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MOD E > MOD E > Flashcards

MOD E Flashcards

1
Q

What is line 3 on a STO

A

Authorities

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2
Q

what is a STO

A

Surface to Air Missile Tactical Order

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3
Q

Define a SAMSTAT

A

Surface to Air Missile Status Report

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4
Q

How many steps are in the MDMP process

A

Seven steps

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5
Q

What are the seven steps in the MDMP

A
  1. Receipt the mission
  2. Mission Analysis
  3. COA development
  4. COA analysis
  5. COA comparison
  6. COA Approval
  7. Orders production
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6
Q

What is line 3A on a STO

A

IDA (identification authorities)

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7
Q

ADW is what line on a STO

A

Line 4A

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8
Q

The Preamble on a STO report consists of what

A

Issuer, STO number, For, and Operation

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9
Q

what is line 1 on a STO

A

Effective DTG

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10
Q

What are the four IPB

A
  1. Define battle field OE
  2. Describe battle field effects
  3. Evaluate the threat
  4. Determine possible threat COA’s
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11
Q

Describe the MDMP

A

The military decision making process is an interactive planning methodology to understand the situation and mission, develop a course of action, and produce an operation plan or order.

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12
Q

What is SM1

A

ABT

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13
Q

What is SM2

A

ABT/ TBM

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14
Q

What is SM3

A

CM/ ABT

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15
Q

What is SM4

A

CM/ ABT/ TBM-Self

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16
Q

What is SM5

A

TBM Pure

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17
Q

What is line 3D on a STO

A

EMCOM Authority

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18
Q

When is a STO issued

A

0001Z

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19
Q

How is a STO numbered

A

in sequential order starting with 001

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20
Q

Give an example of a DTG

A

061000ZJUN19

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21
Q

DECISION POINTS, CRITICAL EVENTS, and SCREENING CRITERIA are part of what step in the MDMP process?

A

Step 3 COA development:

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22
Q

Define ACMAF

A

AirSpace control Measures Activation Form

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23
Q

Define ETRO

A

Estimated Time of Return to Operation

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24
Q

______ variable describes characteristics of the area of the operation, focusing on how they might affect a mission

A

Mission Variables

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25
Q

What is line O in the ACMAF

A

Coordinating Altitude

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26
Q

________ best describes the cultural, religious, and ethnic make up within operational environment and the beliefs, values, customs, and behavior of the public?

A

Social

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27
Q

What mission variable involves considerations of disposition, capabilities, vulnerabilities?

A

enemy

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28
Q

what WCS is less restrictive. Only engaging targets positively identified as hostile?

A

Tight

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29
Q

Define WCS

A

Weapons Control Status

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30
Q

What is the GMT remarks fault section of the SAMSTAT report code

A

G

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31
Q

What SM mandates a posture to focuses on ABT and CM

A

SM 3

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32
Q

what is line N on the ACMAF

A

ROA ( restricted operations area)

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33
Q

what is line G on the ACMAF

A

Air Cooridor

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34
Q

what is line 4 on the ACMAF

A

SHORADEZ

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35
Q

what is line 1 on the ACMAF

A

HIMEZ

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36
Q

What line of the STO is used for SPINS not covered in the preamble?

A

The Remarks Line

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37
Q

Define METT-TC

A

Mission, Enemy, Terrain & Weather, Time, Troops, and Civil Considerations

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38
Q

What ACM is a temporary corridor used by high speed, fixed wing aircraft when transiting to and from the combat zone?

A

MRR (minimum risk route)

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39
Q

You have received your third ACMAF of the day. it is 231430ZJUN19. What is the ACMAF ID for the ACMAF

A

23C

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40
Q

which SM mandates that an FP posture their system to focus resources on ABT threats

A

SM1

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41
Q

What is Alert state 3

A

Passive search

42
Q

TRUE or FALSE? Terrain and weather are operational variables that include the geography and manmade structures?

A

False. Its a Mission variable

43
Q

Which step of the MDMP produces decision points, updated assumptions, and initial assessment measures as Key Outputs?

A

Step 4 COA Analysis

44
Q

CDRs asses this variable for planning, preparing, and executing tasks and operations. Including deployment and maneuvering units in relationship to the enemy and conditions. what variable does this address?

A

Time Available

45
Q

________ explores the services and paramilitary capability?

A

Military

46
Q

________ is a point space in time when the CDR or staff anticipates making a key decision concerning a specific COA?

A

Decision Points

47
Q

________ Is an iterative planning methodology?

A

MDMP

48
Q

What are the ADW

A

RED, YELLOW, WHITE

49
Q

What is the ECS remarks fault section of the SAMSTAT report code

A

B

50
Q

What is the BCP remarks fault section of the SAMSTAT report code

A

D

51
Q

What is the IFF remarks fault section of the SAMSTAT report code

A

K

52
Q

What is the CRG remarks fault section of the SAMSTAT report code

A

C

53
Q

Define MIJI report

A

Meaconing, Intrusion, Jamming, Interference

54
Q

Define JEZ and what line is it on the ACMAF?

A

Joint Engagement Zone. Line B or 2

55
Q

Define LOMEZ and what line is it on the ACMAF?

A

Low Altitude Missile Engagement Zone. Line C or 3

56
Q

Define WEZ and what line is it on the ACMAF?

A

Weapons Engagement Zone. Line E or 5

57
Q

Define WFZ and what line is it on the ACMAF?

A

Weapons Free Zone. Line F or 6

58
Q

Air corridor is what line on the ACMAF

A

Line G or 7

59
Q

Define BDZ and what line is it on the ACMAF?

A

Base Defense Zone. Line H or 8

60
Q

Define LLTR and what line is it on the ACMAF?

A

Low Level Transit Route. Line I or 9

61
Q

Define SAAFR and what line is it on the ACMAF?

A

Standard Use Army Aircraft Flight Route. Line K or 11

62
Q

Define SUA and what line is it on the ACMAF?

A

Special Use Airspace. Line L or 12

63
Q

Define HIDACZ and what line is it on the ACMAF?

A

High-Density Airspace Control Zone. Line M or 13

64
Q

An_______ is a composite of the conditions, circumstances, and influences which affect the employment of military forces and bear on the decisions of the commander

A

Operational environment

65
Q

A______ is a combination of actors, entities, or forces that have the capability and intent to harm US forces, national interests, or the homeland

A

Threat

66
Q

________ describe not only the military aspects of an operational environment but also the populations influence on it

A

Operational variables

67
Q

Define PMESII-PT

A

Political, Military, economic, social, information, infrastructure, physical environment, and time

68
Q

Commanders, subordinate commanders, staff and other partners sharing information knowledge, perceptions, ideas and concepts regardless of physical location throughout the planning process is what type of planning?

A

Collaborative planning

69
Q

Two or more echelons planning for the same operation sharing info sequentially through warning orders from the higher headquarters prior to the higher headquarters publishing their operation plan or operation order is what type of planning?

A

Parallel planning

70
Q

Define IPB

A

Intelligence preparation of the battlefield

71
Q

What is the screening criteria In step 3 of the MDMP process COA Development

A

Feasibility, acceptability, suitability, distinguishability, and completeness

72
Q

Conducting War gaming is part of what step in the MDMP?

A

Step 4 COA analysis

73
Q

_______ include major events from the units current position through mission accomplishment

A

Critical events

74
Q

A_______ is the diverse and dynamic combination of regular forces, irregular forces, criminal elements, or a combination of these forces and elements all unified to achieve mutually benefiting effects

A

Hybrid threat

75
Q

What is line 5A on a STO

A

Threat, Threat ADW

76
Q

What is line 6 (A-K) on a STO

A

Patriot alert states

77
Q

What is Patriot Alert State 1

A

ABT Mission

78
Q

What is Patriot Alert State 2

A

TBM Mission

79
Q

What is Patriot Alert State 3

A

Passive search

80
Q

What is Patriot Alert State 4

A

Radiate Disable

81
Q

What is Patriot Alert State 5

A

Commanders Discretion

82
Q

What is Patriot Alert State 6

A

Scheduled maintenance

83
Q

What is Patriot Alert State 7

A

Destroyed/ NMC

84
Q

What is Patriot Alert State 0

A

Moving/ transition

85
Q

The Launcher section on the SAMSTAT requires information for what two fields

A

Operational/ In- Operation

86
Q

What is the minimum safe distance from a damaged missile is how far?

A

1250 Feet

87
Q

Define NEW

A

Net Explosive Weight

88
Q

Define PES

A

Potential Explosion Site

89
Q

Define ES

A

Exposed Site

90
Q

Define QD

A

Quantity Distance

91
Q

What is the Cardinal rule of explosive safety

A

Expose the minimum amount of people to the minimum amount of explosives for the minimum amount of time.

92
Q

If a guidance conflict exists what document takes the most precedence?

A

AFMAN 91-201 has precedence

93
Q

What is the minimum distance for smoking around ordinance

A

50 Feet

94
Q

At a minimum you must have two portable fire extinguishers of what type?

A

2A: 10BC rated fire extinguishers

95
Q

What is the minimum safe distance for the storage of flammable liquids in approved storage containers?

A

50 Feet from Launching Station

96
Q

What is the minimum safe distance for the storage of combustible materials?

A

100 Feet from the Launching Station

97
Q

Define IBD

A

Inhabited Building Distance

98
Q

Define IL

A

Interline Distance

99
Q

Define IM

A

Intermagazine Distance

100
Q

You must maintain a fire break of what distance around a PES

A

50 Feet

MOD E (1 decks)

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