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Health Assesment > Mod 5 > Flashcards

Mod 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the abdomen located?

A

The abdomen is bordered superiorly by the costal margins, inferiorly by the symphysis pubis and inguinal canals, and laterally by the flanks.

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2
Q

What are the 4 abdominal quadrants?

A

the right upper quadrant (RUQ), right lower quadrant (RLQ), left lower quadrant (LLQ), and left upper quadrant (LUQ)

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3
Q

What do abdominal muscles do?

A

The abdominal wall muscles protect the internal organs and allow normal compression during functional activities such as coughing, sneezing, urination, defecation, and childbirth.

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4
Q

What are the three layers of abdominal muscles?

A

outermost layer is the external abdominal oblique, the middle layer is the internal abdominal oblique, and the innermost layer is the transverse abdominis

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5
Q

What are the vertical muscle of the anterior abdominal wall called?

A

rectus abdominis

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6
Q

what are the thin, shiny serous membranes that line the abdominal cavity called?

A

peritoneum lines

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7
Q

Within the abdominal cavity are struc-tures of several different body systems: gastrointestinal, repro-ductive (female), lymphatic, and urinary. These structures are typically referred to as what?

A

abdominal viscera

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8
Q

abdominal viscera can be divided into two types what are they?

A

Solid viscera - maintain shape

Hollow viscera-change shape

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9
Q

What are solid viscera organs?

A

liver, pancreas, spleen, adrenal glands, kidneys, ovaries, and uterus

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10
Q

What are hollow viscera organs?

A

stomach, gallbladder, small intestine, colon, and bladder.

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11
Q

The liver is the largest solid organ in the body. Where is it located?

A

below the diaphragm in the RUQ of the abdomen

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12
Q

What is located in the RUQ?

A 
Ascending/transverse colon
Duodenum
Gallbladder
Hepatic flexure of colon
LiverPancreas (head)Pylorus (the small bowel—or ileum— traverses all quadrants)
Right adrenal gland
Right kidney (upper pole)
Right ureter
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13
Q

What is located in the RLQ?

A 
Appendix
Ascending colon Cecum
Right kidney (lower pole)
Right ovary and tube
Right ureter
Right spermatic cord
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14
Q

What is located in the LUQ?

A 
Left adrenal gland
Left kidney (upper pole)
Left ureter
Pancreas (body and tail)
Spleen
Splenic flexure of colon
Stomach
Transverse descending colon
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15
Q

What is located in the left lower Quadrant?

A 
Left kidney (lower pole)
Left ovary and tube
Left ureter
Left spermatic cord
Descending and sigmoid colon
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16
Q

what is located at the midline

A

Bladder
Uterus
Prostate gland

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17
Q

Is the pancreas or the spleen palpable?

A

not normally

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18
Q

Where is the spleen located?

A

Above the left kidney just below the diaphragm at the level of the 9th, 10th and 11th rib

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19
Q

The right kidney is positioned slightly lower why?

A

because of the position of the liver

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20
Q

Where is the stomach located?

A

in the LUQ just below the diaphragm and between the liver and spleen.

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21
Q

Where is the stomach located?

A

just below the diaphragm and between the liver and spleen

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22
Q

Where is the gallbladder located?

A

near the posterior surface of the liver lateral to the mid-clavicular line.

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23
Q

why isn’t the gallbladder normally palpated?

A

because it is difficult to distinguish between the gallbladder and the liver.

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24
Q

what is the longest portion of the digestive tract?

A

Small intestine

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25
Q

If the small intestine is the largest of the digestive tract why is it called small?

A

because of its small diameter

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26
Q

what are three major sections of the colon?

A

ascending, transverse, and descend-ing

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27
Q

what part of the colon extends up along the right side of the abdomen?

A

ascending colon

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28
Q

what part of the colon runs across the upper abdomen?

A

trans-verse colon

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29
Q

what part of the colon forms another right angle then extends downward along the left side of the abdomen?

A

descend-ing colon.

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30
Q

what part of the colon is often felt as a firm structure on palpation?

A

sigmoid colon

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31
Q

what part of the colon is much softer?

A

cecum and ascending

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32
Q

what organ is located behind the pubic bone in the midline of the abdomen?

A

Bladder

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33
Q

Where would you palpate the bladder?

A

in the abdomen above the symphysis pubis

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34
Q

How is blood supplied to the abdominal cavity?

A

by arterial blood from the abdominal aorta and its major branches

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35
Q

Where does the aorta branch to?

A

the right and left iliac arteries

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36
Q

What are S/S of pancreas cancer?

A

pain may be gradual or recurrent. A client may have excessive gas after ingesting certain foods. A burning sensation in the esophagus may occur with gastric acid reflux after eating.

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37
Q

Abdominal pain may be formally described as what?

A

visceral, parietal, or referred

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38
Q

When does visceral pain occur?

A

occurs when hollow abdominal organs—such as the intestines—become distended or contract forcefully, or when the capsules of solid organs such as the liver and spleen are stretched

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39
Q

When does parietal pain occur?

A

occurs when the parietal peritoneum becomes inflamed, as in appendicitis or peritonitis

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40
Q

When does referred pain occur?

A

It occurs at distant sites that are innervated at approximately the same levels as the disrupted abdominal organ.

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41
Q

Visceral pain is characterized as what?

A

dull, aching, burning, cramping, or colicky

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42
Q

Parietal pain is characterized as what?

A

more severe and steady pain

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43
Q

Dull or burning pain located between the breasts and umbilicus may be a sign of what?

A

peptic ulcers

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44
Q

Dull or aching abdominal pain can be implications of what?

A 
Appendicitis
Acute hepatitis
Biliary colic
Cholecystitis
Cystitis
Dyspepsia
Glomerulonephritis
Incarcerated or strangulated hernia
Irritable bowel syndrome
Hepatocellular cancer
Pancreatitis
Pancreatic cancer
Perforated gastric or duodenal ulcer Peritonitis 
Peptic ulcer disease
Prostatitis
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45
Q

burning or gnawing abdominal pain can be implications of what?

A 
Dyspepsia
Peptic ulcer disease
Cramping (“crampy”)
Acute mechanical obstruction
Appendicitis
Colitis
Diverticulitis
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
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46
Q

Abdominal pressure pain can be implications of what?

A

Benign prostatic hypertrophy Prostate cancer Prostatitis Urinary retention

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47
Q

Colicky abdominal pain can be implication of what?

A

Colon cancer

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48
Q

Sharp or Knifelike abdominal pain can be implication of what?

A 
Splenic abscess
Splenic rupture
Renal colic
Renal tumor
Ureteral colic
Vascular liver tumor
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49
Q

Variable of abdominal pain can be an implication of what?

A

Stomach cancer

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50
Q

what are peptic ulcers?

A

open sores, that form in the lining of the esophagus, stomach, or small intestine when acid eats away the protective mucous covering and erodes the underlying lining of these organs.

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51
Q

why is an abdominal examination preformed?

A

as part of a comprehensive health examination; to explore GI complaints; to assess abdominal pain, tenderness, or masses; or to monitor the client postoperatively

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52
Q

Why do you Auscultate after you inspect the abdomen?

A

so as not to alter the client’s pattern of bowel sounds.

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53
Q

What order do you assess the abdomen?

A

Inspect
Auscultate
Percuss
palpate

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54
Q

what two positions are appropriate for the abdominal assessment?

A

the client may lie supine with hands resting on the center of the chest or with arms resting comfortably at the sides

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55
Q

Why would a client display voluntarily guarding of an area?

A

because he/she is anxious and modest during the examination, possibly from anticipated discomfort or fear that the examiner will find something seriously wrong.

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56
Q

when inspecting the skin what are some abnormal findings?

A

Purple discoloration at the flanks-bleeding within the abdominal wall, possibly from trauma to the kidneys, pancreas, or duodenum or from pancreatitis.

The yellow hue of jaundice may be more apparent on the abdomen

Pale, taut skin may be seen with ascites

Redness may indicate inflammation.

Bruises or areas of local discoloration are also abnormal.

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57
Q

what might you see on the abdomen of a client with cirrhosis?

A

Dilated veins

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58
Q

Dark bluish-pink striae are associated with what?

A

Cushing’s syndrome

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59
Q

Keloids (excess scar tissue) result from trauma or surgery and are more common in what ethnic background?

A

African Americans and Asians

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60
Q

deviated umbilicus may be caused by what?

A

pressure from a mass, enlarged organs, hernia, fluid, or scar tissue.

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61
Q

High-pitched tinkling and rushes of high-pitched sounds with abdominal cramping usually indicate what?

A

obstruction

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62
Q

what part of the stethoscope would you use to listen for bruit?

A

bell

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63
Q

Tenderness elicited over the liver may be associated with what?

A

inflammation or infection, hepatitis or cholecystitis

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64
Q

What is Involuntary reflex guarding?

A

s serious and reflects peritoneal irritation. The abdomen is rigid and the rectus muscle fails to relax with palpation when the client exhales. It can involve all or part of the abdomen but is usually seen on the side

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65
Q

Palpation of a hard nodule in or around the umbilicus may indicate what?

A

metastatic nodes from an occult gastrointestinal cancer

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66
Q

What are signs that ascites is present?

A

distended abdomen or bulging flanks

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67
Q

what position should the client be when percussing for ascites?

A

supine

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68
Q

what is a second special technique to detect ascites?

A

Perform the fluid wave test

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69
Q

What are risk diagnoses?

A

Risk for Fluid Volume Deficit related to excessive nausea and vomiting or diarrhea
• Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity related to fluid volume deficit secondary to decreased fluid intake, nausea, vom-iting, diarrhea, fecal or urinary incontinence, or ostomy drainage
• Risk for Impaired Oral Mucous Membranes related to fluid volume deficit secondary to nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or gastrointestinal intubation
• Risk for Urinary Infection related to urinary stasis and decreased fluid intake
• Risk for Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Require-ments related to lack of dietary information or inadequate intake of nutrients secondary to values or religious beliefs or eating disorders
• Risk for dysfunctional gastrointestinal motility

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70
Q

What are actual diagnoses?

A
  • Diarrhea related to dietary intolerances
  • Constipation related to insufficient physical activity and fluid intake
  • Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements related to malabsorption, decreased appetite, frequent nau-sea, and vomiting
  • Imbalanced Nutrition: More Than Body Requirements related to intake that exceeds caloric needs
  • Ineffective Sexuality Patterns related to fear of rejection by partner secondary to offensive odor and drainage from colostomy or ileostomy
  • Grieving related to change in manner of bowel elimination
  • Disturbed Body Image related to change in abdominal appearance secondary to presence of stoma
  • Diarrhea related to malabsorption and chronic irritable bowel syndrome or medications
  • Constipation related to decreased fluid intake, decreased dietary fiber, decreased physical activity, bedrest, or medica-tions
  • Perceived Constipation related to decrease in usual pattern and frequency of bowel elimination
  • Bowel Incontinence related to muscular or neurologic dys-function secondary to age, disease, or trauma• Ineffective Health Maintenance related to chronic or inap-propriate use of laxatives or enemas
  • Activity Intolerance related to fecal or urinary incontinence
  • Anxiety related to fear of fecal or urinary incontinence
  • Social Isolation related to anxiety and fear of fecal or urinary incontinence
  • Pain: Abdominal (referred, distention, or surgical incision)
  • Impaired Urinary Elimination related to catheterization secondary to obstruction, trauma, infection, neurologic dis-orders, or surgical intervention
  • Urinary Retention related to obstruction of part of the uri-nary tract or malfunctioning of drainage devices (catheters) and need to learn bladder emptying techniques
  • Impaired Patterns of Urinary Elimination related to bladder infection
  • Functional Incontinence related to age-related urgency and inability to reach toilet in time secondary to decreased bladder tone and inability to recognize “need-to-void cues”
  • Reflex Urinary Incontinence related to lack of knowledge of ways to trigger a more predictable voiding schedule
  • Stress Incontinence related to knowledge deficit of pelvic floor muscle exercises
  • Total Incontinence related to need for bladder retraining program
  • Urge Incontinence related to need for knowledge of preven-tive measures secondary to infection, trauma, or neurogenic problems
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71
Q

what can cause abdominal distention?

A 
pregnancy
feces
flatus
fat
fibroids and other masses
ascetic fluid
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72
Q

what causes abdominal bulges?

A

umbilical hernia
diastasis recti
epigastria hernia
incisional hernia

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73
Q

what might an enlarged liver suggest?

A

An enlarged nontender liver suggests cirrhosis. An enlarged tender liver suggests congestive heart failure, acute hepatitis, or abscess.

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74
Q

A liver lower that normal may be because of what?

A

A liver in a lower position than normal with a normal span may be caused by emphysema because the diaphragm is low.

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75
Q

An enlarged kidney may be due to what?

A

cyst, tumor, or hydronephrosis

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76
Q

a enlarged firm,hard,nodular liver suggests what?

A

cancer or may be late cirrhosis or syphilis

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77
Q

when a spleen enlarges it does what?

A

progresses downward toward the midline

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78
Q

what is the purpose of the musculoskeletal system?

A

provide structure and movement for body parts

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79
Q

what do bones do?

A

provide structure, give protection, serve as levers, store calcium, and produce blood cells

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80
Q

how many bones make up the axial and appendicular skeleton?

A

206

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81
Q

what are the two types of bone tissue?

A

compact bone-outer layer

spongy bone- make up the center

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82
Q

what cells form/break down bone tissue?

A

osteoblasts- forms

osteoclasts-breakdown

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83
Q

what does red marrow do?

A

produces blood cells

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84
Q

What is yellow marrow composed of?

A

fat

85
Q

What are the three types of muscle?

A

skeletal, smooth, cardiac

86
Q

The skeletal muscle system is made up of how many voluntary muscles?

A

650

87
Q

What skeletal muscle movement is Abduction?

A

Moving away from midline of the body

88
Q

What skeletal muscles movement is Adduction?

A

Moving toward midline of the body

89
Q

What skeletal muscle movement is circumduction?

A

Circular motion

90
Q

What skeletal muscle movement is Inversion?

A

moving inward

91
Q

What skeletal muscle movement is eversion?

A

moving outward

92
Q

What skeletal muscle movement is extension?

A

Straightening the extremity at the joint and increasing the angle of the joint

93
Q

What skeletal muscle movement is hyperextension?

A

Joint bends greater than 180 degrees

94
Q

What skeletal muscle movement is flexion?

A

Bending the extremity at the joint and decreasing the angle of the joint

95
Q

What skeletal muscle movement is dorsiflexion?

A

Toes draw upward to ankle

96
Q

What skeletal muscle movement is plantar flexion?

A

Toes point away from ankle

97
Q

What skeletal muscle movement is pronation?

A

Turning or facing downward

98
Q

What skeletal muscle movement is supination?

A

Turning or facing upward

99
Q

What skeletal muscle movement is retraction?

A

moving backward

100
Q

What skeletal muscle movement is protraction?

A

moving forward

101
Q

What skeletal muscle movement is rotation?

A

Turning of a bone on its own long axis

102
Q

what are fibrous joints?

A

are joined by fibrous connective tissue and are immovable.

e.g., sutures between skull bones

103
Q

What are cartilaginous joints?

A

are joined by carti-lage.

e.g., joints between vertebrae

104
Q

what are synovial joints?

A

spaces between the bones that is filled with synovial fluid, a lubricant that promotes a sliding move-ment of the ends of the bones. Bones in synovial joints are joined by ligaments.

e.g., shoulders, wrists, hips, knees, ankles;

105
Q

why is it important when interviewing a client to ask if the received the polio immunization?

A

because joint stiffening and other musculoskeletal symptoms may be a transient effect of the tetanus, whooping cough, diphtheria, or polio vaccines

106
Q

who is more porn to development of osteoporosis?

A

clients who are immobile or have a reduced intake of calcium and vitamin D

107
Q

what role does menopause have on osteoporosis?

A

the decrease in estrogen levels decrease density of bone mass

108
Q

how do diuretics affect musculoskeletal function?

A

it can alter electrolyte levels and lead to muscle weakness

109
Q

How does diet affect musculoskeletal system?

A
  • Protein in the diet promotes muscle tone and bone growth
  • Vitamin C promotes healing of tissues and bones
  • Calcium defi-ciency increases the risk of osteoporosis.
  • A diet high in purine can trigger gouty arthritis.
110
Q

Vitamin D deficiency can cause what?

A

osteomalacia

111
Q

what is osteorosis?

A

a disease in which bones demineralize and become porous and fragile, making them susceptible to frac-tures.

112
Q

What are Unmodifiable risk?

A
  • Age
  • Female gender
  • Family history
  • Previous fracture
  • Race/ethnicity
  • Menopause/hysterectomy
  • Long-term glucocorticoid therapy
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Primary/secondary hypogonadism in men
113
Q

What are modifiable risk?

A
  • Alcohol (greater than 2 drinks a day)
  • Smoking (past or current history)
  • Low body mass index (
114
Q

What are the different rating to be use when assessing muscles?

A

5- Active motion against full resistance-Normal
4-Active motion against some resistance-Slight weakness
3-Active motion against gravity-Average weakness
2-Passive ROM (gravity removed and assisted by examiner)-Poor ROM
1-Slight flicker of contraction-Severe weakness
0-No muscular contraction-Paralysis

115
Q

An exag-gerated lumbar curve (lordosis) is often seen with?

A

pregnancy or obesity

116
Q

A flattened lumbar curvature may be seen with?

A

a herniated lumbar disc or ankylosing spondylitis

117
Q

Lateral curvature of the thoracic spine with an increase in the convexity on the curved side is seen in what?

A

scoliosis

118
Q

Neck pain is most often caused by what?

A

cervical strain

119
Q

what is the normal ROM for extension and flexion of the neck?

A

flexion- 45 degrees

hyperextenision-flexion-55

120
Q

with lateral bending a client should be able to move their head how far?

A

40 degrees on both sides

121
Q

how far should the normal ROM of cervical spine rotation be?

A

70 degrees on both sides

122
Q

Thoracic and lumbar spines flexion should be at what degree angle?

A

90 and extension 30

123
Q

Unequal leg lengths are associated with what?

A

scoliosis

124
Q

what is Normal range of motion of the shoulder: adduction/abduction?

A

abduction is 180
adduction is 50

(same with flexion/extension)

125
Q

Firm, nontender, subcutaneous nodules may be palpated in what?

A

rheumatoid arthritis or rheumatic fever

126
Q

what is the anatomic snuffbox ?

A

he hollow area on the back of the wrist at the base of the fully extended thumb

127
Q

Snuffbox tenderness may indicatewhat?

A

a scaph-oid fracture, which is often the result of falling on an outstretched hand

128
Q

What is range of motion of the wrists flexion/hyperextension?

A

flexion- 90 degrees

hyperextension-70

129
Q

when doing radial and ulnar deviation which side move the farthest?

A

ulnar at 55 degrees

radial is only 20 degrees

130
Q

What test are used for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

phalens test

Tinel’s sign

131
Q

Inability to extend the ring and little fingers is seen in what?

A

Dupuytren’s contracture

132
Q

What is the normal ROM of the hip?

A 
• 45–50 degrees of abduction
• 20–30 degrees of adduction
• 40 degrees internal hip rotation
• 45 degrees external hip rotation
.• 15 degrees hip hyperextension.
133
Q

what test do you do to determine swelling in the knee?

A

bulge test/ballottement test- large amounts of fluid

134
Q

Pain or clicking is indicative of what?

A

torn meniscus of the knee

135
Q

If the client com-plains of a “giving in” or “locking” of the knee what test would you preform?

A

McMurray’s test

136
Q

Normal flexsion of the knee is what?

A

130 degrees

hyperextension is 15

137
Q

Tenderness of the calcaneus of the bottom of the foot may indicate what?

A

plantar fasciitis

138
Q

what are risk diagnoses related to muscle skeletal system?

A
  • Risk for Trauma related to repetitive movements of wrists or elbows with recreation or occupation
  • Risk for Injury: Pathologic fractures related to osteoporosis
  • Risk for Injury to joints, muscles, or bones related to environmental hazards
  • Risk for Disuse Syndrome
  • Risk for Urinary Tract Infection related to urine stasis secondary to immobility
139
Q

what are actual diagnoses related to muscle skeletal system?

A
  • Impaired Physical Mobility related to impaired joint movement, decreased muscle strength, or fractured bone
  • Activity Intolerance related to muscle weakness or joint pain• Constipation related to decreased gastric motility and muscle tone secondary to immobility
  • Ineffective Sexuality Pattern related to lower back pain
  • Acute (or Chronic) Pain related to joint, muscle, or bone problems
  • Impaired Skin Integrity related to prolonged pressure on the skin secondary to immobility
  • Impaired Social Interaction related to depression or immo-bility
  • Disturbed Body Image related to skeletal deformities
140
Q

Tender, painful, swollen, stiff joints are seen in what?

A

acute rheumatoid arthritis.

141
Q

Chronic swelling and thickening of the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints, limited range of motion, and finger deviation toward the ulnar side are seen in what?

A

chronic rheumatoid arthritis

142
Q

What are nontender, round, enlarged, swollen, fluid-filled cyst (gan-glion) is commonly seen at the dorsum of the wrist?

A

Ganglion

143
Q

what is Thenar Atrophy?

A

Atrophy of the thenar prominence due to pressure on the median nerve is seen in carpal tunnel syndrome.

144
Q

when the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe is tender, painful, reddened, hot, and swollen it is what?

A

gouty arthritis

145
Q

what is the inward turning of the knee known as?

A

genu valgum

146
Q

When using the nudge test the client easily falls backward this indicates what?

A

spondylosis of Parkinson’s disease

147
Q

what are the two structural components of the neurologic system?

A

the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system.

148
Q

What are the three layers of connective tissue that protect and nourish the CNS?

A

meninges

149
Q

What fills the subarachnoid space?

A

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

150
Q

What does this fluid filled space do?

A

cushions the brain and spinal cords, nourishes the CNS, and removes waste materials.

151
Q

what are the four major divisions of the cranial cavity?

A

cerebrum, the diencephalon, the brain stem, and the cerebellum

152
Q

what is the right and left side of the cerebrum joined by?

A

corpus callosum

153
Q

what is the corpus callosum?

A

a bundle of nerve fibers responsible for communication between the hemispheres.

154
Q

what are the lobes of the cerebrum?

A

rontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital

155
Q

what are the lobes composed of?

A

gray matter

156
Q

the Diencephalon consist of what?

A

the thalamus and hypothalamus

157
Q

what does the thalamus do?

A

it is responsible for screening and directing the impulses to specific areas in the cerebral cortex.

158
Q

what is the hypothalamus responsible for?

A

it is responsible for regulating many body functions including water balance, appetite, vital signs (tem-perature, blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate), sleep cycles, pain perception, and emotional status

159
Q

what are the three parts of the brain stem?

A

midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata.

160
Q

what does the midbrain do?

A

serves as a relay center for ear and eye reflexes, and relays impulses between the higher cerebral centers and the lower pons, medulla, cerebellum, and spinal cord.

161
Q

what does the medulla oblongata do?

A

control and regulate respira-tory function, heart rate and force, and blood pressure.

162
Q

what does the cerebellum do?

A

primary functions include coordination and smoothing of voluntary movements, main-tenance of equilibrium, and maintenance of muscle tone.

163
Q

Where is the spinal cord located?

A

vertebral canal and extends from the medulla oblongata to the first lumbar vertebra. (Note that the spinal cord is not as long as the vertebral canal

164
Q

what is the spinal cord responsible for?

A

conducts sensory impulses up ascending tracts to the brain, conducts motor impulses down descending tracts to neurons that stimulate glands and muscles throughout the body, and is responsible for simple reflex activity

165
Q

what is the frontal lobe of the brain responsible for?

A

Directs voluntary, skeletal actions (left side of lobe controls right side of body and right side of lobe controls left side of body). Also influences communication (talking and writ-ing), emotions, intellect, reasoning ability, judgment, and behavior. Contains Broca’s area, which is responsible for speech.

166
Q

what is the parietal lobe of the brain responsible for?

A

Interprets tactile sensations, including touch, pain, temperature, shapes, and two-point discrimination.

167
Q

what is the occipital lobe of the brain responsible for?

A

Influences the ability to read with understand-ing and is the primary visual receptor center.

168
Q

What lobe of the brain Receives and interprets Wernicke’s impulses from the ear. Contains area, which is responsible for interpreting auditory stimuli?

A

Temporal

169
Q

peripheral nervous system consists of how many pair?

A

12 pair

170
Q

how many cranial nerves are there?

A

31 pair

171
Q

what are the two types of nerves?

A

somatic and autonomic

172
Q

what nerve Carries smell impulses from nasal mucous membrane to brain?

A

I olfactory

173
Q

What nerve Carries visual impulses from eye to brain?

A

II optic

174
Q

what nerveContracts eye muscles to control eye movements (interior lateral, medial, and superior), constricts pupils, and elevates eyelids?

A

III oculomotor

175
Q

what nerve contracts one eye muscle to control inferomedial eye movement?

A

IV trochlear

176
Q

what nerveCarries sensory impulses of pain, touch, and temperature from the face to the brain. Influences clenching and lateral jaw movements (biting, chewing).

A

V trigeminal

177
Q

what nerve controls lateral eye movement?

A

VI abducens

178
Q

what nerve Contains sensory fibers for taste on anterior two-thirds of tongue, and stimulates secretions from salivary glands (submaxillary and sublingual) and tears from lacrimal glands and Supplies the facial muscles and affects facial expressions (smiling, frowning, closing eyes)?

A

VII facial

179
Q

what nerve contains sensory fibers for hearing and balance.

A

VIII vestibulocochlear

180
Q

what nerve Contains sensory fibers for taste on posterior third of tongue and sensory fibers of the pharynx that result in the gag reflex when stimulated/Provides secretory fibers to the parotid salivary glands; promotes swallowing movements?

A

IX glossopharyngeal

181
Q

what nerve carries sensations from the throat, larynx, heart, lungs, bronchi, gastrointestinal tract, and abdominal viscera. Promotes swallowing, talking, and production of digestive juices?

A

X vagus

182
Q

what nerve Innervates neck muscles (sternocleidomastoid and trapezius) that promote move-ment of the shoulders and head rotation. Also promotes some movement of the larynx.

A

XI spinal accessory

183
Q

what nerve innervates tongue muscles that promote the movement of food and talking.

A

XII hypoglossal

184
Q

what nerve system is know as fight-or-flight” system?

A

sympathetic nervous system

185
Q

what nerve system mediates conscious, or voluntary, activities?

A

somatic nervous system

186
Q

what nerve system medi-ates unconscious, or involuntary, activities?

A

autonomic nervous system

187
Q

what are the two types of nerve fiber in the peripheral nervous system?

A

somatic and autonomic.

188
Q

Morning headaches that subside after arising may be an early sign of what?

A

increased intracranial pressure such as with a brain tumor

189
Q

Dizziness or lightheadedness may be related to what?

A

carotid artery disease, cerebellar abscess, Ménière’s disease, or inner ear infection

190
Q

decrease in the ability to taste may be related to what?

A

dysfunction of cranial nerves VII facial or IX glossopharyngeal

191
Q

Ringing in the ears and decreased ability to hear may occur with what?

A

dysfunction of cranial nerve VIII acoustic

192
Q

Injury to the cerebral cortex can impair what?

A

he ability to speak or under-stand verbal language

193
Q

what is Fasciculations?

A

continuous, rapid twitching of resting muscles may be seen in lower motor neuron disease

194
Q

what are Tremors?

A

involuntary contraction of opposing groups of muscles are typical in degenerative neurologic disorders, such as Parkinson’s disease

195
Q

what are tics?

A

involuntary repetitive twitching movements may be seen in Tourette’s syndrome, habit psychogenic tics, or tardive dyskinesias

196
Q

what are myoclonus?

A

sudden jerks of arms or legs may occur normally when falling asleep as a single jerk. However, severe jerking is often seen with grand mal seizures.

197
Q

what are chorea?

A

sudden rapid, jerky voluntary and involuntary movements of limbs, trunk or face, is seen in Huntington’s disease and Sydenham’s chorea

198
Q

what is athetosis?

A

twisting, writhing, slow continuous movements, is seen in cerebral palsy

199
Q

what is a Cardiovascular accident?

A

known as stroke and some-times as brain attack, happens when blood flow to a portion of the brain is interrupted or stops. If the blood flow is blocked for more than a few seconds, brain cells begin to die and per-manent damage may result.

200
Q

what are risk for cardiovascular accident?

A 
High blood pressure
High cholesterol
Cigarette smoking
Diabetes
Poor diet and physical inactivity
Overweight and obesity
Untreated atrial fibrillation
Postmenopausal hormone therapy
Oral contraceptive use, especially in women over 35 who smoke
Drug and alcohol abuse
Sleep disordered breathing
201
Q

what are the grades for reflexes?

A

4+ Hyperactive, very brisk, rhythmic oscillations (clonus); abnor-mal and indicative of disorder
3+ More brisk or active than normal, but not indicative of a disorder
2+ Normal, usual response
1+ Decreased, less active than normal
0 no response

202
Q

Ptosis (drooping of the eyelid) is seen with weak eye muscles such as in what?

A

myasthenia gravis

203
Q

what are some abnormal eye movements?

A

Nystagnus
limited eye movement
paralytic strabismus

204
Q

cerebellar ataxia is what kind of gait?

A

wide based, staggering, unsteady gait

see with cerebellar or drug/ alcohol intoxication

205
Q

Parkinsonian gait is what kind of gait?

A

shuffling gait, turns accomplishedin very stiff manner

206
Q

scissors Gait is what kind of gait?

A

stiff, short gait; thighs overlap each other with each step

207
Q

Spastic hemiparesis is what kind of gait?

A

flexed arm held close to the body while client drags toe of leg or circles it stiffly outward and forward

208
Q

Footdrop gait is what?

A

client lifts foot and knee high with each step and then slaps foot down hard on the ground

Health Assesment (7 decks)

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