Mod 3 ch 35-51 Flashcards

1
Q

a patient is seen in the clinic for patches of hair loss. The provider notes several well-dermarcated patches on the scalp eyebrows without areas of inflammation and several hairs within the patch with thinner shafts near the scalp. Based on findings which type of alopecia is most likely?

a. alopecia areata
b. anagen effluvium
c. Cicatricial alopecia
d. telogen effluvium

A

a. alopecia areata (description is consistent with type of alopecia)

Types of hair loss:

  1. Telogen caused by hairs entering Telogen phase of hair cylce (mature shedding, last phase) too soon. results in sudden hair loss. multiple factors /conditions may cause this: Anemia, endocrine disorders, malnutrition, childbirth may persist for several months.
    * presents as diffuse hair loss, non inflam

Anagen efluivium- some kind of agent causing rapid diffuse hair loss like Chem/radiation will spontaneously resolve once agent is stopped.
presents as diffuse hair loss, non-inflam

Cicatrical is inflammatory hair loss, results in scarring and atrophy.

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2
Q

A patient is diagnosed with alopecia is noted to have scaling on the affected areas of the scalp. Which confirmatory test will the provider order?

a. Examination of scalp scraping with potassium hydroxide (KOH)
b. grasping and pulling on a few dozen hairs
c. serum iron studies and CBC
d. Veneral Disease Research lLboratory

A

a. Examination of scalp scraping with potassium hydroxide (KOH)

Scaling on scalp is consistent with Tinea Capititis (fungal) which case KOH will show presence of hyphea to confirm diagnosis

Hair pulling used to identity anagen or telogen hairs by appearance of what stage is hair cycle they are

Serum Iron and CBC studies are used do help identify
possible cause of hair loss (tologen efluvium)

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3
Q

A female is dianosed with androgenetic alopecia. Which medication will the primary health care provider prescribe?

a. Anthralin
b. Cyclosporin
c. Finasteride
d. Minoxidil (Rogain)

A

d. Minoxidil (Rogain)

Androgenetic alopecia is hereditary hair loss r/t to the scalp sensitive to androgens

Finesteride an Minoxidil are approved for androgenetic alopecia however finesteride is not approved for pregnancy.

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4
Q

A primary care provider is performing a Tzanck test to evaluate possible herpes simplex lesions. To attain accurate results, the provider will perform what intervention?

a. Blanch the lesions while examining them with a magnifying glass
b. Gently scape the lesions with a scalpel onto a slide
c. Perform a gram stain of exudate from the lesions
d. Remove the top of the vesicles and obtain fluid from the lesions

A

d. Remove the top of the vesicles and obtain fluid from the lesions

Blanching of blue to red lesions under a microscope helps to evaluate whether blood is in the capillaries of the lesions.
scaping lesions onto a slide is done to evaluate the presence of hyphae and spores common with candidiasis or fungal infections
gram staining is performed to distinguish gram[positive from gram-negative organism in suspected bacterial infections

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5
Q

When examinign a patient’s skin, a practitioner uses dermoscopy for what purpose. Select all that apply

a. Accentuating changes in color of pathologic lesions
b. assessing changes in pigmentation throughout various lesions
c. Determining whether lesions borders are regular or irregular
d. differentiating fluid masses from cystic masses in the epidermis
e. Visualizing skin fissures, hair follicles and pores in lesions

A

b. assessing changes in pigmentation throughout various lesions
c. Determining whether lesions borders are regular or irregular
e. Visualizing skin fissures, hair follicles and pores in lesions

Woods light (black light) is used to fluoresce lesions to accentuate changes in color to look for skin diseases

Direct light is used for differentiating fluid mases from cystic masses

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6
Q

A patient has actinic keratosis and the provider elects ot use cryosurgery to remove the lesions. How will the provider administer this procedure?

a. applying on e of two freeze thaw cycles to each lesion
b. applying two or more freeze thaw cycles to each lesions
c. applying until the freeze spreads laterally 1mm from lesion edges.
d. applying until the freeze spreads laterally 4mm from lesion edges.

A

a. applying on e of two freeze thaw cycles to each lesion

Actinic Keratosis skin condition caused by sun damage, causes rough, scaly, bumpy spots on skin

cyrosurgery is freeze therapy used to remove benign recognizable skin conditions

two or more freeze thaws are needed for thicker. seborrheic lesions.

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7
Q

A provider is preparing to administer electrocautery to a patient who has several seborrheic keratoses. The patient tells the provider that he has a pacemaker, Which action is correct?

a. administer the electrocautery per the usual protocol
b. apply electrocautery in short burst at low voltage
c. refer the patient to a dermatologist for removal
d. suggest another method for removal of the lesions

A

b. apply electrocautery in short burst at low voltage

Patient’s with pacemakers may receive this therapy because the patient is not involved the electrical loop. It is only delivered to the tissue.

This procedure is usually done over in non conductive tissue like bone, cartilage or nails

it causes protein denaturation and coagulation uses low voltage and heat transfer to the tissue

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8
Q

Which type of office surgical procedure warrants sterile technique?

a. curettage
b. punch biopsy
c. scissor excision
d. shave biopsy

A

b. punch biopsy

others you can do with alcohol and clean technique

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9
Q

When recommending an OTC topical medication to treat a dermatologic condition, which instruction to the patient is important to enhance absorption of the drug.

a. apply a thick layer of medication over the affected are
b. a solution spray preparation will be more effective on hairy areas
c. put cool compresses over the affected area after application
d. use lotion or cream instead of an ointment preparation

A

b. a solution spray preparation will be more effective on hairy areas

Hairy areas of difficult to penetrate, so in these areas a solution, foam, spray or gel may work better

**TCS work better with moisturizer and emollient

applying a thick layer does not increase skin penetration or effectiveness

warm or inflamed skin absorbs medication more readily

lotions or creams are not as readily absorbed as ointments

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10
Q

A provider is prescribing a topical dermatologic medication for a patient who has open lesions on a hairy area of the body. which vehicle type will the prover chose wen prescribing tis mediation

a. cream
b. gel
c. ointment
d. powder

A

b. gel

gels work well on hairy areas
creams and ointments do not
powders should not be used over open wounds the decrease friction

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11
Q

An adult patient has been diagnosed with atopic dermatitis (eczema) and seborrheic dermatitis lesions on the forehead and along the scalp line. Which is correct when prescribing a corticosteroid medication to teat this condition?

a. initiate treatment with 0.1% triamcinolone acetonide
b. monitor the patient closely for systemic adverse effects during use.
c. place on occlusive dressing over the medication after application
d. prescribe 0.05% fluocinonide to apply liberally

A

a. initiate treatment with 0.1% triamcinolone acetonide

this is appropriate because it is a class 4 and may be used on the face
systemic effects with TCS are rare and occlusive dressing increase absorption. Fluocinonide is a class 2 and should not be used on the face

classed 1-4 should not be used on the face

Seborrheic dermatitis dandruff, inflamed scaly patches or cradle cap caused by antifungal

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12
Q

During a total body skin examination for skin cancer, the provider notes a raised, shiny slightly pigmented lesion on the patient’s nose. What will the provider do?

a. consult with a dermatologist about possible melanoma
b. reassure the patient that this is a benign lesion
c. refer the patient for possible electrodessication and curettage
d. tell the patient this is likely a squamous cell carcinoma

A

c. refer the patient for possible electrodessication and curettage

This is characteristic of a BCC, which is treated with electrodessication (scrapping and burning off skin growths) the direct application to the skin lesion uses damp high voltage and causes superficial tissue damage and cell death

melanomas are usually asymmetrical lesions with irregular boarder, variable in color and >6mm (ABCDs)

SCC are roughened, scaling and bleeds easily and treated by total excision

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13
Q

What is the initial approach when obtaining a biopsy of a potential malignant melanoma

a. excisional biopsy
b. punch biopsy
c. shave biopsy
d. wide excision

A

a. excisional biopsy

excisional biopsy (whole lesion is removed)
if diagnosed with MM, a wide excision should follow which is removal of some of the surrounding tissue

punch and shave biopsy are for NMSC lesions

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14
Q

A patient has acne and the provider notes lesions on half of the face, some nodules and two scared areas. Which treatment will be prescribed?

a. Oral clindamycin for 6-8 weeks
b. oral isotretinoin
c. topical benzoyl peroxide and clindamycin
d. topical erythromycin

A

c. topical benzoyl peroxide and clindamycin

topical treatment is 1st line

Based on symptoms this patient has moderate acne
moderate acne- nodules and scars on 1/2 of face
severe- involves acne 3/4 face with nodules and scars

organism associated with acne is P. Anes

oral atb are reserved for severe acne
isotretinoin is used for severe nodulocystic acne that is not receptive to other treatment is a tertogenic.

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15
Q

A provider is considering an oral contraceptive medication to treat acne in an adolescents female. Which is an important consideration when prescribing this drug.

a. a progesterone-only contraceptives is most beneficial for treating acne
b. combined oral contraceptives are effective for non-inflammatory acne only
c. oral contraceptives are effective because of their androgen enhancing effects
d. Yas, Ortho Tri-Cyclen, and Estrostep, are approved for acne treatment.

A

d. Yas, Ortho Tri-Cyclen, and Estrostep, are approved for acne treatment. (COCs)

progesterone only BC may worsen acne
Combined oral contraceptives are effective in reducing inflammatory and non-inflammatory acne (Best option)
**they are effective because they supress androgens which produce sebum (androgens) ** BC are antiandrogens!

topical antibiotics are not recommended to monotherapy

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16
Q

A female patient is diagnosed with hidradenitis suppurative and has multiple areas of swelling, pain and erythema., along with several abscesses in the right femoral area. When counseling the patient about this disorder the practitioner will include which information?

a. antibiotic therapy is effective in cleaning up the lesions
b. it is often progressive with relapses and permanent scarring
c. the condition is precipitated by depilatories and deodorants
d. the lesions are infective, and the disease may be transmitted to others.

A

b. it is often progressive with relapses and permanent scarring

hidradenitis Suppurativa is a disease of the apocrine gland characterized by inflamed papules and abscess in axillae and inguinal areas from unknown cause common in early 20s. something causes apocrine glands not to drain properly and pressure builds up. bacteria can cause them to burst often progression and relapsing can occur

treatment antibiotics ( 6-8 weeks) is not the only treatment, may be drained or NSAIDS may be used

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17
Q
When counseling a patient with rosacea about management of this condition, the provider may recommend? select all that apply
a. applying a topical steroid
b. avoiding makeup
c. avoiding oil-based products
d. eliminating spicy foods
e exposing the skin to sun
f. using topical antibiotics
A

c. avoiding oil-based products
d. eliminating spicy foods
f. using topical antibiotics

Rosacea-facial flushing/erythema, with inflamed postules resembles acne they do not have comedones (black heads) may cause eyewatery or ocular problems

there are certain triggers for it.
treatment same as acne topical or oral atb topical steroids make it worse! may take months to work

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18
Q

Which medications may be used as part of the treatment for a patient with hidradenitis suppurativa? Select all that apply

a. chemo
b. erythromycin
c. infiximab
d. isotretinoin
e. prednisone

A

b. erythromycin
c. infiximab
d. isotretinoin
e. prednisone

and NSAIDS and Birth control.

this is the disease of the apocrine gland it is not malignant

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19
Q

A young adult has been bitten by a dog resulting in multiple puncture wounds near the thumb of one hand but can move all fingers and the bleeding has stopped. What understanding regarding dog bites should direct the care of this patient?

a. infection is likely outcome for a dog bite
b. dog bites generally result in serious injury.
c. neurovascular and destructive soft tissue injuries can occur from such a bite
d. oral antibiotics are needed to address the increased risk for the development of osteomyelitis

A

c. neurovascular and destructive soft tissue injuries can occur from such a bite

dog bites have the lowest incidence of infection risk.

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20
Q

A patient has sustained a human bite on the hand during a fist fight. Which is especially concerning with this type of bite injury?

a. possible exposure to rabies virus
b. Potential septic arthritis or osteoarthritis
c. sepsis from Capnocytophga canimorus
d. transmission of human immunodeficiency virus

A

b. Potential septic arthritis or osteoarthritis

Clenched fist injury (CFI)

humans do not transmit rabies

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21
Q
Which type of bite is generally closed by delayed primary closure? select all that apply
a. bites to the face
b. bites to the hand
c. deep puncture wounds
d. dog bites on an arm
e wounds 6 hours old or older
A

b. bites to the hand
c. deep puncture wounds
e wounds 6 hours old or older

Cat and human bites are high risk for infection must keep open

dog bites so do not generally require delated or secondary closure

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22
Q

When assessing with a skin biopsy of a patient suspected of having bullous pemphigoid (BP) lesions, what will the practitioner do?

a. avoid contact with the infected lesion
b. elicit a positive Nikolsky
c. Perform direct immunofluorescence microscopy
d. prevent spread of the lesions to other areas of the skin

A

c. Perform direct immunofluorescence microscopy

Direct immunofluorescence microscopy is the gold standard for diagnosis of BP. in order to determine the presence of IgG antibodies

BP is an autoimmune disorder characterize by large, super dermal blisters that occur on normal erythematous skin. Very pruritic. IgG antibodies attack the structure of the epi and dermis

more common in older adults

The lesions are not infected. The Nikolsky sign will be negative in patients with BP. The lesions do not spread by this manner

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23
Q

An older adult patient diagnosed with bullouw pemphigoid )BP). Which comorbid condition is of concern for this patient?

a. Osteoporosis
b. Pruritis
c. depression
d. weight gain

A

c. depression

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24
Q

A patient is newly diagnosed with bullous pemphigoid and has moderate to severe itching. the provider orders a topical corticosteroid and will discuss which potential complication with this patient?

a. BMT
b. Developing systemic lesions
c. secondary infection
d. spread of disease to others

A

c. secondary infection

goal of TCS is to decrease inflammation in BP control puritis and suppress the immune system.

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25
Q

a patient comes to the clinic after being splashed with boiling water while cooking. The patient has partial thickness burns on forearms, the neck, and the chin. What will the provider do?

a. clean and dress the burn wounds
b. order a cbc, glucose, and electrolytes
c. perform a chest x-ray
d. refer the patient to the ED

A

d. refer the patient to the ED

Patients with burns on the face, circumferential burns and any burn at risk for airway compromise (neck) should be referred to the ER right away! then the provider can perform labs and dress wounds

chest x-ray only indicated for inhalation wounds.

26
Q

A patient sustains chemical burns on both arms after a spill at work. What is the initial action by the health care providers in the ED?

a. begin aggressive irrigation of the site
b. contact poison control
c. remove the offending chemical and garments
d. request the Martial Safety Data information

A

c. remove the offending chemical and garments

aggressive irrigation is step 2

***Silvadene is good treatment for burn! but is a sulfa topical antibiotic

27
Q

A patient is taking a sulfa antibiotic and develops a rash that begins peeling. Which type of rash is suspected.

a. Erythema multiform
b. stevens-johnson
c. Urticaria
d. wheal and flare

A

b. stevens-johnson

SJS is blistering/peeling skin erosions that appear in first 8 weeks of drug initiation. Drugs that can cause this are sulfa, anticonvulsants, PCNs, NSAIDS
Preceding by fever, sore throat EYE IRRITATION if not treated can cause serious systemic life threatening problems

Erythema multiform characterized by target lesions that fo not peel and immune reaction caused by drugs or a virus (HSV) dusky center with red inflamed ring managed with TSC, oral antihistamines, mouth wash, will go away

28
Q

Which medication classification are associated with increasing the risk of developing acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis (AGEP) select all that apply

a. cephlasporins
b. CCB
c. Aminopenicilins
d. Tuberculostaic agents
d. NSAIDS

A

b. CCB
c. Aminopenicilins
d. NSAIDS

AGEP dozens of pin sized postules on edematous reddened skin typically on skin folds w/ facial edema

CCB (ditiazem), macrolides, antifungals can also cause this

29
Q
  1. Which is the primary symptom causing discomfort in patients with atopic dermatitis (AD)?
    a. Dryness
    b. Erythema
    c. Lichenification
    d. Pruritis
A

ANS: D
Itching is incessant, and patients usually develop other signs at the site of itching. None of the other options are associated with AD.

can treat with anti histamine (zrytec)

30
Q
  1. A patient diagnosed with atopic dermatitis asks what can be done to minimize the recurrence of symptoms. What will the provider recommend? a. Calcineurin inhibitors
    b. Lubricants and emollients
    c. Oral diphenhydramine
    d. Prophylactic topical steroids
A

ANS: B
Emollients (aquafor) and lubricants are used long-term to reduce flare-ups. Calcineurin inhibitors Non-steroidal can be helpful for managing chronic moderate to severe eczema. Oral diphenhydramine helps with
symptoms of itching but is not used to prevent symptoms. Corticosteroids should be used
sparingly to treat symptoms and stopped once the inflammation has subsided. BID for 2 weeks only

long term use can cause side effects

31
Q
  1. A patient who has atopic dermatitis has recurrent secondary bacterial skin infections. What will the provider recommend to help prevent these infections? a. Bleach baths twice weekly
    b. Frequent bathing with soap and water
    c. Low-dose oral antibiotics
    d. Topical antibiotic ointments
A

a. Bleach baths twice weekly

Bleach baths and intranasal mupirocin have been shown to reduce bacterial superinfections of the skin. Frequent bathing with soap and water may increase flare-ups and increase the risk for superinfections. Oral and topical antibiotic prophylaxes are not recommended.

Eczema patients are predisposed to skin infections most common bacteria are staff and strep and the most serious viral infection ( Eczema Herpaticum (HSV)-punched out erosions, hemorrhagic crusts and vesicles

32
Q
  1. A previously healthy patient has an area of inflammation on one leg which has well-demarcated borders and the presence of lymphangitic streaking. Based on these symptoms, what is the initial treatment for this infection?
    a. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
    b. Clindamycin
    c. Doxycycline
    d .Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim
A

a. Amoxicillin-clavulanate

This patient has symptoms consistent with erysipelas, which is commonly caused by staphylococcal or streptococcal bacteria. These may be treated empirically with penicillinase-resistant penicillin if not allergic. Clindamycin, doxycycline, and sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim are used for methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus infections.

erysipelas-non purulent SSTI of upper dermis, often presents unilateral on legs, well demarcated borders may have lymphatic streaking, or bright red to orange skin

33
Q
  1. A patient has vesiculopustular lesions around the nose and mouth with areas of honey-colored crusts. The provider notes a few similar lesions on the patient’s hands and legs. Which treatment is appropriate for this patient?
    a. Mupirocin 2% ointment
    b. culture an sensitivity of the lesions
    c. Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim
    d. surgical referral
A

a. Mupirocin 2% ointment

MRSA is not likely so do not have to use Bactrim

34
Q
  1. A patient with a purulent skin and soft tissue infection (SSTI). A history reveals a previous MRSA infection in a family member. The clinician performs an incision and drainage of the lesion and sends a sample to the lab for culture. What is the next step in treating this patient?
    a. Apply moist heat until symptoms resolve.
    b. Begin treatment with amoxicillin-clavulanate.
    c. Prescribe trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
    d. Wait for culture results before ordering an antibiotic.
A

c. Prescribe trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.

D/t history of MRSA, the patient will likely colonize for MRSA and therefore must be treated with Bactrim. Augmentin is not effective against MRSA

SSTI are can be considered as mild to severe. small/moderate lesions can be treated with warm moist heat, but this patient has an increased risk of MRSA and needs to be treated

moderate-severe purulent SSTIs need oral systemic atb that target staff and strep and to cover MRSA cephlasporin are good covers all 3. Bactrim covers just MRSA

35
Q
  1. A patient who has never had an outbreak of oral lesions reports a burning sensation on the oral mucosa and then develops multiple painful round vesicles at the site. A Tzanck culture confirms HSV-1 infection. What will the provider tell the patient about this condition?
    a. Antiviral medications are curative for oral herpes.
    b. The initial episode is usually the most severe.
    c. There are no specific triggers for this type of herpesvirus.
    d. Transmission to others occurs only when lesions are present.
A

b. The initial episode is usually the most severe.

In herpesvirus outbreaks, the initial episode is generally the most severe. Antiviral medications may prevent outbreaks, but do not cure the disease. HSV-1 (ORAL)has several specific triggers (spicy, stress, poor sleep). Transmission to others may occur even when lesions are not present

Tzanck culture is scraping off the top of a vesicle.

36
Q
  1. A patient who has had lesions for several days is diagnosed with primary herpes labialis and asks about using a topical medication. What will the provider tell this patient?
    a. Oral antivirals are necessary to treat this type of herpes.
    b. Preparations containing salicylic acid are most helpful.
    c. Topical medications can have an impact on pain and discomfort.
    d. Topical medications will significantly shorten the healing time.
A

c. Topical medications can have an impact on pain and discomfort.

Topical medications may alleviate discomfort, but do not shorten healing time. Oral antivirals may help shorten healing, but are not necessary as treatment, since the disease is usually self-limiting. Salicylic acid should not be used because it can erode the skin.

37
Q
  1. A patient who has recurrent, frequent genital herpes outbreaks asks about therapy to minimize the episodes. What will the provider recommend as first-line treatment?
    a. Acyclovir
    b. Famciclovir
    c. Topical medications
    d. Valacyclovir
A

a. Acyclovir
All three oral antiviral medications help reduce the number of occurrences and the frequency of asymptomatic shedding. Famciclovir and valacyclovir are more costly and no more effective, so should not be first-line therapy. Topical medications are not useful with recurrent, frequent genital herpes

38
Q
  1. When evaluating scalp lesions in a patient suspected of having tinea capitis, the provider uses a Wood’s lamp and is unable to elicit fluorescence. What is the significance of this finding?
    a. The patient does not have tinea capitis.
    b. The patient is less likely to have tinea capitis.
    c. The patient is positive for tinea capitis.
    d. The patient may have tinea capitis.
A

d. The patient may have tinea capitis.

Although some fungal species causing tinea capitis are fluorescent with a Wood’s lamp, Trichophyton tonsurans, the most common cause or tinea capitis, does not, so lack of fluorescence does not rule out the infection, make it less likely, or diagnose it.

39
Q

Which medication will the provider prescribe as first-line therapy to treat tinea capitis?

a. Oral griseofulvin
b. Oral ketoconazole
c. Topical clotrimazole
d. Topical tolnaftate

A

a. Oral griseofulvin

Systemic antifungal medications are used for widespread tinea and always with infections that involve the nails or scalp. Oral ketoconazole should be avoided due to risks of hepatotoxicity and serious drug interactions.

40
Q
  1. A patient has a pruritic eczematous dermatitis which has been present for 1 week and reports similar symptoms in other family members. What will the practitioner look for to help determine a diagnosis of scabies?
    a. Bullous lesions on the soles of the feet and palms of the hands
    b. Intraepidermal burrows on the interdigital spaces of the hands
    c. Nits and small bugs along the scalp line at the back of the neck
    d. Pustular lesions in clusters on the trunk and extremities
A

b. Intraepidermal burrows on the interdigital spaces of the hands

The scabies mite typically burrows no deeper than the stratus corneum and burrows may be found in the interdigital spaces of the hands, among other places. Bullous lesions may occur with impetigo. Nits and small bugs are characteristic findings with pediculosis. Pustular lesions represent superficial skin infections

treated with 1st line Premethrin topical or oral ivermectin (not recommended in pregnant patient)

41
Q
  1. The provider is prescribing 5% permethrin cream for an adolescent patient who has scabies.
    What will the provider include in education for this patient?
    a. All household contacts will be treated only if symptomatic.
    b. Itching 2 weeks after treatment indicates treatment failure.
    c. Stuffed animals and pillows should be placed in plastic bags for 1 week.
    d. The adolescent’s school friends should be treated.
A

c. Stuffed animals and pillows should be placed in plastic bags for 1 week.

Bedding and clothing of persons with scabies should be washed in hot water and dried on hot dryer settings. Items that cannot be washed should be put in plastic bags for 1 week. All household contacts should be treated. Itching may persist because of the secondary dermatitis for up to 2 weeks and does not represent treatment failure. Casual contacts do not require treatment.

42
Q

A patient with intertrigo shows no improvement and persistent redness after treatment with drying agents and antifungal medications. The patient reports an onset of odor associated with a low-grade fever. What will the provider do next to manage this condition?

a. Culture the lesions to determine the cause.
b. Evaluate the patient for HIV infection.
c. Order topical nystatin cream.
d. Prescribe a cephalosporin antibiotic.

A

a. Culture the lesions to determine the cause.

This patient has symptoms of a secondary bacterial infection. The lesions should be cultured and the results used to determine the appropriate antibiotic. Patients with recurrent candida infections should be evaluated for underlying HIV infection, diabetes, and other immunocompromised states. Topical nystatin cream is used for candida infection and these symptoms are consistent with bacterial infection. Antibiotics should be chosen based on culture results.

Intertrigo is a superficial bacterial or fungal that occurs in the setting of persistent skin to skin contact, friction, moisture warmth and inadequate ventilation.
sx redness, peripherally scalling, macerated plaques, located on skin folds, thighs and axillary. If not treated can turn into yeast

43
Q
  1. An older patient experiences a herpes zoster outbreak and asks the provider if she is contagious because she is going to be around her grandchild who is too young to be immunized for varicella. What will the provider tell her?
    a. An antiviral medication will prevent transmission to others.
    b. As long as her lesions are covered, there is no risk of transmission.
    c. Contagion is possible until all her lesions are crusted.
    d. Varicella-zoster and herpes zoster are different inf
A

c. Contagion is possible until all her lesions are crusted.

Herpes zoster lesions contain high concentrations of virus that can be spread by contact and by air; although they are less contagious than primary infections, contagion is possible until all lesions are crusted. Antiviral medications shorten the course, but do not reduce transmission. Covering the lesions does not prevent transmission. Herpes zoster and varicella-zoster are the same.

44
Q
  1. A patient has a unilateral vesicular eruption which is described as burning and stabbing in intensity. To differentiate between herpes simplex and herpes zoster, which test will the provider order?
    a. Polymerase chain reaction analysis
    b. Serum immunoglobulins
    c. Tzanck test
    d. Viral culture
A

a. Polymerase chain reaction analysis

The PCR is a rapid and sensitive test that can differentiate between the two. Serum Ig levels are not diagnostic. The Tzanck test identifies the presence of a herpes virus but does not differentiate between the two types. Viral culture will differentiate, but it is not rapid.

45
Q
  1. What instructions will the primary care provider give to parents of a child who has scabies who is ordered to use 5% permethrin cream? (Select all that apply.)
    a. Apply the cream at bedtime and rinse it off in the morning.
    b. It is not necessary to wash bedding or clothing when using this cream.
    c. Massage the cream into the skin from head to toe.
    d. The rash should disappear within a day or two after using the cream.
    e. Use once now and repeat the treatment in 1 to 2 weeks.
A

ANS: A, E
Permethrin cream should be applied from the neck down in children and rinsed off in 8 to 12 hours. The treatment should be done once and then repeated in 1 to 2 weeks. Bedding and clothing should be washed thoroughly. Adults should apply from head to toe, since the scabies can infest the hairline of adults. The rash may still be present for several weeks after treatment.

46
Q

When recommending ongoing treatment for a patient who has recurrent intertrigo, what will the provider suggest? (Select all that apply.)

a. Aluminum sulfate solution
b. Burrow’s solution compresses
c. Cornstarch application
d. Nystatin cream
e. Topical steroid cream

A

ANS: A, B
Aluminum sulfate solution and other drying agents are recommended, and Burrow’s solution compresses may be soothing. Cornstarch is ineffective and may result in fungal growth. Nystatin cream is used only for candida intertrigo. Topical steroids may promote infection.

47
Q

A patient is diagnosed with Herpetic whitlow and in a 2 weeks follow-up evaluation, is noted to have a paronychial inflammation of the tendon sheath in one finger that has responded to treatment. What is the priority for this patient?

a. begin therapy with oral antiviral medication
b. obtain a consult for incision and drainage fo the lesion
c. order a creatinine clearance test to evaluate renal function
d. refer the patient to the ED

A

d. refer the patient to the ED

when paronychial incection of the tendon sheath is suspected in patients with herpetic whitlow, they should immediately be referred to the ED for a surgical referral. Oral antivirals are only given to severe cases and reoccurrences should be started with in 48 hours of prodromal signs and symptoms (tinging pain at site)
I/d is always avoided in these lesions because they may lead to a superinfection.

Herpetic whitlow is a viral infection caused by HSV results in vesicles/blister eruptions on fingers. Can ave n/t and puritis . lesions can persist up to 8-12 days and then begin to crust and dry out.

main treatment is oral analgesic oral antivirals only used in severe cases

48
Q

A patient diagnosed with recurrent herpetic whitlow is counseled about management of symptoms and prevention of complications. What will be included in this teaching? select all that apply

a. begin antiviral medication within 3 days of symptoms
b. contact the provider if symptoms persist longer than 3 weeks
c. cool compresses may help with comfort and decrease erythema
d. keep hands away from mouth and eyes to prevent inoculation
e. wear gloves when preparing foods to prevent spread to others.

A

b. contact the provider if symptoms persist longer than 3 weeks
c. cool compresses may help with comfort and decrease erythema
d. keep hands away from mouth and eyes to prevent inoculation

patients with herpetic whitlow only need to see a physician if symptoms are reluctant to treatment after 3 weeks not 3 days
cool compress help with symptom relief and keeping hands away from mouth prevents the spread. antivirals are only given to serious and reoccurrence infections and must be started with in 48 of prodromal symptoms

49
Q

A female patient who works with caustic chemicals has developed acute paronychia. what will the provider include when teaching this patient about her condition?
select all that apply
a. analgesics may be necessary for comfort
b. apply clear nail polish to protect her nails
c. avoid trimming the nails until the infection clears
d. use protective gloves while working
e. wear waterproof gloves when washing dishes

A

a. analgesics may be necessary for comfort
d. use protective gloves while working
e. wear waterproof gloves when washing dishes

other treatments are warm soaks 4 times a day. Must must keep area dry, nails should be kept trimmed and clean

50
Q

A patient with chronic seborrheic dermatitis reports having difficulty remembering to use twice daily Ketoconazole cream prescribed by the provider. What will the provider then order for this patient?

a. Burrows solution soaks once daily
b. oral corticoidsteriods
c. oral itraconazole
d. selenium sulfide shampoo 2.5 % as a daily rinse

A

c. oral itraconazole

seborrheic dermatitis (dandruff/cradle cap) is typically caused by a fungus and presents as greasy looking erythematous scaling lesions that can be yellow to white in color and are primarily located on scalp, face. occurs in areas of high sweat glands the condition is chronic and reoccurrent

-first line treatment is topical anti-fungal creams to reduce the causing agent (Malassezia). especially on face
-shampoos (selenium products or cocloprirox 1% good for scalp incidence
-Oral anitfungals can be used for moderate or severe or for those that do not want to do topicals.
-only topical corticoidsteroids are used in order to reduce inflammation for the SHORT term (2 weeks) NOT USED as maintenance
shampoos can be used as maintenance (selsem blue)

51
Q

An adult patient has greasy, scaling patches on the forehead and eyebrows which suggests seborrheic dermatitis. What is included in assessment and management of this condition?

a. Begin first line treatment of antifungal
b. evaluate scalp for dry, flaky scales treat with selenium sulfide shampoo
c. teach the patient that proper treatment is curative in most instances
d. topical antibiotics medications may be used to prevent recurrence of symptoms

A

a. Begin first line treatment of antifungal
b. evaluate scalp for dry, flaky scales treat with selenium sulfide shampoo

seborrheic dermatitis (dandruff/cradle cap) is typically caused by a fungus and presents as greasy looking erythematous scaling lesions that can be yellow to white in color and are primarily located on scalp, face. occurs in areas of high sweat glands the condition is THIS CONDITION IS CHRONIC AND RECCURRENT

-first line treatment is topical anti-fungal creams to reduce the causing agent (Malassezia) especially on face
-shampoos (selenium products or cocloprirox 1% good for scalp incidence
-Oral anitfungals can be used for moderate or severe or for those that do not want to do topicals.
-only topical corticoidsteroids are used in order to reduce inflammation for the SHORT term (2 weeks) NOT USED as maintenance
shampoos can be used as maintenance (selsem blue)

52
Q

a child has plaques on the extensor surfaces ( areas on the outside of joints, do not rub) on both elbows, and on the face with minimal scaling and pruritus. What is the likely cause of these lesions?

a. Atopic dermatitis
b. Guttate psoriasis
c. Psoriasis
d. Seborrhea

A

c. Psoriasis

inflammatory skin condition characterized by erythematous macular and papular lesions that have sharply defined borders and are silvery, scaly in appearance
-chronic and unpredictable has periods of remissions and flare ups
can be mild to severe.
-most often occurs on extensor surfaces (elbows, knees and face especially in children

atopic dermatitis typically occurs on flexor surfaces on the inside of joints where skin touches

53
Q

A patient with psoriasis develops lesions on the intertriginous areas of the skin. What will the provider prescribe?

a. High-potency topical steriods
b. oral corticosteriods injections
c. topical steroids with vitamin d
d. topical, low potency steroids

A

d. topical, low potency steroids

intertriginous areas are areas that rub together like the axilla or genital/groin areas or breast skin folds

treatment of Psoriasis includes maintaining skin barrier with moisturizers and lotions at all times.
HIgh potency topical steroids typically used for the short period of time (2-3 weeks) however not used on areas like of thinner skin like intertriginous areas, in which case low potency should be used

topical steroids with vitamin d is a treatment option for the scalp.

oral coricoidsteroids (Methotrexate) are saved for severe cases that are reluctant to other first line therapies/difficult to treat.

54
Q

A patient with severe, recalcitrant psoriasis has tried topical mediations, intralesional steroid injections, phototherapy with UV B light without consistent improvement in symptoms. What is the next step?

a. cyclosporin
b. entracept
c. Methotrexate
d. oral retinoids

A

c. Methotrexate

treatment for psoriasis
mild-
-moderate topical steroids (high potency for 2-3 weeks, -low potency of intertriginous areas) 
-vitamin d on scalp
- phototherapy for UVB

severe cases those cases that are recalcitrant or reluctant to treatment/ difficult to can use:

  • steroid injections
  • oral retinoids and cyclosporins (not as strong, typically used for pustuaral psoriasis and have serious side effects
  • Methotrexate
  • entracept last resort
55
Q

A parent reports the appearance of areas of depigmented skin on a child which has spread rapidly. The provider notes asymmetrically patterned of tri-colored, macules in a dermatomal distribution.
Which type of Vitiligo does the provider suspect?
a. Inflammatory vitiligo
b. segmented vitiligo
c. type a vitiligo
d. vitiligo with poliosis

A

b. segmented vitiligo

Vitilogo is a disorder of the skin characterized by appearences of depigmentations on the skin or flat white macules it is casued by the progressive destruction of melanocytes from an unknown cause. typically found on sun exposed skin and does not matter what race.
Patients with family history of autoimmune disorders (thyroid, SLE are at a greater risk)

2 TYPES

  1. A- generalized non-dermatomal , non segmented symmetrical lesions, MOST COMMON
  2. B- segmented and in a dermatomal distributions that RAPIDLY SPREADS AND IS ASSYMETRICAL and does not cross midline. asymmetrical
56
Q

A patient who is diagnosed with vitiligo asks the provider what can be done to minimize the contrast between depigmented and normal skin. What will the provider recommend?

a. applying a cosmetic cover-up or tanning cream
b. lightening the dark skin areas with hydrogen peroxide
c. tanning for limited periods in a tanning booth
d. waiting for all skin to become depigmented

A

a. applying a cosmetic cover-up or tanning cream

treatment of vitiligo consisted of mid-high potency steroid creams for areas of face/neck LOCALIZED SPOTS spread
-treatment with chemical depigmentation laser treatments USED ON WIDESPREAD AREAS

if the areas are smaller tanning cream and make-up will do USED FIRST THEN STEROID CREAM THEN Phototheapy with UVB and A can work with topicals

Tanning is horrible in generalize and in vitiligo patients it is important to use sunscreen.

57
Q

A patient diagnosed with well-localized vitiligo is referred to a dermatologist for treatment. What will the initial treatment be?

a. chemical depigmentation
b. narrow band uv b light therapy
c. psoralens plus UV a
d. twice daily application of mid-potency steroid cream

A

d. twice daily application of mid-potency steroid cream

Mid potency steroid cream is initial treatment. UV therapy used only when cream is not effective and must be done by a dermatilogis. patients with wide spread vitiligo may be treated with depigmentation

58
Q

A patient has a pressure ulcer that has been treated with topical medications. During a follow-up visit, the provider notes an area of red bumps in the lesion. What does this indicate?

a. Healing tissue
b. poor perfusion
c. secondary infection
d. tunneling lesions

A

a. Healing tissue

Wounds that are healing or have the potential to heel will demonstrate pink or red tissue and the absences of exudate, infection, or debris and will have bumpy granulation tissue.

59
Q

A patient has an ulcer on one lower leg just above the medial malleolus. The provider notes irregular wound edges with granulation tissue and moderate exudate, with ankle edema in that leg. What is the initial treatment to help treat this wound.

a. compression therapy
b. hyperbaric oxygen therapy
c. re-vascularization procedures
d. dkin grafting

A

a. compression therapy

Characteristic of a VENOUS ulcer typically on legs ABOVE medial malleolus, are LARGER with IRrEGULAR edges and can have moderate and heavy exudate

ARTERIAL ulcer- occurs typically on lower legs distal to area of impaired perfusion, are WELL dermarcated
PAINFUL, DEEP and DRY

Venous ulcer treatment - compression
ulcer treatment need to increase perfusion and can use all those other adjunctive therapies

60
Q

A patient with a wound containing necrotic tissue requires debridement. The practitioner notes an area of erythema and exudate in the wound. Which type of debridement will most likely be used?

a. Autolytic debridement
b. Biological debridement
c. Chemical debridement
d. Mechanical debridement

A

d. Mechanical debridement

debridement is needed if the wound has debris and necrotic tissue

mechanical debridement uses water hydrotherapy and high pressure water sprays

autolytic debridement uses hydrocolloid dressing to allow leukocytes to release lysosomes to debride ulcer. HOWEVER, THIS WOUND IS INFECTED
for infected wounds you do not want to cover with moist dressings might have to treat with anti-infectant (silvadene) and pack