Mod 4- GI/GU, breast, Male/Female CH 16-21

Question 1

The ___ is located between the esophagus and the stomach and is important in keeping the stomach contents from entering the esophagus and causing gastric reflex

a. Pyloric sphincter
b. Xiphoid process
c. LES
d. Ileocecal valve

Answer 1

c. LES (Lower esophageal sphincter)

low LES pressure = GERD

Gastric Esophageal Reflux Disease- most common epigastric (mid sternal location) discomfort. Associated with food, medications, pregnancy

key findings

• burning sensation in the chest after eating
• sx worse at night and when laying down
• chest pain
• bloating
• worse with certain foods (caffeine, chocolate, alcohol, fatty foods )

r/t chest pain symptom **must r/o cardiac etiology*

mild symptoms tx antacids
moderate to severe may need short course PPI therapy and/or H2 receptor agonist

low LES pressure = GERD

50% of infants will have GERD around 4 months related to change in position and pressure of stomach from horizontal to more vertical. There is an increase in pressure on the LES

by 12 mos only 5-10% of infants will still have GERD

Question 2

Which of the following GI structures absorbs Vitamin B12 and bile salts.

a. Villi
b. jejunum
c. large intestine
d. Ileum

Answer 2

d. Ileum

Ileum/ terminal ileum marks end of the small intestine

Question 3

Which of the following GI structures controls flow of chyme into the large intestine.

a. duodenum
b. Villa
c. pancreas
d. ileocecal valve

Answer 3

d. ileocecal valve

muscle that prevents back flow of chyme from cecum back into the ileum i

Question 4

Which of the following GI structures filters blood, detoxifies chemicals, and metabolizes drugs

a. spleen
b. Liver
c. pancreas
d. gallbladder

Answer 4

b. Liver

all blood that leaves stomach and intestines pass through and get processed by liver

liver have 500 vital functions
other functions -produces bile- which is important for the
emulsification of fats
bile stored in gallbladder
- convert ammonia to urea
- regulates blood clotting
- metabolizes nutrients to produce energy
normal liver is typically 4-5 inches 2-6 is still considered normal

Question 5

which of the following GI structures is an immune system organ that fights infection, filters blood, removes RBCs and platelets, stores lymphocytes and return RBC breakdown products to the bone marrow.

a. Liver
b. pancreas
c. spleen
d. stomach

Answer 5

c. spleen

located left hypochondric region/ left mid axillary line or left upper stomach
~ 4 inches long
typically not palpable on exam

releases stored blood in the event os significant blood loss

can rupture related to trauma= emergency can cause life threatening bleeding

sx sudden onset of confusion dizzy and history of trauma

Question 6

Which of the following structures produces digestive enzymes and insulin.

a. liver
b. pancreas
c. spleen
d. colon

Answer 6

b. pancreas

located left upper just below stomach

Question 7

The short length of the urethra in females makes it easier

a. to empty the bladder during micturition
b. to become contaminated
c. for the detruser muscle to contract with urination
d. to palate the bladder

Answer 7

b. to become contaminated

females more at risk for UTIs

Question 8

Which of the following statement (s) made by the clinician would be appropriate when the mother of a 4-month old infant asks about information pertaining to her child’s recent dx of GERD?

a. “The majority of infants dx with GERD will continue to have sx and require treatment for their entire life”
b. “the way the stomach is positioned in the body changes from horizontal to a more vertical position as your child grows, therefore a significant reduction of reflux of gastric contents occurs over time. By 12 months, only 5% to 10% of infants have GERD”
c. “ infants tend to swallow more air than adults, which contributes to GERD. Once they have learned to coordinate eating and swallowing, they will no longer have sx of GERD”
d. “ the decrease in abd muscle tone and the protuberant abdomen can cause GERD. As you child grows, the abd will become less protuberant and the GERD sx will disappear”

Answer 8

b. “the way the stomach is positioned in the body changes from horizontal to a more vertical position as your child grows, therefore a significant reduction of reflux of gastric contents occurs over time. By 12 months, only 5% to 10% of infants have GERD

Question 9

Which of the following contributes to UTI and incontinence in the older adults? select all that apply

a. increased effectiveness of the ADH
b. decreased perfusion of the glomeruli
c. increased glomeruli filtration area
d. weakened or damaged urethral sphincter
e. Urinary retention
f. degenerations of the glomeruli

Answer 9

b,d,e,f

In older age: -there is a decrease in ADH effectiveness
-glomeruli surface area decreases
-decreased profusion to the kidney
-decrease in size of Kidney
-weakened sphincter tone
-increased in urinary retention and increase
urinary frequency leads to an increased risk
of UTIs

Question 10

Alcoholism and drug abuse liver disease occurs more frequently in which population?

a. Native Americans and African Americans
b. Mexican Americans
c. North African and Middle East
d. Central and Southern Latin America

Answer 10

a. Native Americans and African Americans

Native americans and AA have incidence of alcoholism and drug abuse liver disease

Question 11

Asking the patient to take a deep breath and hold it during inspection of the abdomen helps to

a. relax the abdominal muscles
b. contract the abdominal muscles
c. lower the diaphragm and move the abdominal organs downward
d. more easily assess bulges and masses
e. both c and d

Answer 11

e. both c and d

Question 12

Research suggests the probability of _____ in patients with jaundice increases with a palpable spleen, abdominal ascites, spider angiomas, palmar erythema, and dilated abdominal veins.

a. Hepatocellular disease
b. Metastatic cancer
d. Gallbladder disease
d. Pancreatitis

Answer 12

a. Hepatocellular disease

Question 13

Gray Turner’s sign and Cullens’s sign are common findings that strongly equate to acute pancreatitis or ectopic pregnancy.

a. true
b. false

Answer 13

b. false

Gray Turners sign is frank bruising
Cullen’s sign is umbilical bruising

could be a sign of internal hemorrhage

Question 14

The clincian is teaching the student how to assess the spleen. Which of the following statements made by the student indicates a need for further teaching and clarification?

a. “the spleen is easy to palpate and percuss”
b. i”n the infant, the spleen is not percussed”
c. “If the spleen is palpable, the likelihood of splenomegaly increases eight times”
d. “upon percussion, splenic dullness can be found from the 6th to 10th rib just posterior to the left mid-axillary line”

Answer 14

a. “the spleen is easy to palpate and percuss”

the spleen must be enlarged 3 times before it can be palpable and is difficult to percuss

technique: Place left hand across and behind the patient’s left side at CVA and lift up spleen
Place R hand on the patient’s abdomen below left costal margin press fingers up

Question 15

Which of the following lab results may be indicative of IBD.

a. High WBC
b. Low levels of NA, K, CL
c. low HGB and Hematocrit
d. elevated ESR and CRP

Answer 15

a, b, d

IBD is associated with mild-severe intermittent abdominal pain with a change in bowel habits. chronic diarrhea can cause electrolyte changes

Question 16

For which of the following abdominal concerns would US be most useful?

a. Acute cholecysitis
b. appendicitis
c. Hepatomegaly
d. splenomegaly
e. a, b, and d

Answer 16

e. a, b, and d

appy US should be the first imaging obtained
US can confirm splenomegaly

CT and MRI are more reliable method to determine overall liver size and shape

Question 17

The patient asks how the different types of incontinence differ. Which of the following statements made by the clinician is correct?

a. stress incontinence occurs when there is an obstruction in the urinary tract that makes it difficult for urine to flow our out of the bladder
b. urge incontinence can be caused by a physical injury or chronic disease such as dm
c. when the patient has a physical or mental disability that prevents the patient from reaching the bathroom, it is referred to as overflow incontinence

Answer 17

b. urge incontinence can be caused by a physical injury or chronic disease such as dm

stress incontinence is caused by a weakened or damaged urethral sphincter- common in pregnancy

overflow incontinence can be caused by an obstruction in the urinary track that makes it difficult for the urine to flow out of the bladder

functional incontinence occur when the patient has a physical or mental disability that prevents the patient from reaching the bathroom

Question 18

Which disorders or organs would the clinician suspect is affected in the RUQ?

Answer 18

duodenum, gallbladder, liver and pancreas

hepatits, cholethiasis, pancreatitis, cholecytis

Question 19

Which disorders or organs would the clinician suspect is affected in the RLQ?

Answer 19

Appendix, ascending colon

renal colic and pyelnephritis

Question 20

Which disorders or organs would the clinician suspect is affected in the LUQ?

Answer 20

speen and stomach

Question 21

Which disorders or organs would the clinician suspect is affected in the LLQ?

Answer 21

descending quadrant

Question 22

Which disorder or organ would the clinician suspect is affected in the periumbilical/epigastric?

Answer 22

AAA, celiac disease, duodenal ulcer, esophagitis, GERD, IBS, gastritis, obstruction, peritonitis

early appy

Question 23

It is generally recommended that beyond mammogram screening, clinicians routinely endorse which strategies to support early detection of breast malignancy in asymptomatic women at average risk for breast cancer

a. Education to support breast awareness
b. Monthly self-breast exam
c. annually clinical breast examination
d. genetic testing

Answer 23

a. Education to support breast awareness

Routine SBE and CBE in asymptomatic women at average risk for breast cancer are not currently recommended.

CBE is recommended for physical evaluation of the breast in high-risk and symptomatic women

Routine screen for genetic mutations associated with breast cancer is not recommended unless a detailed history reveals the potential for an inherited cancer syndrome

Question 24

The USPSTF screening recommendations for women at average risk of breast cancer include

a. annual mammography for women aged 40-74 years
b. annual mammography for women aged 50 and over
c. biennial mammography for women aged 40-74 years
d. biennial mammography for women aged 50-74 years

Answer 24

d. biennial mammography for women aged 50-74 years

Question 25

___ is recommended for adjunctive screening by the USPSTF for asymptomatic women at average risk for breast cancer who have dense breasts and a normal mammogram.

a. No additional imaging
b. US
c. MRI
d. Digital breast tomosynthesis

Answer 25

a. No additional imaging

Question 26

Which race or ethnicity has an increased risk for breast cancer dx at a younger age with more advanced disease?

a. Caucasian
b. Asian
c. AA
d. Hispanic

Answer 26

c. AA

white women have highest breast cancer risk overall

Question 27

Which statement about breast cancer is true

a. Men cannot get breast cancer
b. Breast cancer usually presents as a painful mass.
c. Breast cancer skin changes may mimic benign condition such as dermatitis or eczema.
d. Diet and exercise do not significantly influence breast cancer risk

Answer 27

c. Breast cancer skin changes may mimic benign condition such as dermatitis or eczema. aka Paget’s disease

Obesity and alcohol intake can increase the risk of developing breast cancer

Question 28

A contributor to the development of mastitis in a women is

a. breastfeeding
b. chest radiation
c. Malignancy
d. breast cysts

Answer 28

a. breastfeeding

Mastitis is a breast infection that occurs in 10% fo lactating females

sx unilateral engorgement that is prolonged, warm tender firm area on breast, abrupt onset, fever chills and malaise

Question 29

Which physical finding can help distinguish inflammatory breast cancer from mastitis?

a. Presence of erythema
b. unilateral presentation
c. Nipple discharge
d. Peau d ‘orange skin changes

Answer 29

d. Peau d ‘orange skin changes

peau d ‘orange is a physical change of the skin associated with the inflammatory breast cancer.

both mastitis and inflammatory breast cancer can present with unilateral erythematous breast

neither is typically associated with nipple discharge

Question 30

Characteristics of a benign breast mass typically include all of the following except:

a. well-defined borders with a distinct shape and size
b. dimpling, edema, or nipple retraction
c. smooth, soft, rubbery consistency
d. scattered, symmetrical tissue thickening in the upper breast quadrants

Answer 30

b. dimpling, edema, or nipple retraction

dimpling, edema, or nipple retraction are all characteristic’s of malignant breast masses.

Question 31

Which of the following patients warrants a more extensive breast evaluation.

a. single well-defined tender mass bilateral
b. Nipple changes in a non pregnant women
c. Nipple changes in a pregnant women,
d. tender round mobile mass

Answer 31

b. Nipple changes in a non pregnant women

Question 32

According to the American College of Radiology, which dx test is recommended to evaluate a palpable breast mass in a 28-year-old woman?

a. Mammogram
b. MRI
c. Digital breast exam
d. US

Answer 32

d. US

US is the recommended for any mass noted to determine if it is is fluid or solid filled in all patients under 30 yrs

Mammogram is gold standard for breast cancer screening done biennial 40-74 yrs old

Question 33

Clinicians ought to suspect the presence of BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 genetic mutations in families with a history of (select all that apply).

a. breast and/or ovarian cancers (often dx at a younger age)
b. ovarian, fallopian, or endometrial cancers
c. pancreatic or prostate cancer
d. Ashkenazi Jewish heritage
e. all the above

Answer 33

e. all the above

Question 34

General identity is determined by your

a. childhood experience
b. family and community
c. internal sense of self
d. reproductive organs

Answer 34

c. internal sense of self

gender identity refers to each individual person’s internal sense of self and the person’s own understanding of his or her gender within a cultural context

Question 35

Which is true about LGBTQ adolescents?

a. Are at increased risk for suicide attempts
b. are at lower risk for suicidal ideation
c. Have lower rates of hopelessness than their peers
d. have lower rates of being bullied by peers

Answer 35

a. Are at increased risk for suicide attempts

Question 36

The term applied to a relationship between two people who identify as the same gender is

a. bisexual
b. transgender
c. homosexual
d. heterosexual

Answer 36

c. homosexual

Question 37

when should a clinician assess for gender identity?

a. never
b. only at the first visit
c. once a year
d. at every visit

Answer 37

d. at every visit

being able to competently and confidently assess each person’s sexual orientation and gender identity at ever clinician visit is crucial to reducing Barriers to care and improving the health this marginalized population

Question 38

Cervical cancer screening should be considered for

a. anyone with a cervix
b. only cisgender women
c. only transgender women
d. lesbians and bisexual women

Answer 38

a. anyone with a cervix

it is important to explain the process and rationale for cervical cancer screening in the transmasculine individuals and in women who have sex with women, regardless of vaginal penetration

Question 39

Nonbinary is a term used to describe someone who

a. is transitioning from female to male
b. is transitioning from male to female
c. identifies with being both male and female or neither
d. is interested in both male and female romantic partners

Answer 39

c. identifies with being both male and female or neither

Question 40

Intimate partner violence

a. only exists in heterosexual relationships
b. can be emotional, verbal, physical, sexual, or economic
c. does not affect people who are transgender
d. should not be assessed by clinicians

Answer 40

b. can be emotional, verbal, physical, sexual, or economic

IPV is violence incurred by a current or former intimate partner. IPV can take many shapes, including physical, verbal, emotional, economic, and sexual abuse

Question 41

When assessing fertility desires for patients, the clinicians should

a. assume that all cisgender women need birth control if unsure about being pregnant
b. discuss fertility wishes with each patient and assess need for pregnancy prevention
c. recognize that transgender med do not desire pregnancy
d. recognize that transgender women are infertile

Answer 41

b. discuss fertility wishes with each patient and assess need for pregnancy prevention

Question 42

Lab values should be evaluated

a. according to normal values for the person’s birth sex
b. avoiding the use of gender-based normal values
c. with regard to hormones being taken, birth sex, and electronic medical record gender designation
d. using whichever gender lab values are associated with the patients legal guardian

Answer 42

c. with regard to hormones being taken, birth sex, and electronic medical record gender designation

Question 43

PrEP is indicated for

a. any man who has sex with men
b. any one at risk for HIV
c. anyone who has sex with men and women
d. someone who is HIV positive

Answer 43

b. any one at risk for HIV

Question 44

The scrotum is more pendulous in

a. childhood
b. early adolescence
c. adulthood
d. older age

Answer 44

d. older age

sexual function wanes during older adulthood and erectile dysfunction becomes increasingly common. Pubic hair thins and the scrotum becomes more pendulous

Question 45

What are the primary functions of the testes?

a. endogenous estrogen and progestin production
b. exogenous and endogenous androgen production
c. production of sperm and testosterone
d. production and storage of semen

Answer 45

c. production of sperm and testosterone

Question 46

which assessments are a priority for suspected puberty in males

a. change in pubic hair
b. lengthening of the penis
c. linear growth in height
d. testicular enlargement

Answer 46

d. testicular enlargement

Question 47

Which assessments are a priority for suspected hydrocele

a. abdominal x-ray
b. observation and percussion to distinguish it fluid or mass
c. palpating and pressure to reduce testes into scrotal sac
d. transillumination and ultrasound

Answer 47

d. transillumination and ultrasound

helpful for diagnosis

Question 48

Which condition is an emergency?

a. hypospadias
b. paraphimosis
c. reducible umbilical hernia
d. reducible inguinal hernia

Answer 48

b. paraphimosis

paraphimosis is a condition that results from forcefully retracting tight foreskin back over the glans pf penis. the foreskin becomes entrapped behind the corona of the glans

key findings include painful swelling of the distal glans penis with a constricted back of tissue proximal to the glans proximal to the corona

its it s a medical emergency because it will eventually result in tissue ischemia and necrosis

Question 49

A 3 month old male infant is noted to have a undescended left testicle during his well child check. The parents are very concerned. which is true regarding cryptorchidism?

a. as long as one testis is palpable, this is not a concern until age 5 years
b. the child needs immediate referral for surgery for this emergent condition
c. there is a high probability that the testicle will spontaneously descend before 1 year of age
d. this is associated with disorder of sexual differentiation

Answer 49

c. there is a high probability that the testicle will spontaneously descend before 1 year of age

concern after 1 year. surgical correction is needed before puberty to preserve fertility and decrease the risk of testicular cancer

Question 50

Symptoms associated with BPH include

a. irregular painful nodules of prostate
b. nocturia
c. scrotal pain
d. urinary tract infections

Answer 50

b. nocturia

key signs and sx include uncomfortable urinary sx: urinary frequency, impaired flow, weak urine stream nocturia and/or dribbling post urination

Question 51

When indicated, the initial imaging study of choice when evaluating testicular concerns is

a. PSA testing
b. Ultrasound
c. DRE
d. prostate biopsy

Answer 51

b. Ultrasound

us is the initial imaging study of choice for evaluating concerning testicular complaints.

DRE prostate specific antigen and prostate biopsy are non imaging methods of evaluation of prostate concerns

Question 52

Which of the following statements about pediatric considerations of the male genitourinary examination is false.

a. the clinician may need to apply moderate force to retract the foreskin to view the urethral meatus of a young child
b. it is recommended for a caregiver or another healthcare provider to chaperone the adolescent during a genitourinary examination
c. children and adolescents should be assessed for sexual maturity by determining the Tanner stage
d. routine genitourinary examinations should be performed at all infant and child wellness examination

Answer 52

a. the clinician may need to apply moderate force to retract the foreskin to view the urethral meatus of a young child

The foreskin of uncircumcised newborns and young infants may be tightly adhered to the glans penis and should never be forcefully retracted. forceful retraction will be traumatic and may result in paraphimosis

Question 53

Urine nucleic acids amplification testing can be used to detect which of the following sexually transmitted infection

a. HIV
d. Hep B and C virus
c. Syphilis
d. Gonorrhea and chlamydia

Answer 53

d. Gonorrhea and chlamydia

Question 54

The opening of the cervix is referred to as the

a. anterior fornix
b. cervical isthmus
c. cervical os
d. posterior fourchette

Answer 54

c. cervical os

Question 55

The presence of cervical motion tenderness my indicate

a. ovulation
b. pelvic inflammatory disease
c. urinary pregnancy
d. vulvovaginitis

Answer 55

b. pelvic inflammatory disease

Cervical motion tenderness if found in several pathological conditions includes, pelvic inflammatory disease, appendicitis and ectopic pregnancy

Question 56

Which risk factor is associated with cervical cancer

a. endometriosis
b. HPV infection
c. irregular menstrual cycles
d. vaginal infection

Answer 56

b. HPV infection

cervical cancer is the third most common gyno cancer.
the majority of cervical cancers are squamous cell carcinomas. at the location transformation zone

Most cervical cancers are result of HPV infection

Question 57

For a women with a uterus, menopause is defined as

a. cessation of menstrual bleeding for 12 consecutive months
b. cessation of menstrual bleeding for 6 consecutive months
c. fluctuating estrogen and androgen levels in response to low FSH levels
d. undetectable levels of FSH, LH, estrogen, and androgen

Answer 57

a. cessation of menstrual bleeding for 12 consecutive months

Question 58

symptoms associated with perimenopause, or the transition to menopause, includes

a. fatigue
b. insomnia
c. menstrual
d. vasomotor instability
e. all of the above

Answer 58

e. all of the above

Question 59

When preparing for a pelvic exam, all of these steps are important except

a. allowing for adequate covering for the patient to preserve modesty and warmth
d. answering any questions about the examination before beginning the examination
c. instructing the patient about what to expect, including rationale for the examination
d. instructing the patient that a full bladder will allow for improved assessment

Answer 59

d. instructing the patient that a full bladder will allow for improved assessment

Question 60

Which best describes the signs and sx of vaginal candidiasis

a. external dysuria, pruritus, and thick, clumpy white vaginal discharge
b. foul fishy odor, frothy yellow-green vaginal discharge
c. Malodorous and thin milky white vaginal discharge
d. None, the condition is asymptomatic in women

Answer 60

a. external dysuria, pruritus, and thick, clumpy white vaginal discharge

Question 61

Which statement best describes the ovarian and endometrial cycles on day 10-28 day cycle?

a. follicular phase of ovarian cycle: proliferative phase of endometrial cycle
b. follicular phase of ovarian cycle: secretory phase of endometrial cycle
c. luteal phase of ovarian cycle; secretory phase of endometrial cycle
d. luteal phase of ovarian cycle: proliferative phase of endometrial cycle

Answer 61

a. follicular phase of ovarian cycle: proliferative phase of endometrial cycle

Question 62

Assessment consistent with bacterial vaginosis includes

a. frothy, gray green cervical discharge with a PH below 4.0
b. thick, white discharge adherent to inflamed vaginal mucosa
c. thin, malodorous vaginal discharge with PH above 4.5
d. vaginal itching, dysuria, and severe abdominal pain

Answer 62

c. thin, malodorous vaginal discharge with PH above 4.5

also white or gray vaginal discharge and fishy odor particularly after sex

Question 63

Which women is most likely to currently have ovarian cancer

a. forty year old whose grandmother had beast caner
b. fifty year old with a history of endometriosis and pelvic pain
c. sixty year old with fatigue and persistent abdominal bloating
d. seventy year old who is a G5P5 and all babies were full term

Answer 63

c. sixty year old with fatigue and persistent abdominal bloating

ovarian cancer is typically dx in women aged 55-64 years. sx are often nonspecific. they include abdominal pain bloating increased abdominal size urinary dx constipation early satiety or difficulty eating

Question 64

Which hormone is responsible for sustaining a pregnancy through uterine quiescence

a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. hCG
d. hPL

Answer 64

b. progesterone

“quiets” the uterus.

Question 65

What is the most accurate way of dating a pregnancy with an unsure LMP

a. second trimester US
b. Nagele’s rule
c. a pregnancy app
d. First trimester US

Answer 65

d. First trimester US

an us performed before 14 week and 0 days gestation is precise to 5-7 days to term

Nageles rule is LMP +7 days - 3 months

Question 66

Which of the following would not be a reason for performing early screening for gestational DM in a woman who has a BMI of 36

a. Her last baby weighed 4,100 g at birth
b. Her father has type 2 DM
c. She has a history of exercise-induced asthma
d. she had GDM in her first pregnancy

Answer 66

c. She has a history of exercise-induced asthma

Risk factors for GDM a BMI >25 and one or more of the following: hx, HGB A1C > 5.7%, 1st degree relative with DM, hx CAD, low HDL, HTN

Question 67

Which history statement is an indication for increased antepartum fetal surveillance?

a. The mother will be 33 years old on her EDD
b. The fetus has intrauterine growth restriction
c. the fetus has beed diagnosed with an extra digit on the right hand
d. the other has a history of PCOS

Answer 67

b. The fetus has intrauterine growth restriction

intrauterine growth restriction carries an increased risk for stillbirth; therefore increased fetal surveillance would be indication in the third trimester

Question 68

Which BP measurement would meet the criteria for a diagnosis of gestational hypertension

a. 132/89 and 141/86, 30 minutes apart, 28 weeks gestation
b. 150/80 and 146/87, 4 hours apart, 12 weeks gestation
c. 141/93 and 148/95, 4 hours apart, 22 weeks gestation
d. 125/74 and 118/72, 4 weeks apart, 22 and 26 weeks gestation

Answer 68

c. 141/93 and 148/95, 4 hours apart, 22 weeks gestation

Gestational hypertension is diagnosed after 20 weeks and the elevated readings has to be 4 hours apart

sbp >140 and dsp >90

Question 69

which symptom would be most concerning for the pregnant women who is reporting bleeding in her first trimester

a. she reports light sotting for 3 days that has now resolved
b. she reports recent intercourse with her partner
c. she reports mild abdominal cramping
d. she reports vaginally passing tissue and clots

Answer 69

d. she reports vaginally passing tissue and clots

Question 70

A patient is seen for her initial OB visit without complaints. Her uterine culture comes back showing E. Coli 100,000. what is your assessment and immediate plan

a. acute cystitis, no antibiotics needed
b. acute cystitis, antibiotic treatment course initiated
c. asymptomatic bacteriuria, no antibiotics needed
d. asymptomatic bacteriuria, antibiotic treatment course initiated

Answer 70

d. asymptomatic bacteriuria, antibiotic treatment course initiated

Question 71

The measurement in centimeters from the top of the symphysis pubis to the fundus is known as

a. cervical pelvimetry
b. cervical dilation
b. fundal height
d. total weight gain

Answer 71

b. fundal height

Question 72

Accurate pregnancy dating may reduce all of the following except

a. frequency of labor induction for postterm pregnancy
b. use of tocolysis for suspected preterm labor
c. planned cesarean delivery before 39 weeks
d. use of prenatal vitamins

Answer 72

d. use of prenatal vitamins