MOD E Flashcards
1
Q
What is line 3 on a STO
A
Authorities
2
Q
what is a STO
A
Surface to Air Missile Tactical Order
3
Q
Define a SAMSTAT
A
Surface to Air Missile Status Report
4
Q
How many steps are in the MDMP process
A
Seven steps
5
Q
What are the seven steps in the MDMP
A
- Receipt the mission
- Mission Analysis
- COA development
- COA analysis
- COA comparison
- COA Approval
- Orders production
6
Q
What is line 3A on a STO
A
IDA (identification authorities)
7
Q
ADW is what line on a STO
A
Line 4A
8
Q
The Preamble on a STO report consists of what
A
Issuer, STO number, For, and Operation
9
Q
what is line 1 on a STO
A
Effective DTG
10
Q
What are the four IPB
A
- Define battle field OE
- Describe battle field effects
- Evaluate the threat
- Determine possible threat COA’s
11
Q
Describe the MDMP
A
The military decision making process is an interactive planning methodology to understand the situation and mission, develop a course of action, and produce an operation plan or order.
12
Q
What is SM1
A
ABT
13
Q
What is SM2
A
ABT/ TBM
14
Q
What is SM3
A
CM/ ABT
15
Q
What is SM4
A
CM/ ABT/ TBM-Self
16
Q
What is SM5
A
TBM Pure
17
Q
What is line 3D on a STO
A
EMCOM Authority
18
Q
When is a STO issued
A
0001Z
19
Q
How is a STO numbered
A
in sequential order starting with 001
20
Q
Give an example of a DTG
A
061000ZJUN19
21
Q
DECISION POINTS, CRITICAL EVENTS, and SCREENING CRITERIA are part of what step in the MDMP process?
A
Step 3 COA development:
22
Q
Define ACMAF
A
AirSpace control Measures Activation Form
23
Q
Define ETRO
A
Estimated Time of Return to Operation
24
Q
______ variable describes characteristics of the area of the operation, focusing on how they might affect a mission
A
Mission Variables
25
What is line O in the ACMAF
Coordinating Altitude
26
________ best describes the cultural, religious, and ethnic make up within operational environment and the beliefs, values, customs, and behavior of the public?
Social
27
What mission variable involves considerations of disposition, capabilities, vulnerabilities?
enemy
28
what WCS is less restrictive. Only engaging targets positively identified as hostile?
Tight
29
Define WCS
Weapons Control Status
30
What is the GMT remarks fault section of the SAMSTAT report code
G
31
What SM mandates a posture to focuses on ABT and CM
SM 3
32
what is line N on the ACMAF
ROA ( restricted operations area)
33
what is line G on the ACMAF
Air Cooridor
34
what is line 4 on the ACMAF
SHORADEZ
35
what is line 1 on the ACMAF
HIMEZ
36
What line of the STO is used for SPINS not covered in the preamble?
The Remarks Line
37
Define METT-TC
Mission, Enemy, Terrain & Weather, Time, Troops, and Civil Considerations
38
What ACM is a temporary corridor used by high speed, fixed wing aircraft when transiting to and from the combat zone?
MRR (minimum risk route)
39
You have received your third ACMAF of the day. it is 231430ZJUN19. What is the ACMAF ID for the ACMAF
23C
40
which SM mandates that an FP posture their system to focus resources on ABT threats
SM1
41
What is Alert state 3
Passive search
42
TRUE or FALSE? Terrain and weather are operational variables that include the geography and manmade structures?
False. Its a Mission variable
43
Which step of the MDMP produces decision points, updated assumptions, and initial assessment measures as Key Outputs?
Step 4 COA Analysis
44
CDRs asses this variable for planning, preparing, and executing tasks and operations. Including deployment and maneuvering units in relationship to the enemy and conditions. what variable does this address?
Time Available
45
________ explores the services and paramilitary capability?
Military
46
________ is a point space in time when the CDR or staff anticipates making a key decision concerning a specific COA?
Decision Points
47
________ Is an iterative planning methodology?
MDMP
48
What are the ADW
RED, YELLOW, WHITE
49
What is the ECS remarks fault section of the SAMSTAT report code
B
50
What is the BCP remarks fault section of the SAMSTAT report code
D
51
What is the IFF remarks fault section of the SAMSTAT report code
K
52
What is the CRG remarks fault section of the SAMSTAT report code
C
53
Define MIJI report
Meaconing, Intrusion, Jamming, Interference
54
Define JEZ and what line is it on the ACMAF?
Joint Engagement Zone. Line B or 2
55
Define LOMEZ and what line is it on the ACMAF?
Low Altitude Missile Engagement Zone. Line C or 3
56
Define WEZ and what line is it on the ACMAF?
Weapons Engagement Zone. Line E or 5
57
Define WFZ and what line is it on the ACMAF?
Weapons Free Zone. Line F or 6
58
Air corridor is what line on the ACMAF
Line G or 7
59
Define BDZ and what line is it on the ACMAF?
Base Defense Zone. Line H or 8
60
Define LLTR and what line is it on the ACMAF?
Low Level Transit Route. Line I or 9
61
Define SAAFR and what line is it on the ACMAF?
Standard Use Army Aircraft Flight Route. Line K or 11
62
Define SUA and what line is it on the ACMAF?
Special Use Airspace. Line L or 12
63
Define HIDACZ and what line is it on the ACMAF?
High-Density Airspace Control Zone. Line M or 13
64
An_______ is a composite of the conditions, circumstances, and influences which affect the employment of military forces and bear on the decisions of the commander
Operational environment
65
A______ is a combination of actors, entities, or forces that have the capability and intent to harm US forces, national interests, or the homeland
Threat
66
________ describe not only the military aspects of an operational environment but also the populations influence on it
Operational variables
67
Define PMESII-PT
Political, Military, economic, social, information, infrastructure, physical environment, and time
68
Commanders, subordinate commanders, staff and other partners sharing information knowledge, perceptions, ideas and concepts regardless of physical location throughout the planning process is what type of planning?
Collaborative planning
69
Two or more echelons planning for the same operation sharing info sequentially through warning orders from the higher headquarters prior to the higher headquarters publishing their operation plan or operation order is what type of planning?
Parallel planning
70
Define IPB
Intelligence preparation of the battlefield
71
What is the screening criteria In step 3 of the MDMP process COA Development
Feasibility, acceptability, suitability, distinguishability, and completeness
72
Conducting War gaming is part of what step in the MDMP?
Step 4 COA analysis
73
_______ include major events from the units current position through mission accomplishment
Critical events
74
A_______ is the diverse and dynamic combination of regular forces, irregular forces, criminal elements, or a combination of these forces and elements all unified to achieve mutually benefiting effects
Hybrid threat
75
What is line 5A on a STO
Threat, Threat ADW
76
What is line 6 (A-K) on a STO
Patriot alert states
77
What is Patriot Alert State 1
ABT Mission
78
What is Patriot Alert State 2
TBM Mission
79
What is Patriot Alert State 3
Passive search
80
What is Patriot Alert State 4
Radiate Disable
81
What is Patriot Alert State 5
Commanders Discretion
82
What is Patriot Alert State 6
Scheduled maintenance
83
What is Patriot Alert State 7
Destroyed/ NMC
84
What is Patriot Alert State 0
Moving/ transition
85
The Launcher section on the SAMSTAT requires information for what two fields
Operational/ In- Operation
86
What is the minimum safe distance from a damaged missile is how far?
1250 Feet
87
Define NEW
Net Explosive Weight
88
Define PES
Potential Explosion Site
89
Define ES
Exposed Site
90
Define QD
Quantity Distance
91
What is the Cardinal rule of explosive safety
Expose the minimum amount of people to the minimum amount of explosives for the minimum amount of time.
92
If a guidance conflict exists what document takes the most precedence?
AFMAN 91-201 has precedence
93
What is the minimum distance for smoking around ordinance
50 Feet
94
At a minimum you must have two portable fire extinguishers of what type?
2A: 10BC rated fire extinguishers
95
What is the minimum safe distance for the storage of flammable liquids in approved storage containers?
50 Feet from Launching Station
96
What is the minimum safe distance for the storage of combustible materials?
100 Feet from the Launching Station
97
Define IBD
Inhabited Building Distance
98
Define IL
Interline Distance
99
Define IM
Intermagazine Distance
100
You must maintain a fire break of what distance around a PES
50 Feet
