Mod 5 Flashcards
1
Q
Where is the abdomen located?
A
The abdomen is bordered superiorly by the costal margins, inferiorly by the symphysis pubis and inguinal canals, and laterally by the flanks.
2
Q
What are the 4 abdominal quadrants?
A
the right upper quadrant (RUQ), right lower quadrant (RLQ), left lower quadrant (LLQ), and left upper quadrant (LUQ)
3
Q
What do abdominal muscles do?
A
The abdominal wall muscles protect the internal organs and allow normal compression during functional activities such as coughing, sneezing, urination, defecation, and childbirth.
4
Q
What are the three layers of abdominal muscles?
A
outermost layer is the external abdominal oblique, the middle layer is the internal abdominal oblique, and the innermost layer is the transverse abdominis
5
Q
What are the vertical muscle of the anterior abdominal wall called?
A
rectus abdominis
6
Q
what are the thin, shiny serous membranes that line the abdominal cavity called?
A
peritoneum lines
7
Q
Within the abdominal cavity are struc-tures of several different body systems: gastrointestinal, repro-ductive (female), lymphatic, and urinary. These structures are typically referred to as what?
A
abdominal viscera
8
Q
abdominal viscera can be divided into two types what are they?
A
Solid viscera - maintain shape
Hollow viscera-change shape
9
Q
What are solid viscera organs?
A
liver, pancreas, spleen, adrenal glands, kidneys, ovaries, and uterus
10
Q
What are hollow viscera organs?
A
stomach, gallbladder, small intestine, colon, and bladder.
11
Q
The liver is the largest solid organ in the body. Where is it located?
A
below the diaphragm in the RUQ of the abdomen
12
Q
What is located in the RUQ?
A
Ascending/transverse colon Duodenum Gallbladder Hepatic flexure of colon LiverPancreas (head)Pylorus (the small bowel—or ileum— traverses all quadrants) Right adrenal gland Right kidney (upper pole) Right ureter
13
Q
What is located in the RLQ?
A
Appendix Ascending colon Cecum Right kidney (lower pole) Right ovary and tube Right ureter Right spermatic cord
14
Q
What is located in the LUQ?
A
Left adrenal gland Left kidney (upper pole) Left ureter Pancreas (body and tail) Spleen Splenic flexure of colon Stomach Transverse descending colon
15
Q
What is located in the left lower Quadrant?
A
Left kidney (lower pole) Left ovary and tube Left ureter Left spermatic cord Descending and sigmoid colon
16
Q
what is located at the midline
A
Bladder
Uterus
Prostate gland
17
Q
Is the pancreas or the spleen palpable?
A
not normally
18
Q
Where is the spleen located?
A
Above the left kidney just below the diaphragm at the level of the 9th, 10th and 11th rib
19
Q
The right kidney is positioned slightly lower why?
A
because of the position of the liver
20
Q
Where is the stomach located?
A
in the LUQ just below the diaphragm and between the liver and spleen.
21
Q
Where is the stomach located?
A
just below the diaphragm and between the liver and spleen
22
Q
Where is the gallbladder located?
A
near the posterior surface of the liver lateral to the mid-clavicular line.
23
Q
why isn’t the gallbladder normally palpated?
A
because it is difficult to distinguish between the gallbladder and the liver.
24
Q
what is the longest portion of the digestive tract?
A
Small intestine
25
If the small intestine is the largest of the digestive tract why is it called small?
because of its small diameter
26
what are three major sections of the colon?
ascending, transverse, and descend-ing
27
what part of the colon extends up along the right side of the abdomen?
ascending colon
28
what part of the colon runs across the upper abdomen?
trans-verse colon
29
what part of the colon forms another right angle then extends downward along the left side of the abdomen?
descend-ing colon.
30
what part of the colon is often felt as a firm structure on palpation?
sigmoid colon
31
what part of the colon is much softer?
cecum and ascending
32
what organ is located behind the pubic bone in the midline of the abdomen?
Bladder
33
Where would you palpate the bladder?
in the abdomen above the symphysis pubis
34
How is blood supplied to the abdominal cavity?
by arterial blood from the abdominal aorta and its major branches
35
Where does the aorta branch to?
the right and left iliac arteries
36
What are S/S of pancreas cancer?
pain may be gradual or recurrent. A client may have excessive gas after ingesting certain foods. A burning sensation in the esophagus may occur with gastric acid reflux after eating.
37
Abdominal pain may be formally described as what?
visceral, parietal, or referred
38
When does visceral pain occur?
occurs when hollow abdominal organs—such as the intestines—become distended or contract forcefully, or when the capsules of solid organs such as the liver and spleen are stretched
39
When does parietal pain occur?
occurs when the parietal peritoneum becomes inflamed, as in appendicitis or peritonitis
40
When does referred pain occur?
It occurs at distant sites that are innervated at approximately the same levels as the disrupted abdominal organ.
41
Visceral pain is characterized as what?
dull, aching, burning, cramping, or colicky
42
Parietal pain is characterized as what?
more severe and steady pain
43
Dull or burning pain located between the breasts and umbilicus may be a sign of what?
peptic ulcers
44
Dull or aching abdominal pain can be implications of what?
```
Appendicitis
Acute hepatitis
Biliary colic
Cholecystitis
Cystitis
Dyspepsia
Glomerulonephritis
Incarcerated or strangulated hernia
Irritable bowel syndrome
Hepatocellular cancer
Pancreatitis
Pancreatic cancer
Perforated gastric or duodenal ulcer Peritonitis
Peptic ulcer disease
Prostatitis
```
45
burning or gnawing abdominal pain can be implications of what?
```
Dyspepsia
Peptic ulcer disease
Cramping (“crampy”)
Acute mechanical obstruction
Appendicitis
Colitis
Diverticulitis
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
```
46
Abdominal pressure pain can be implications of what?
Benign prostatic hypertrophy Prostate cancer Prostatitis Urinary retention
47
Colicky abdominal pain can be implication of what?
Colon cancer
48
Sharp or Knifelike abdominal pain can be implication of what?
```
Splenic abscess
Splenic rupture
Renal colic
Renal tumor
Ureteral colic
Vascular liver tumor
```
49
Variable of abdominal pain can be an implication of what?
Stomach cancer
50
what are peptic ulcers?
open sores, that form in the lining of the esophagus, stomach, or small intestine when acid eats away the protective mucous covering and erodes the underlying lining of these organs.
51
why is an abdominal examination preformed?
as part of a comprehensive health examination; to explore GI complaints; to assess abdominal pain, tenderness, or masses; or to monitor the client postoperatively
52
Why do you Auscultate after you inspect the abdomen?
so as not to alter the client’s pattern of bowel sounds.
53
What order do you assess the abdomen?
Inspect
Auscultate
Percuss
palpate
54
what two positions are appropriate for the abdominal assessment?
the client may lie supine with hands resting on the center of the chest or with arms resting comfortably at the sides
55
Why would a client display voluntarily guarding of an area?
because he/she is anxious and modest during the examination, possibly from anticipated discomfort or fear that the examiner will find something seriously wrong.
56
when inspecting the skin what are some abnormal findings?
Purple discoloration at the flanks-bleeding within the abdominal wall, possibly from trauma to the kidneys, pancreas, or duodenum or from pancreatitis.
The yellow hue of jaundice may be more apparent on the abdomen
Pale, taut skin may be seen with ascites
Redness may indicate inflammation.
Bruises or areas of local discoloration are also abnormal.
57
what might you see on the abdomen of a client with cirrhosis?
Dilated veins
58
Dark bluish-pink striae are associated with what?
Cushing’s syndrome
59
Keloids (excess scar tissue) result from trauma or surgery and are more common in what ethnic background?
African Americans and Asians
60
deviated umbilicus may be caused by what?
pressure from a mass, enlarged organs, hernia, fluid, or scar tissue.
61
High-pitched tinkling and rushes of high-pitched sounds with abdominal cramping usually indicate what?
obstruction
62
what part of the stethoscope would you use to listen for bruit?
bell
63
Tenderness elicited over the liver may be associated with what?
inflammation or infection, hepatitis or cholecystitis
64
What is Involuntary reflex guarding?
s serious and reflects peritoneal irritation. The abdomen is rigid and the rectus muscle fails to relax with palpation when the client exhales. It can involve all or part of the abdomen but is usually seen on the side
65
Palpation of a hard nodule in or around the umbilicus may indicate what?
metastatic nodes from an occult gastrointestinal cancer
66
What are signs that ascites is present?
distended abdomen or bulging flanks
67
what position should the client be when percussing for ascites?
supine
68
what is a second special technique to detect ascites?
Perform the fluid wave test
69
What are risk diagnoses?
Risk for Fluid Volume Deficit related to excessive nausea and vomiting or diarrhea
• Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity related to fluid volume deficit secondary to decreased fluid intake, nausea, vom-iting, diarrhea, fecal or urinary incontinence, or ostomy drainage
• Risk for Impaired Oral Mucous Membranes related to fluid volume deficit secondary to nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or gastrointestinal intubation
• Risk for Urinary Infection related to urinary stasis and decreased fluid intake
• Risk for Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Require-ments related to lack of dietary information or inadequate intake of nutrients secondary to values or religious beliefs or eating disorders
• Risk for dysfunctional gastrointestinal motility
70
What are actual diagnoses?
* Diarrhea related to dietary intolerances
* Constipation related to insufficient physical activity and fluid intake
* Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements related to malabsorption, decreased appetite, frequent nau-sea, and vomiting
* Imbalanced Nutrition: More Than Body Requirements related to intake that exceeds caloric needs
* Ineffective Sexuality Patterns related to fear of rejection by partner secondary to offensive odor and drainage from colostomy or ileostomy
* Grieving related to change in manner of bowel elimination
* Disturbed Body Image related to change in abdominal appearance secondary to presence of stoma
* Diarrhea related to malabsorption and chronic irritable bowel syndrome or medications
* Constipation related to decreased fluid intake, decreased dietary fiber, decreased physical activity, bedrest, or medica-tions
* Perceived Constipation related to decrease in usual pattern and frequency of bowel elimination
* Bowel Incontinence related to muscular or neurologic dys-function secondary to age, disease, or trauma• Ineffective Health Maintenance related to chronic or inap-propriate use of laxatives or enemas
* Activity Intolerance related to fecal or urinary incontinence
* Anxiety related to fear of fecal or urinary incontinence
* Social Isolation related to anxiety and fear of fecal or urinary incontinence
* Pain: Abdominal (referred, distention, or surgical incision)
* Impaired Urinary Elimination related to catheterization secondary to obstruction, trauma, infection, neurologic dis-orders, or surgical intervention
* Urinary Retention related to obstruction of part of the uri-nary tract or malfunctioning of drainage devices (catheters) and need to learn bladder emptying techniques
* Impaired Patterns of Urinary Elimination related to bladder infection
* Functional Incontinence related to age-related urgency and inability to reach toilet in time secondary to decreased bladder tone and inability to recognize “need-to-void cues”
* Reflex Urinary Incontinence related to lack of knowledge of ways to trigger a more predictable voiding schedule
* Stress Incontinence related to knowledge deficit of pelvic floor muscle exercises
* Total Incontinence related to need for bladder retraining program
* Urge Incontinence related to need for knowledge of preven-tive measures secondary to infection, trauma, or neurogenic problems
71
what can cause abdominal distention?
```
pregnancy
feces
flatus
fat
fibroids and other masses
ascetic fluid
```
72
what causes abdominal bulges?
umbilical hernia
diastasis recti
epigastria hernia
incisional hernia
73
what might an enlarged liver suggest?
An enlarged nontender liver suggests cirrhosis. An enlarged tender liver suggests congestive heart failure, acute hepatitis, or abscess.
74
A liver lower that normal may be because of what?
A liver in a lower position than normal with a normal span may be caused by emphysema because the diaphragm is low.
75
An enlarged kidney may be due to what?
cyst, tumor, or hydronephrosis
76
a enlarged firm,hard,nodular liver suggests what?
cancer or may be late cirrhosis or syphilis
77
when a spleen enlarges it does what?
progresses downward toward the midline
78
what is the purpose of the musculoskeletal system?
provide structure and movement for body parts
79
what do bones do?
provide structure, give protection, serve as levers, store calcium, and produce blood cells
80
how many bones make up the axial and appendicular skeleton?
206
81
what are the two types of bone tissue?
compact bone-outer layer
| spongy bone- make up the center
82
what cells form/break down bone tissue?
osteoblasts- forms
| osteoclasts-breakdown
83
what does red marrow do?
produces blood cells
84
What is yellow marrow composed of?
fat
85
What are the three types of muscle?
skeletal, smooth, cardiac
86
The skeletal muscle system is made up of how many voluntary muscles?
650
87
What skeletal muscle movement is Abduction?
Moving away from midline of the body
88
What skeletal muscles movement is Adduction?
Moving toward midline of the body
89
What skeletal muscle movement is circumduction?
Circular motion
90
What skeletal muscle movement is Inversion?
moving inward
91
What skeletal muscle movement is eversion?
moving outward
92
What skeletal muscle movement is extension?
Straightening the extremity at the joint and increasing the angle of the joint
93
What skeletal muscle movement is hyperextension?
Joint bends greater than 180 degrees
94
What skeletal muscle movement is flexion?
Bending the extremity at the joint and decreasing the angle of the joint
95
What skeletal muscle movement is dorsiflexion?
Toes draw upward to ankle
96
What skeletal muscle movement is plantar flexion?
Toes point away from ankle
97
What skeletal muscle movement is pronation?
Turning or facing downward
98
What skeletal muscle movement is supination?
Turning or facing upward
99
What skeletal muscle movement is retraction?
moving backward
100
What skeletal muscle movement is protraction?
moving forward
101
What skeletal muscle movement is rotation?
Turning of a bone on its own long axis
102
what are fibrous joints?
are joined by fibrous connective tissue and are immovable.
| e.g., sutures between skull bones
103
What are cartilaginous joints?
are joined by carti-lage.
| e.g., joints between vertebrae
104
what are synovial joints?
spaces between the bones that is filled with synovial fluid, a lubricant that promotes a sliding move-ment of the ends of the bones. Bones in synovial joints are joined by ligaments.
e.g., shoulders, wrists, hips, knees, ankles;
105
why is it important when interviewing a client to ask if the received the polio immunization?
because joint stiffening and other musculoskeletal symptoms may be a transient effect of the tetanus, whooping cough, diphtheria, or polio vaccines
106
who is more porn to development of osteoporosis?
clients who are immobile or have a reduced intake of calcium and vitamin D
107
what role does menopause have on osteoporosis?
the decrease in estrogen levels decrease density of bone mass
108
how do diuretics affect musculoskeletal function?
it can alter electrolyte levels and lead to muscle weakness
109
How does diet affect musculoskeletal system?
- Protein in the diet promotes muscle tone and bone growth
- Vitamin C promotes healing of tissues and bones
- Calcium defi-ciency increases the risk of osteoporosis.
- A diet high in purine can trigger gouty arthritis.
110
Vitamin D deficiency can cause what?
osteomalacia
111
what is osteorosis?
a disease in which bones demineralize and become porous and fragile, making them susceptible to frac-tures.
112
What are Unmodifiable risk?
* Age
* Female gender
* Family history
* Previous fracture
* Race/ethnicity
* Menopause/hysterectomy
* Long-term glucocorticoid therapy
* Rheumatoid arthritis
* Primary/secondary hypogonadism in men
113
What are modifiable risk?
* Alcohol (greater than 2 drinks a day)
* Smoking (past or current history)
* Low body mass index (
114
What are the different rating to be use when assessing muscles?
5- Active motion against full resistance-Normal
4-Active motion against some resistance-Slight weakness
3-Active motion against gravity-Average weakness
2-Passive ROM (gravity removed and assisted by examiner)-Poor ROM
1-Slight flicker of contraction-Severe weakness
0-No muscular contraction-Paralysis
115
An exag-gerated lumbar curve (lordosis) is often seen with?
pregnancy or obesity
116
A flattened lumbar curvature may be seen with?
a herniated lumbar disc or ankylosing spondylitis
117
Lateral curvature of the thoracic spine with an increase in the convexity on the curved side is seen in what?
scoliosis
118
Neck pain is most often caused by what?
cervical strain
119
what is the normal ROM for extension and flexion of the neck?
flexion- 45 degrees
| hyperextenision-flexion-55
120
with lateral bending a client should be able to move their head how far?
40 degrees on both sides
121
how far should the normal ROM of cervical spine rotation be?
70 degrees on both sides
122
Thoracic and lumbar spines flexion should be at what degree angle?
90 and extension 30
123
Unequal leg lengths are associated with what?
scoliosis
124
what is Normal range of motion of the shoulder: adduction/abduction?
abduction is 180
adduction is 50
(same with flexion/extension)
125
Firm, nontender, subcutaneous nodules may be palpated in what?
rheumatoid arthritis or rheumatic fever
126
what is the anatomic snuffbox ?
he hollow area on the back of the wrist at the base of the fully extended thumb
127
Snuffbox tenderness may indicatewhat?
a scaph-oid fracture, which is often the result of falling on an outstretched hand
128
What is range of motion of the wrists flexion/hyperextension?
flexion- 90 degrees
| hyperextension-70
129
when doing radial and ulnar deviation which side move the farthest?
ulnar at 55 degrees
| radial is only 20 degrees
130
What test are used for carpal tunnel syndrome?
phalens test
| Tinel's sign
131
Inability to extend the ring and little fingers is seen in what?
Dupuytren’s contracture
132
What is the normal ROM of the hip?
```
• 45–50 degrees of abduction
• 20–30 degrees of adduction
• 40 degrees internal hip rotation
• 45 degrees external hip rotation
.• 15 degrees hip hyperextension.
```
133
what test do you do to determine swelling in the knee?
bulge test/ballottement test- large amounts of fluid
134
Pain or clicking is indicative of what?
torn meniscus of the knee
135
If the client com-plains of a “giving in” or “locking” of the knee what test would you preform?
McMurray’s test
136
Normal flexsion of the knee is what?
130 degrees
| hyperextension is 15
137
Tenderness of the calcaneus of the bottom of the foot may indicate what?
plantar fasciitis
138
what are risk diagnoses related to muscle skeletal system?
* Risk for Trauma related to repetitive movements of wrists or elbows with recreation or occupation
* Risk for Injury: Pathologic fractures related to osteoporosis
* Risk for Injury to joints, muscles, or bones related to environmental hazards
* Risk for Disuse Syndrome
* Risk for Urinary Tract Infection related to urine stasis secondary to immobility
139
what are actual diagnoses related to muscle skeletal system?
* Impaired Physical Mobility related to impaired joint movement, decreased muscle strength, or fractured bone
* Activity Intolerance related to muscle weakness or joint pain• Constipation related to decreased gastric motility and muscle tone secondary to immobility
* Ineffective Sexuality Pattern related to lower back pain
* Acute (or Chronic) Pain related to joint, muscle, or bone problems
* Impaired Skin Integrity related to prolonged pressure on the skin secondary to immobility
* Impaired Social Interaction related to depression or immo-bility
* Disturbed Body Image related to skeletal deformities
140
Tender, painful, swollen, stiff joints are seen in what?
acute rheumatoid arthritis.
141
Chronic swelling and thickening of the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints, limited range of motion, and finger deviation toward the ulnar side are seen in what?
chronic rheumatoid arthritis
142
What are nontender, round, enlarged, swollen, fluid-filled cyst (gan-glion) is commonly seen at the dorsum of the wrist?
Ganglion
143
what is Thenar Atrophy?
Atrophy of the thenar prominence due to pressure on the median nerve is seen in carpal tunnel syndrome.
144
when the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe is tender, painful, reddened, hot, and swollen it is what?
gouty arthritis
145
what is the inward turning of the knee known as?
genu valgum
146
When using the nudge test the client easily falls backward this indicates what?
spondylosis of Parkinson's disease
147
what are the two structural components of the neurologic system?
the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system.
148
What are the three layers of connective tissue that protect and nourish the CNS?
meninges
149
What fills the subarachnoid space?
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
150
What does this fluid filled space do?
cushions the brain and spinal cords, nourishes the CNS, and removes waste materials.
151
what are the four major divisions of the cranial cavity?
cerebrum, the diencephalon, the brain stem, and the cerebellum
152
what is the right and left side of the cerebrum joined by?
corpus callosum
153
what is the corpus callosum?
a bundle of nerve fibers responsible for communication between the hemispheres.
154
what are the lobes of the cerebrum?
rontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital
155
what are the lobes composed of?
gray matter
156
the Diencephalon consist of what?
the thalamus and hypothalamus
157
what does the thalamus do?
it is responsible for screening and directing the impulses to specific areas in the cerebral cortex.
158
what is the hypothalamus responsible for?
it is responsible for regulating many body functions including water balance, appetite, vital signs (tem-perature, blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate), sleep cycles, pain perception, and emotional status
159
what are the three parts of the brain stem?
midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata.
160
what does the midbrain do?
serves as a relay center for ear and eye reflexes, and relays impulses between the higher cerebral centers and the lower pons, medulla, cerebellum, and spinal cord.
161
what does the medulla oblongata do?
control and regulate respira-tory function, heart rate and force, and blood pressure.
162
what does the cerebellum do?
primary functions include coordination and smoothing of voluntary movements, main-tenance of equilibrium, and maintenance of muscle tone.
163
Where is the spinal cord located?
vertebral canal and extends from the medulla oblongata to the first lumbar vertebra. (Note that the spinal cord is not as long as the vertebral canal
164
what is the spinal cord responsible for?
conducts sensory impulses up ascending tracts to the brain, conducts motor impulses down descending tracts to neurons that stimulate glands and muscles throughout the body, and is responsible for simple reflex activity
165
what is the frontal lobe of the brain responsible for?
Directs voluntary, skeletal actions (left side of lobe controls right side of body and right side of lobe controls left side of body). Also influences communication (talking and writ-ing), emotions, intellect, reasoning ability, judgment, and behavior. Contains Broca’s area, which is responsible for speech.
166
what is the parietal lobe of the brain responsible for?
Interprets tactile sensations, including touch, pain, temperature, shapes, and two-point discrimination.
167
what is the occipital lobe of the brain responsible for?
Influences the ability to read with understand-ing and is the primary visual receptor center.
168
What lobe of the brain Receives and interprets Wernicke’s impulses from the ear. Contains area, which is responsible for interpreting auditory stimuli?
Temporal
169
peripheral nervous system consists of how many pair?
12 pair
170
how many cranial nerves are there?
31 pair
171
what are the two types of nerves?
somatic and autonomic
172
what nerve Carries smell impulses from nasal mucous membrane to brain?
I olfactory
173
What nerve Carries visual impulses from eye to brain?
II optic
174
what nerveContracts eye muscles to control eye movements (interior lateral, medial, and superior), constricts pupils, and elevates eyelids?
III oculomotor
175
what nerve contracts one eye muscle to control inferomedial eye movement?
IV trochlear
176
what nerveCarries sensory impulses of pain, touch, and temperature from the face to the brain. Influences clenching and lateral jaw movements (biting, chewing).
V trigeminal
177
what nerve controls lateral eye movement?
VI abducens
178
what nerve Contains sensory fibers for taste on anterior two-thirds of tongue, and stimulates secretions from salivary glands (submaxillary and sublingual) and tears from lacrimal glands and Supplies the facial muscles and affects facial expressions (smiling, frowning, closing eyes)?
VII facial
179
what nerve contains sensory fibers for hearing and balance.
VIII vestibulocochlear
180
what nerve Contains sensory fibers for taste on posterior third of tongue and sensory fibers of the pharynx that result in the gag reflex when stimulated/Provides secretory fibers to the parotid salivary glands; promotes swallowing movements?
IX glossopharyngeal
181
what nerve carries sensations from the throat, larynx, heart, lungs, bronchi, gastrointestinal tract, and abdominal viscera. Promotes swallowing, talking, and production of digestive juices?
X vagus
182
what nerve Innervates neck muscles (sternocleidomastoid and trapezius) that promote move-ment of the shoulders and head rotation. Also promotes some movement of the larynx.
XI spinal accessory
183
what nerve innervates tongue muscles that promote the movement of food and talking.
XII hypoglossal
184
what nerve system is know as fight-or-flight” system?
sympathetic nervous system
185
what nerve system mediates conscious, or voluntary, activities?
somatic nervous system
186
what nerve system medi-ates unconscious, or involuntary, activities?
autonomic nervous system
187
what are the two types of nerve fiber in the peripheral nervous system?
somatic and autonomic.
188
Morning headaches that subside after arising may be an early sign of what?
increased intracranial pressure such as with a brain tumor
189
Dizziness or lightheadedness may be related to what?
carotid artery disease, cerebellar abscess, Ménière’s disease, or inner ear infection
190
decrease in the ability to taste may be related to what?
dysfunction of cranial nerves VII facial or IX glossopharyngeal
191
Ringing in the ears and decreased ability to hear may occur with what?
dysfunction of cranial nerve VIII acoustic
192
Injury to the cerebral cortex can impair what?
he ability to speak or under-stand verbal language
193
what is Fasciculations?
continuous, rapid twitching of resting muscles may be seen in lower motor neuron disease
194
what are Tremors?
involuntary contraction of opposing groups of muscles are typical in degenerative neurologic disorders, such as Parkinson’s disease
195
what are tics?
involuntary repetitive twitching movements may be seen in Tourette’s syndrome, habit psychogenic tics, or tardive dyskinesias
196
what are myoclonus?
sudden jerks of arms or legs may occur normally when falling asleep as a single jerk. However, severe jerking is often seen with grand mal seizures.
197
what are chorea?
sudden rapid, jerky voluntary and involuntary movements of limbs, trunk or face, is seen in Huntington’s disease and Sydenham’s chorea
198
what is athetosis?
twisting, writhing, slow continuous movements, is seen in cerebral palsy
199
what is a Cardiovascular accident?
known as stroke and some-times as brain attack, happens when blood flow to a portion of the brain is interrupted or stops. If the blood flow is blocked for more than a few seconds, brain cells begin to die and per-manent damage may result.
200
what are risk for cardiovascular accident?
```
High blood pressure
High cholesterol
Cigarette smoking
Diabetes
Poor diet and physical inactivity
Overweight and obesity
Untreated atrial fibrillation
Postmenopausal hormone therapy
Oral contraceptive use, especially in women over 35 who smoke
Drug and alcohol abuse
Sleep disordered breathing
```
201
what are the grades for reflexes?
4+ Hyperactive, very brisk, rhythmic oscillations (clonus); abnor-mal and indicative of disorder
3+ More brisk or active than normal, but not indicative of a disorder
2+ Normal, usual response
1+ Decreased, less active than normal
0 no response
202
Ptosis (drooping of the eyelid) is seen with weak eye muscles such as in what?
myasthenia gravis
203
what are some abnormal eye movements?
Nystagnus
limited eye movement
paralytic strabismus
204
cerebellar ataxia is what kind of gait?
wide based, staggering, unsteady gait
see with cerebellar or drug/ alcohol intoxication
205
Parkinsonian gait is what kind of gait?
shuffling gait, turns accomplishedin very stiff manner
206
scissors Gait is what kind of gait?
stiff, short gait; thighs overlap each other with each step
207
Spastic hemiparesis is what kind of gait?
flexed arm held close to the body while client drags toe of leg or circles it stiffly outward and forward
208
Footdrop gait is what?
client lifts foot and knee high with each step and then slaps foot down hard on the ground
