commercial sources, and are not subject to OMB Circular A-76

285
Q

Per OMB Circular A-76 there are 2 categories of inherently governmental activities, what are they?

A

Per OMB Circular A-76 the two categories of inherently governmental activities are the act of governing and monetary transactions and entitlements.

286
Q

Per OMB Circular A-76 the act of governing is an inherently governmental function, what is the definition / some examples?

A

Per OMB Circular A-76 the act of governing (the discretionary exercise of government authority) some examples include: criminal investigations, prosecutions, all judicial functions, management of gov programs requiring value judgments as in Nat def., armed services, activities performed exclusively by military personnel, direction of fed employees, regulation of the use of space, oceans, navigable rivers, intelligence/counter intel ops, regulation of industry and commerce include food and drugs.

287
Q

Per OMB Circular A-76 monetary transactions and entitlements is an inherently governmental function, what is the definition / some examples?

A

Per OMB Circular A-76 an inherently governmental activity is monetary transactions and entitlements, some examples include tax collection and revenue disbursements, control of the Treasure accounts and money supply, and the administration of public trusts.

288
Q

OMB Circular A-76 does what?

A

OMB Circular A-76 empowers Federal managers to make sound and justifiable business decisions.

289
Q

Per OMB Circular A-76 Cost Competition process the US Government policy is:

A

Per OMB Circular A-76 Cost Competition process the US Government policy is:
Achieve economy/enhance productivity
Retain inherently government functions in-house
rely on commercial sector

290
Q

OMB Circular A-76 is not designed to simply contract out; rather, it is designed to:

A

OMB Circular A-76 is not designed to simply contract out; rather, it is designed to:
Balance the interests of the parties to a make or buy cost comparison
Provide a level playing field in a public and private sector competition
Encourage competition and choice in the management and performance of commercial activities

291
Q

OMB Circular A-76 Key Elements include - conversion to contract - which means?

A

Conversion to contract is the changeover of an activity from government performance to performance under contract by a commercial source

292
Q

OMB Circular A-76 Key Elements include - conversion to in-house - which means?

A

Conversion to in-house is the changeover of an activity from performance under contract to government performance.

293
Q

OMB Circular A-76 Key Elements include - commercial source - which means?

A

A commercial source is a business or other non-federal activity which provides a commercial product of service.

294
Q

OMB Circular A-76 Key Elements include - cost comparison - which means?

A

A cost comparison is the process of developing an estimate of the cost of government performance of a commercial activity and comparing it, in accordance with the requirements of the supplement, to the cost to the government of the contract performance of the activity.

295
Q

OMB Circular A-76 Key Elements include - Most Efficient organization (MEO) - which means?

A

The MEO refers to the government’s in-house organization to perform a commercial activity. It may include a mix of fed employees and contract support. It is the basis for all government costs entered on the cost comparison form. The MEO is the product of the management plan and is based upon the Performance Work Statement (PWS)

296
Q

OMB Circular A-76 Key Elements include - performance work statement (PWS) - which means?

A

A PWS is a statement of the technical, functional, and performance characteristics of the work to be performed, identifies essential functions to be performed, and determines performance factors, including the location of the work, the units of work, the quantity of work units, and the quality and timeliness of the work units. It serves as the scope of work and is the basis for all costs entered on the cost comparison form.

297
Q

Per the OMB Circular A-76 cost competition process what are the 10 steps for the process?

A

The cost competition process for commercial activity decisions are:
Notify Congress
Request study contract
Award study contract
start study
Develop MEO at the same time agency completes PWS
Solicitation issued at the same time complete independent review occurs
cost comparison
Admin appeals decision
notify congress of findings and decision
Contract awarded or MEO implemented

298
Q

The OMB Circular A-76 Cost competition process management study is:

A

The OMB Circular A-76 Cost competition process management study is:
Mandatory
Identifies the most efficient and cost-effective in-house organization for accomplishing the performance work statements (the MEO)
The MEO is the basis of the government estimate

299
Q

Per DoDI 4100.33 (in conjunction with OMB Circular A-76) the Commercial Activity Management study:

A

Per DoDI 4100.33 (in conjunction with OMB Circular A-76) the Commercial Activity Management study:
is mandatory. The study shall identify essential functions to be performed and determine performance factors, organization structure, staffing, and operating procedures for the most efficient and cost-effective in-house performance of the CA (commercial activity)

300
Q

Per the OMB Circular A-76 cost competition process cost comparisons shall?

A

Per the OMB Circular A-76 cost competition process cost comparisons shall compare the estimated cost of the government performance of a CA with the government’s cost for contract performance of the activity. The non-incumbent of the work must beat the incumbent by 10% of the government personnel costs.

301
Q

Per the OMB Circular A-76 cost competition process cost comparisons shall take how long to occur?

A

Per the OMB Circular A-76 cost competition process cost comparisons the time period for a standard competition is 12 months, extendable to 18 months with approval. If the competition is conducted under ‘streamlined’ procedures the time limit is 90 days, extendable another 45 days with approval. The streamlined process may be used if the competition involves 65 FTE or fewer and the 10% factor is not applicable.

302
Q

Per the DoDI 4100.33 (in the cost comparison process) the following notifications are required:

A

Per the DoDI 4100.33 (in the cost comparison process) the following notifications are required:
USD(P&R) notification if 46 or more employees and at least 5 days later Congressional notification, the process begins the date of congressional notification.
DoD components shall consult with dodo civ employees who will be affected by the cost comparison.

303
Q

What laws are currently imposing an a-76 moratorium?

A

The most recent law to impose a moratorium on public to private competitions under A-76 is the FY2020 Financial Services and General Government Appropriations Act. DoD is further restricted by Public Law 111-84, Section 325 which requires a report and certification prior to any DoD public-private competitions. Both statutes are temp and may be lifted. The moratorium does not apply to private-public or ‘reverse A-76’ competitions

304
Q

Federal Employees hold their positions as a public trust and American citizens have a right to expect ethical behavior. There are 2 main laws and regulations that dictate ethical behavior and they are:

A

The DoD ethical standards are dictated by US Code of Federal Regulations 5 CFR 2635 and Joint Ethics Regulation DoD 5500.7-R.

305
Q

What are the core concepts of the ethical laws and regulations?

A

The core ethical concepts are:
Employees shall not use public office for private gain.
Employees shall act impartially and not give preferential treatment to any private organization or individual.
Employees must strive to avoid any action that would create the appearance that they are violating the law or ethical standards.

306
Q

Gifts from the public or contractors are regulated clearly, what are some prohibited sources of gifts?

A

Prohibited sources include persons who:
Seek official action by the employee’s agency
do or seek to do business with the employee’s agency ‘
are regulated by the employee’s agency
have interests that may be substantially affected by performance or non-performance of the employee’s official duties.

307
Q

There are a number of exceptions to the ban on gifts from outside sources, they are:

A

Where the value of the gift is $20 or less (not to exceed $50 annually)
where the gift is based solely on a family relationship or personal friendship
Where the gift is based on an outside business or employment relationship
Where the gift is in connection with certain political activities.

308
Q

Gifts from anyone making less money to higher salary are restricted and may only happen when:

A

Gifts from anyone making less money to higher salary are restricted and may only happen when:
Gifts other than cash that are valued at no more than $10
Food and refreshments shared in the office among employees
personal hospitality in the employee’s home that is the same as that customarily provided to personal friends
Gifts given in connection with the receipt of personal hospitality that is customary to the occasion
transferred leave provided that it is not to an immediate supervisor
special infrequent occasions - marriage illness, birth or adoption of a child.
occasions that terminate relationship - retirement, resignation, or transfer
*may not accept a group gift of over $300 or over $10 per person from subordinate

309
Q

Part of the ethical realities are that there are sometimes conflicting financial interests that are prohibited by 18 USC 208(a) this include:

A

Conflicting financial interests can include the financial interests of:
The employee
the employee’s spouse or minor child
the employee’s general partner
An organization in which the employee serves as an officer, director, trustee, general partner, or employee.
A person with whom the employee is negotiation for or has an arrangement covering prospective employment

310
Q

There are a number of resolutions that would resolve a conflict of interest, they include:

A

An employee may deal with a potential conflict of interest in a number of ways including:
Recusal - removal from situation
Obtain a waiver from the OGE
Sell off or divest the conflicting interest, or resign from the conflicting position.
Creation of a blind trust

311
Q

Certain federal employees in certain accountable positions are required to submit documentation of financial disclosure, who oversees that?

A

The office of Government Ethics (OGE) oversees the administration of public and confidential financial disclosure systems for the Executive Branch. It also administers the blind trust and certificate of divestiture programs for the Executive Branch.

312
Q

What is the act that requires members of the executive branch to file certificates of disclosure and who is required to file?

A

The Ethics in Government Act of 1978 requires senior officials in all branches to file public reports of the finances. OGE and status dictates who must file an OGE Form 278e and 278-T, these are available to the public, however there are certain mid-level employees who are required to file disclosures that are not public.

313
Q

What other types of restrictions are imposed ethically on members of government?

A

The FY 2020 NDAA prescribed that certain high-ranking officials of the DoD are prohibited from owning or purchasing publically traded stock of a company that was one of the 10 companies awarded the most amount of contract funds by the DoD in a FY during the previous 5 FY.

314
Q

Executive Branch employees may not participate in any particular government matter that will affect the financial interests of a person or entity with which they are seeking employment. An employee is considered to be seeking employment if:

A

An employee is considered to be seeking employment if:
The employee is engaged in actual negotiations for employment
A potential employer has contacted the employee about possible employment and the employee makes a response other than rejection
The employee has contacted a prospective employer about possible employment (unless the sole purpose is to obtain an application or if the person may only be affected as part of an industry)

315
Q

Executive Branch employees may not participate in any particular government matter that will affect the financial interests of a person or entity with which they are seeking employment. An employee is considered to no longer be seeking employment if:

A

An employee is considered no longer seeking employment if:
Either the employee or the prospective employer rejects the possibility of employment and all discussions of possible employment have ended
Two months have elapsed since the employee’s dispatch of an unsolicited resume and the employee has received no expression of interest from the prospective employer.

316
Q

Executive Branch employees must not use their public office for the own, or another’s, private gain, indications of abuse may include:

A

Perception of misuse of public office may include:
Use of their position, titles, or any authority associated with their office to coerce or induce a benefit for themselves or others.
Use or allow the improper use of non-public information to further a private interest, either their own or another’s.
Use Government property (office supplies, telephones, computers, copiers, and any other property purchase with government funds) for other-than-authorized purposes.
Misuse official time. This includes the employee’s own time as well as the time of a subordinate.

317
Q

Executive branch employees are subject to a number of limitations regarding the outside activities in which they may be involved. An employee may not have outside employment or be involved in any outside activity that conflicts with the official duties of the employee’s position. An activity conflicts with official duties if:

A

An activity conflicts with official duties if:
It is prohibited by status or by the regulations of the employee’s agency
The activity would require the employee to be disqualified from matters so central to the performance of the employee’s official duties as to materially impair the employee’s ability to carry out those duties.

318
Q

Employees may engage in fundraising in a personal capacity, subject to sever restrictions. An employee cannot:

A

when concerning fundraising in a personal capacity, an employee cannot:
Solicit funds from subordinates.
Solicit funds from persons who have interests that may be affected by the employee’s agency, such as those who are regulated by, seeking official action from, or doing business with the agency.
Use or permit the use of the employee’s official title, position, or authority to promote the fundraising effort.

319
Q

Honoraria is the payment of an employee for a speech or presentation, the member may not accept compensation if:

A

Honoraria is the payment of an employee for a speech or presentation, the member may not accept compensation if the reason that they were invited was due to their official title or position, if they are otherwise affiliated with the organization and their employment had no bearing then compensation may be accepted.

320
Q

Executive branch employees are subject to certain restrictions on their activities after they leave government service. Two of the restrictions apply to matters involving specific parties with whom they were involved while in government service. They are:

A

Executive Branch employees face certain restrictions on their activities once they leave federal service, two of these are:
If the employee’s involvement in such a matter was personal and substantial, then the employee is permanently bared from representing anyone on that same matter to any federal department, agency or court.
If the matter was under the employee’s official responsibility during the last year of government service, then the employee is barred for two years after leafing government service from representing anyone on that same matter to the government.

321
Q

Executive branch employees are subject to certain restrictions on their activities after they leave government service. There are 5 other restrictions on employment, they are:

A

The 5 additional restrictions on employment after leaving government service are:
Certain high-level officials are subject to a so-called ‘on-year cooling-of period’ where they may not appear before members former agency trying to influence.
Employees who participated personally and substantially in ongoing trade or treaty negotiations may not represent anyone concerning those activities.
Former very senior employees are subject to an additional restriction during the first year on who they may contact.
Former senior and very senior employees are restricted for one year from representing, aiding, or advising foreign governments or political parties.
Persons appointed on or after January 20, 1993 must sign an ethics pledge.

322
Q

Executive branch employees are subject to criminal statuses that prohibit the representation of private interests before the government against the government - the only exceptions are:

A

There are exceptions that would allow an employee to represent the following with or without compensation:
The employee
A parent, spouse, or child of the employee:
A person or estate for which the employee serves as a guardian, executor, administrator, trustee, or personal fiduciary.

323
Q

Executive branch employees may not be paid simultaneously by any other agency for their government job except when:

A

This prohibition does not apply to the following:
Certain special government employees and employees serving without compensation
Funds contributed out of the treasure of any state, county, or municipality
Continued participation in a bona fide pension: retirement; group life, health or accident insurance; profit-sharing; stock bonus; or other employee welfare or benefit plan maintained by a former employer
Payments made to an employee by a tax-exempt non-profit organization for travel, subsistence, and other expenses incurred in connection with training
Moving expenses incurred in connection with participation in an executive exchange our fellowship program in an executive agency
Reserve military officers and certain temporarily commissioned military officers who are ordered to active duty may continue to receive compensation from individuals who furnished compensation to them prior to being ordered to active duty

324
Q

What are the components of the governance framework?

A

Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) and Internal Control are components of a governance framework

325
Q

What are the main components of ERM?

A

ERM as a discipline deals with Identifying, assessing, and managing risks.

326
Q

What are at the center of the requirements to improve accountability in federal government programs and operations?

A

The Federal Managers Financial Integrity Act (FMFIA) of 1982 and OMB Circular No. A-1232 are at the center of requirements to improve accountability in federal government programs and operations

327
Q

When was OMB Circular A-123 expanded, what was it amended to include and what was it retitled?

A

In July of 2016 OMB issued a revised version of A-1232, expanding it to incorporate guidance on ERM and retitling it as “Management’s Responsibility for Enterprise Risk Management and Internal Control.”

328
Q

What is the codification of the Federal Managers Financial Integrity Act of 1982 (FMFIA)?

A

The Federal Managers Financial Integrity Act (FMFIA) of 1982 is codified by 31 USC 3512

329
Q

Where and when must agencies develop a risk profile coordinated with their annual strategic reviews and provide assurances on internal control effectiveness?

A

Agencies must provide assurances ion internal control effectiveness in their Agency Financial Report (AFR) or the Performance and Accountability Report (PAR)

330
Q

What doctrine implemented the FMFIA within the Executive branch?

A

OMB A-123, Management’s Responsibility for Enterprise Risk Management and Internal Control implemented the FMFIA within the Executive Branch

331
Q

What is the main purpose of OMB A-123?

A

The circular A-123, Management’s Responsibility for Enterprise Risk Management and Internal Control provides guidance to federal managers on establishing an enterprise risk management capability and on improving the accountability and effectiveness of federal programs and operations by establishing, assessing, corrective, and reporting on internal control.

332
Q

In addition to establishing the framework for internal control in the federal government, what did the FMFIA Federal Managers Financial Integrity Act of 1982 aka 31 USC 3512 require?

A

The FMFIA required the GAO to establish Standards for Internal Control in the Federal Government aka ‘The Green Book’

333
Q

What does the Standards for Internal Control in the Federal Government aka ‘the green book’ establish? And who created it and why?

A

The Standards for Internal Control in the Federal Government aka ‘The Green Book’ was created by GAO and includes standards, principles, and attributes which provide the overall framework for establishing and maintaining internal control and for identifying and addressing major performance and management challenges and areas at greatest risk of fraud, waste, abuse, and mismanagement.

334
Q

What did the DoD create to direct the implementation of the FMFIA and A-123 within the DoD?

A

The DoD established the DoD Managers’ Internal Control Program, DoDI 5010.40.

335
Q

What does DoDI 5010.40 provide the members of what agency?

A

The DoDI 5010.40 aka DoD Managers’ Internal Control Program provides guidance for DoD management to apply in reviewing, assessing, and reporting on the effectiveness of internal controls within their respective organizations.

336
Q

What another document and systems that interact in the creation and management of the Internal Control system for federal government?

A

A-123 reinforces the purposes of the FMFIA and the Government Performance and Results Act Modernization Act (GPRAMA)

337
Q

What international organizations set the standards in the fields of risk management and internal controls?

A

Both the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO) and the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) set the standards for risk management and internal controls

338
Q

What does the July 2016 update to OMB A-123 require agencies to establish?

A

The July 2016 update to OMB A-1232 requires agencies to establish and foster an open, transparent culture that encourages people to communicate information about potential risks and other concerns with their superiors without fear of retaliation or blame.

339
Q

What did the Federal Managers’ Financial Integrity Act of 1982 (FMFIA) amend and what does it require?

A

The Federal Managers’ Financial Integrity Act of 1982 amended the Accounting and Auditing Act of 1950 to require ongoing evaluations and reports of the adequacy of the systems of internal accounting and administrative control of each Executive agency.

340
Q

What tasks specifically did the Federal Managers’ Financial Integrity Act of 1982 require each executive agency to provide reasonable assurances that:

A

Specifically, the provisions of the Federal Managers; Financial Integrity Act of 1982 require each Executive agency to provide reasonable assurances that:
Obligations and costs are in compliance with applicable law
Funds, property, and other assets are safeguarded against waste, loss, unauthorized use, or misappropriation.
Revenues and expenditures applicable to agency operations are properly recorded and accounted for to permit the preparation of accounts and reliable financial and statistical reports and to maintain accountability over the assets.

341
Q

What does section 2 of the FMFIA require?

A

Section 2 of the FMFIA requires that the head of each Executive agency annually submit to the President and the Congress:
1) a statement on whether there is reasonable assurance that the agency’s controls are achieving their intended objectives, and
2) A report on the material weaknesses in the agency’s controls

342
Q

Establishing the ERM capability is necessary to:

A

Establishing the ERM capability is necessary to:
Integrate risk management and strategy
Identify and mitigate risk associated with achievement of strategic goals, objectives, and initiatives
Change organization al cultures
Better manage change
Better identify and take advantage of opportunities
Add value, enhance agency mission accomplishment, and maximize effectiveness

343
Q

Once established, the ERM program should:

A

Once established, the ERM program should:
Help bring clarity to managing uncertainty
Facilitate continual improvement
Be tailored to the needs of the agency and take human and cultural factors into account
Build upon and unite existing risk management processes, systems, and activities
Be systematic, structured, and timely as well as dynamic, interactive and responsive to change
Be based on the best available information
Be responsive to the evolving risk profile of the agency
Be fully integrated into agency decision making processes, with active leadership support and engagement (ie setting the ‘tone at the top’)

344
Q

The 7 steps of the ERM Model from A-123 is:

A

Establish the context
Initial Risk identification
Analyze and evaluate risks
Develop alternatives
Respond to risks
Monitor and review
Continuous risk identification

345
Q

What is step 1 of the ERM model and what does it mean/do?

A

Step 1 of the ERM model is to establish the context which means to obtain an understanding and articulating the internal and external environments of the organization

346
Q

What is step 2 of the ERM model and what does it mean/do?

A

Step 2 of the ERM model is Initial risk identification
Using a structured and systematic approach to recognizing where the potential for undesired outcomes or opportunities can arise

347
Q

What is step 3 of the ERM model and what does it mean/do?

A

Step 3 of the ERM model is Analyze and evaluate risks
Considering the causes, sources, probability of the risk occurring, the potential positive or negative outcomes, and then prioritizing the results of the analysis

348
Q

What is step 4 of the ERM model and what does it mean/do?

A

Step 4 of the ERM model is develop alternatives
Systematically identifying and assessing a range f risk response options guided by risk appetite

349
Q

What is step 5 of the ERM model and what does it mean/do?

A

Step 5 of the ERM model is respond to risks
Making decisions about the best options (s) among a number of alternatives, and then preparing and executing the selected response strategy

350
Q

What is step 6 of the ERM model and what does it mean/do?

A

Step 6 of the ERM model is Monitor and review
Evaluating and monitoring performance to determine whether the implemented risk management options achieved the stated goals and objectives.

351
Q

What is step 7 of the ERM model and what does it mean/do?

A

Step 7 of the ERM model is Continuous risk identification
Must be an iterative process, occurring through the year to include surveillance of leading indicators of future risk from internal and external environments

352
Q

What is the difference between a risk profile and a risk register?

A

Both are required by A-123 and a Risk profile is a prioritized inventory of the most significant risks identified and assessed through the risk assessment process versus a risk register which is a complete inventory of risks.

353
Q

How do you create a risk profile for an agency?

A

A-123 provides a playbook and in Appendix D there is a list of questions the agency must ask itself. And with the answers must include the following 7 components:
Identification of objectives
Identification of risk
Inherent risk assessment
Current risk response
Residual risk assessment
Proposed risk response
Proposed action category

354
Q

Internal controls are defined in the GAO Green book as:

A

The GAO Green Book defines internal control as a process effected by an entity’s oversight body, management and other personnel that provides reasonable assurance that the objectives of an entity are achieved. These objectives can be classified broadly into one or more of these three categories:
Operations: Effectiveness and efficiency of operation
Reporting: Reliability of reporting for internal and external use
Compliance: Compliance with applicable laws and regulations

355
Q

According to A-123 what must internal controls support?

A

Internal controls support the effectiveness and the integrity of every step of a process and provide feedback to management, they are the rules procedures, techniques, and devices employed by managers to ensure that what should occur in their daily operations does occur on a continuing bases.

356
Q

For the 3 broad categories that are provided in A-123 what does Internal control over operations encompass? And for what reason?

A

Management is responsible at all levels for ensuring controls over agency operation or activities are sufficient to ensure efficient and effective achievement of organization goals and objectives with minimum risk in order to allow agency head to render an annual Statement of Assurance that is required by FMFIA.

357
Q

For the 3 broad categories that are provided in A-123 what does Internal control over reporting (ICOFR) encompass? And for what reason?

A

ICOFR is a process designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the reliability of financial reporting. ICOFR means:
All reported transactions actually:
Occurred (existence and occurrence)
Included (completeness)
Legally owned (rights and obligations)
Valued (valuation)
(presentation and disclosure)
(compliance)
Safeguarded against fraud and abuse
documentation readily available for examination

358
Q

What document provides a methodology for performing information system control audits for federal agencies in accordance with professional standards?

A

The Federal Information System Controls Audit Manual (FISCAM), GAO January 1999 presents the methodology for performing information system control audits for federal entities in accordance with professional standards.

359
Q

What does the FISCAM provide?

A

The FISCAM may be used as a basis for the independent evaluation of a federal agency’s information security program required by the Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA)

360
Q

What does FISMA require?

A

FISMA requires that each year each agency shall have performed an independent evaluation of the information security program and practices to determine the effectiveness.

361
Q

What are the 5 general controls dictated by FISMA?

A

The 5 general controls dictated by FISMA are:
Security Management
Access Controls
Configuration Management
Segregation of Duties
Contingency Planning

362
Q

What are the 2 types of controls explained in the FISCAM?

A

The FISCAM explains the use of General and Business process application controls.

363
Q

What are the main points of the 5 parts of the business process application controls as defined by the FISCAM?

A

The 5 main parts of the Business Process Application Controls as defined by FISCAM are:
Completeness
Accuracy
Validity
Confidentiality
Availability

364
Q

The Green Book, created by GAO and last updated in 2014 defines the standards required by FMFIA in what ways?

A

The Green Book, created by GAO and last updated in 2014 defines the standards required by FMFIA thru components, principles, and attributes and explains why they are integral to an entity’s internal control system

365
Q

The Green Book, created by GAO and last updated in 2014 has how many of what types of sections?

A

The Green Book has 5 components with 17 principles and attributes for each principle explaining.

366
Q

In the Green Book what are the 5 components?

A

The 5 components of the Green Book are:
Control Environment
Risk Assessment
Control Activities
Information and Communication
Monitoring

367
Q

In the Green Book what are the Principles assigned to the Control Environment Component?

A

The Principles assigned to the Control Environment component are:
Oversight body and management should demonstrate a commitment to integrity and ethical values
Oversight body should oversee the entity’s internal control system
Management should establish an organization structure, assign responsibility, and delegate authority to achieve the entity’s objectives
Management should demonstrate a commitment to recruit, develop, and retain competent individuals
Management should evaluate performance and hold individuals accountable for their internal control responsibilities

368
Q

In the Green Book what are the Principles assigned to the Risk Assessment Component?

A

The Principles assigned to the Risk Assessment component are:
Management should define objectives clearly to enable the identification of risk and define risk tolerances
Management should identify, analyze, and respond to risks related to achieving the defined objectives
Management should consider the potential for fraud when identifying, analyzing, and responding to risks
Management should identify, analyze, and respond to significant changes that could impact the internal control system

369
Q

In the Green Book what are the Principles assigned to the Control Activities Component?

A

The Principles assigned to the Control Activities component are:
Management should design control activities to achieve objectives and respond to risks
Management should design the entity’s information system and related control activities to achieve objectives and respond to risks
Management should implement control activities through policies

370
Q

In the Green Book what are the Principles assigned to the Information and Communication Component?

A

The Principles assigned to the Information and Communication component are:
Management should use quality information to achieve entity’s objectives
Management should internally communicate the necessary quality information to achieve the entity’s objectives
Management should externally communicate the necessary quality information to achieve the entity’s objectives

371
Q

In the Green Book what are the Principles assigned to the Monitoring Component?

A

The Principles assigned to the Monitoring component are:
Management should establish and operate monitoring activities to monitor the internal control system and evaluate the results
Management should remediate identified internal control deficiencies on a timely basis.

372
Q

What provides a construct for the conduct of an evaluation of internal controls recommended by COSO and what does it consist of?

A

A-123 provides a construct for the evaluation of internal controls recommended by COSO and it consists of:
Conduct an assessment of internal control
Prepare a summary of internal control deficiencies
Conclude on internal control principle evaluation
Conclude on Internal control component evaluation
Conclude on Overall assessment of a system of internal control

373
Q

What are the categories of and reporting guidelines for Internal Control Deficiencies according to the Green Book?

A

The three Categories of Deficiencies according to the Green Book are:
Control Deficiency - reported internally
Significant Deficiency - Reported internally
Material Weakness - reported externally to OMB and congress through the AFR, PAR or other management reports

374
Q

A-123 also describes material weaknesses in internal control over certain areas they are:

A

A-123 also describes material weaknesses in internal control over certain areas they are:
MW over operations - to possibly include - impact entity level controls, impair fulfillment of essential ops/mission, deprive the public of needed services, significantly weaken safeguards against: Fraud, waste, loss, unauthorized use, misappropriation of funds, property, other assets or conflicts of interest
MW over reporting is a significant deficiency that the agency head deems to be of such impact over internal/external decision-making and reports
MW or external financial reporting again is so severe that there is a reasonable possibility that a material misstatement will not be prevented, or detected and corrected in a timely basis.
MW over compliance - cannot prevent violation of law

375
Q

What is DODI 5010.40?

A

DoDI 5010.40 is the Managers’ Internal Control Program Procedures

376
Q

What does DoDI 5010.40 do?

A

DoDI 5010.40 provides the full scope of management responsibility for internal control within the DoD. That responsibility extends from management’s development of effective internal control, through evaluation and correction of internal control deficiency, to the reporting requirement for internal control.

377
Q

DoDI Instruction 5010.40 requires the USD(C)/CFO to do what 5 main tasks?

A

DoDI 5010.40 - Manager’s’ Internal Control Program requires the USD(C)/CFO to accomplish the following 5 priorities:
Monitor compliance with the instruction
Provide internal control guidance regarding conduct and reporting of internal control assessments
Establish and support a Senior Management Council to provide oversight and accountability for the DoD’s Managers Internal Control Program
Co-chair a financial Improvement and Audit Remediation (FIAR) governance Board with the DoD Deputy Chief Management Officer (DCMO) to provide oversight and accountability for the DoD financial reporting and financial systems.
Instruct the Director of Financial Improvement and Audit Remediation (DFIAR) to accomplish certain tasks

378
Q

What does DoDI 5010.40 instruct the USD(C)/CFO to instruct the Director of Financial Improvement and Audit Remediation (DFIAR) to do?

A

DoDI 5010.40 instructs the USD(C)/CFO to instruct the Director of Financial Improvement and Audit Remediation (DFIAR) to:
Manage and oversee operations of the DoD’s Managers’ Internal Control Program
Provide guidance for proper execution of the MICP and publish guidance for the preparation and submission of the annual statement of assurance to the SECDEF
Develop the DoD’s statement of assurance
Ensure the DoD adheres to annual reporting requirements
Provide quarterly status reports on all material weaknesses to the USD(C)/CFO and DCMO and, as appropriate, USD and AUSD as well as DoD and OSD component heads.

379
Q

What does DoDI 5010.40 instruct the USD(C)/CFO to instruct the DoD and OSD Component heads to do?

A

DoDI 5010.40 instructs the DoD and OSD Component heads to
Assess inherent risks in mission-essential processes
This is accomplished by:
Document and design internal controls
Test the design and operating effectiveness of existing internal controls
Identify and classify control deficiencies and promptly prepare and execute corrective action plans
Monitor and report the status of corrective action plans until testing confirms resolution of identified deficiencies.

380
Q

What does DoDI 5010.40 instruct the USD(C)/CFO to instruct the DoD and OSD Component heads to do what 4 tasks?

A

DoDI 5010.40 instructs the DoD and OSD Component heads to:
Establish a Managers’ Internal Control Program
Designate in writing the MICP Coordinator of the of the DoD and OSD Component within 90 days of a vacated position, and oversee the MICP implementation of procedures
Conduct a formal assessment of the acquisition functions requirements outlined in Ref (m) and provide a summary on the assessment in the statement of assurance
Submit the annual statement of assurance to the SECDEF and provide separate explicit levels of assurance in a statement of assurance for each of the 3 IC assessments required

381
Q

For the DoDI 5010.40 instruction of the USD(C)/CFO to instruct the DoD and OSD Component heads to do, what are the 3 IC assessments required?

A

DoDI 5010.40 instructs the USD(C)/CFO to instruct the DoD and OSD Component heads to supply what 3 required IC assessments:
Operational and administrative controls relevant to all mission-essential functions throughout their DoD and OSD Component
Financial reporting functions, as assessed under the oversight of the senior assessment team
Integrated financial management systems (IFMS) conformance with federal requirement

382
Q

What are the 4 levels of DoD Material Weaknesses?

A

The DOD material weaknesses are considered at the following four levels:
-DoD Level
-Component Level
-Major Command or field activity level
-Installation or activity level

383
Q

According to A-123 what reporting requirement are there ?

A

OMB Circular A-123 requires 5 reports:
-Annual Assurance Statement
-Reporting Pursuant to Integration of ERM and IC
-Reporting regarding internal controls over financial reporting
-Reporting pursuant to OMB A-130, appendix 1
-Reporting pursuant to section 2 - 31 USC 3512(d)(2)

384
Q

According to A-123 what is the definition for the reporting requirement for the Annual Assurance Statement?

A

According to A-123 the definition for the reporting requirement for the Annual Assurance Statement and summary information related to section 2 and 4 of the FMFIA must be provided in a single report section of the annual AFR, PAR or other management report labeled “Analysis of Entity’s Systems, Controls and Legal Compliance”. the section must include the annual assurance statement, summary of the agency’s process for IC effectiveness and resulting MW and corrective action plans as of Sept 30 of the given FY.

385
Q

According to A-123 what is the definition for the reporting requirement for the Reporting Pursuant to Integration of ERM and IC?

A

According to A-123 the definition for the reporting requirement for the Reporting Pursuant to Integration of ERM and IC is that the management has discretion in determining the scope of operations, reporting and compliance objectives based on the agency’s risk profile.

386
Q

According to A-123 what is the definition for the reporting requirement for the Reporting regarding internal controls over financial reporting?

A

According to A-123 the definition for the reporting requirement for the Reporting regarding internal controls over financial reporting provides a methodology for the agency management to assess, document and report on internal controls over reporting.

387
Q

According to A-123 what is the definition for the reporting requirement for the Reporting pursuant to OMB A-130, appendix 1?

A

According to A-123 the definition for the reporting requirement for the Reporting pursuant to OMB A-130, appendix 1 aka ‘Responsibilities for Protecting and Managing Federal Information Resources’ established min requirements for federal information security programs.

388
Q

According to A-123 what is the definition for the reporting requirement for the Reporting pursuant to section 2 - 31 USC 3512(d)(2)?

A

According to A-123 the definition for the reporting requirement for the Reporting pursuant to section 2 - 31 USC 3512(d)(2) commonly referred to as ‘Section 2 of FMFIA’ requires that the head of each EA annually submit to the President and the Congress (i) a statement on whether there is reasonable assurance that the agency’s controls are achieving their intended objectives

389
Q

According to the A-123 what is required in the DoD and OSD Statement of Assurance Reports?

A

All DoD and OSD Components will annually provide
-An operations statement of assurance that provides reasonable assurance of the effectiveness of internal controls over operations.
-An explicit level of assurance on the effectiveness of internal controls over financial reporting as of June 30
-An explicit level of assurance on the effectiveness of internal controls over financial systems.

390
Q

According to the A-123 what is required in the DoD and OSD Statement of Assurance Reports for the rating structure?

A

The rating structure for the DoD and OSD Statement of Assurance Report required by OMB circular A-123 is:
-Unmodified Statement of Assurance
-Modified Statement of Assurance
-Statement of No Assurance

391
Q

According to A-123 what does an Unmodified Statement of assurance mean?

A

According to A-123 an Unmodified Statement of Assurance provides reasonable assurance the ICs are effective with no material weaknesses (MW) reported or that the IFMS is in conformance with federal requirements.

392
Q

According to A-123 what does an Modified Statement of assurance mean?

A

A modified statement of assurance provides reasonable assurance that ICs are effective with the exception of one or more material weaknesses or the IFMS is not in conformance with federal requirements.

393
Q

According to A-123 what does an Statement of No Assurance mean?

A

A statement of no assurance provides that no assurance can be provided the ICs are effective because few or no assessments were conducted, the noted material weaknesses are pervasive across many key operations, or the IFMS is substantially noncompliant with federal requirements

394
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is an Assessable unit?

A

An assessable unit is any organizational, functional, programmatic, or other applicable subdivision capable of being evaluated by management control assessment procedures that ensured a reasonable level of management control to allow for adequate control analysis.

395
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is an Assessable Unit Managers?

A

Assessable Unit Managers include top-level managers, down through operational managers, of all programs and activities in which funds, property, and other assets must be safeguarded.

396
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is an Control objective?

A

a Control Objective is a specific aim, goal, condition, or level of control established by a manager for an assessable unit that provides reasonable assurance that the resources allocated to that activity are safeguarded. Control objectives are not absolutes.

397
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is an Control Technique?

A

A Control Technique is any form of organization procedure or document flow that is being relied upon to accomplish a control objective.

398
Q

What are the two types of written materials concerning Control Techniques?

A

The two types of written materials concerning Control Techniques are:
-Review Documentation - shows the types and scope of review, the responsible official, dates and facts, key findings, and the recommended corrective actions. -System Documentation - includes policies and procedures, organization chars, manuals, flow charts, and related written and graphics necessary to describe organizational structure, operating procedures, and administrative practices, communicate responsibilities and authorities for accomplishing programs and activities.

399
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is an DoD Functional Proponent?

A

A DoD Functional Proponent is the DoD staff principal responsible for policy and oversight of a particular functional area

400
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is Fraud, Waste & Abuse?

A

The GAO Green book defines fraud as obtaining something of value through willful misrepresentation
-Waste is the act of using or expending resources carelessly, extravagantly, or to no purpose,
-Abuse involves behavior that is deficient or improper when compared with behavior that a prudent person considers reasonable and necessary in operational practice given the facts and circumstances. This includes the misuse of authority or position for personal gain or for the benefit of another.

401
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is an General control Environment?

A

General Control Environment is the environment in which an event cycle operates, including management attitude; organizational structure personnel competence; delegation of authority and responsibility; policies, procedures, budgeting, and reporting practices; and organizational checks and balances.

402
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is an Key Internal Controls?

A

Key Internal Controls are the internal controls that are most important to the accomplishment of the mission or the responsibilities of an assessable unit.

403
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is an Internal Control?

A

According to the GAO Green Book; Internal control comprises the plans, methods policies, and procedures used to fulfill the mission, strategic plan, goals and objectives of the entity.

404
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is an Internal Control Evaluation?

A

An Internal Control Evaluation is a detailed examination of a system of ICs in and assessable unit using the methodology specific for that purpose.

405
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is an Internal Control Guidelines?

A

DoDI 5010.40 presents Internal Control Guideline suggested approaches that may be adapted to meet DoD Component needs. Any adaptation should remain in compliance with OMB A-123

406
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is an Internal Control Plan (ICP)?

A

An Internal Control Plan (ICP) is a brief, written plan that indicates the number of scheduled and accomplished IC evaluations, the identity of DoD Component assessable units, and progress toward accomplishment of annual program requirements.

407
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is an Internal Control Process?

A

An Internal Control Process is the full scope of management responsibility as defined by DoD directive 5010.38 and DoDI 5010.40. That responsibility extends from management’s development of effective internal controls, through their evaluation and correction of deficiencies, to the reporting requirements of this guidance.

408
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is an Internal Control System?

A

According to the GAO Green Book, an Internal Control System is a continuous built-in component of operations, effected by people, that provides reasonable assurance, not absolute assurance, that an entity’s objectives will be achieved.

409
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is a Material Weakness (MW)?

A

A Material weakness (MW) is a significant deficiency that the agency head determines to be significant enough to report outside of the agency as a material weakness. In the context of the green book, non-achievement of a relevant internal control principle and related component results in a material weakness.

410
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is Reasonable Assurance?

A

Reasonable Assurance is a judgement by a DoD component head based upon all available information that DoD component’s systems of internal controls are operating as intended by Section 3512 of Title 31 USC (also referred to as Public Law 97-255 and the Federal Manager’s Financial Integrity Act (FMFIA) of 1982

411
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is a Risk?

A

A Risk is the probable or potentially adverse effects from inadequate internal controls that may result in the loss of government resources or cause an agency to fail to accomplish significant mission objectives through fraud, error, or mismanagement.

412
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is Risk Appetite?

A

Risk Appetite is the broad-based amount of risk an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its mission/vision. It is established by the organization’s most senior level leadership and serves as the guidepost to set strategy and select objectives.

413
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is a Risk Profile?

A

A Risk Profile is a prioritized inventory of the most significant risks identified and assessed through the risk assessment process

414
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is Risk tolerance?

A

Risk Tolerance is the acceptable level of variance in performance relative to the achievement of objectives. In setting risk tolerance levels, management considers the relative importance of the related objectives and aligns risk tolerance with risk appetite.

415
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is Senior Management Council?

A

A Senior Management Council is a committee or board of senior functional officials convened to advise the head of an organization on internal control matters, to include the identification of internal control weaknesses that merit reporting as material weaknesses. The responsibilities of the council need not be devoted exclusively to oversight of internal controls.

416
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what are Systemic Control Weakness?

A

A Systemic control weakness is one that is recognized by an affected OSD functional proponent to be occurring in several DoD components because of the components’ ineffective implementation of the OSD functional proponent’s guidance and or because the OSD functional proponents guidance did not adequately identify or define the internal controls required.

417
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is a significant Deficiency?

A

A Significant Deficiency is a situation that exists when the design, implementation, or operation of a control does not allow management of personnel, in the normal course of performing their assigned functions, to achieve control objectives and address related risks.

418
Q

Per Internal Control Terminology what is Testing?

A

Testing are the procedures to determine through observation, examination, verification, sampling, or other procedures whether internal control systems are working as intended (IE in accordance with internal control objectives)

419
Q

What is the Judicial Branch overarching mission?

A

The Judicial Branch interprets the law and resolves issues the other branches have differences on.

420
Q

What is one of the additional OMB responsibilities?

A

OMB is responsible for notifying Congress of Executive Branch requested legislation

421
Q

When did the President have the power to Line Item Veto laws and what did that mean?

A

Line Item Veto was the power that President Clinton had that was granted in 1996 and was declared unconstitutional in 1998 where the position was able to go thru any law prior to enactment and line out any item/clause that the President did not want.

422
Q

What is one of the tools for OMB for use during the budget process?

A

Using past and current information to predict future requirements = forecasting

423
Q

What is something you cannot do during emergency situations?

A

The NOT answer is: you cannot use military to augment the civilian workforce.

424
Q

What is DOPMA?

A

Defense Officers Personnel Management Act Acronym is DOPMA. It sets the number of military officers, 0-4 and above, by grade, by Department.

425
Q

What is an additional requirement concerning the MEO during the A-76 process?

A

MEO must be cheaper, it cannot be status quo.

426
Q

How must you cost out personnel during the A-76 process?

A

When costing out a-76 manpower, it must always be as if all members are civ

427
Q

What is not a remedy for resolving a possible conflict of interest?

A

Exercising a stock option is not a remedy for avoiding potential conflicts of interest

428
Q

What is an example of improper use of government equipment computers?

A

You cannot send a personal fundraising email - like for a private organization or even the American Heart Association

429
Q

What are two types of enabling terminology?

A

General and specific terminology are tools in legislation ie the SECDEF may or any agency may

430
Q

what is slang term for the role of congress?

A

Congress has the ‘Power of the Purse’ due to ‘no monies may be drawn except thru appropriation from congress.

431
Q

What is the basic framework for the DoD Financial Management System?

A

DoD FMR 7000.14R Volume 2A, Paragraph 010406 is the Basic Framework for the DoD Financial Management System

432
Q

What does the term GIN mean?

A

The term GIN means Governmental in Nature.

433
Q

What can be included inside other legislation?

A

Organic and enabling legislation. Organic legislation is part of NDAA then (1.1.29) ie 2002 Patriot Act included other allowances.

434
Q

What US Codes affect the world of CDFM?

A

The following 6 us codes affect the world of CDFM:
5 USC Government Organization and Employees
10 USC Armed Forces
18 USC Crimes and Criminal Procedure
31 USC Money and Finance
41 USC Public Contracts
50 USC War and National Defense (NSC, MIP, NIP)

435
Q

What are the main OMB Circulars that affect the world of the CDFM?

A

The Main OMB Circulars that affect the world of the CDFM are:
A-11 Preparation, Submission and Execution of the Budget
A-76 Performance of Commercial Activities
A-94 Guidelines and Discount Rates for Benefit-Cost Analysis of Federal Programs
A-123 Management Responsibility for Enterprise Risk Management and Internal Control
A-136 Financial Management Reporting

436
Q

When Congress approves Authorizations, they are allowing:

A

When Congress approves Authorizations, Congress is:
Allowing programs to exist
Setting funding ceilings
Setting DoD policy
Setting major Defense Acquisition Program Quantities
Setting End Strength levels

437
Q

What is SCN and how long can you use it?

A

Ship’s construction Navy - 5 years