Mod 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Accelerations

A

A visually apparent, abrupt increase in FHR above the baseline rate. The peak is at least 15 beats/min above the baseline and the acceleration lasts 15 seconds or more.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Causes of Accelerations

A
spontaneous fetal movement 
vaginal examination 
electrode application
fetal scalp stimulation
fetal retraction to external sound 
breach position
occiput posterior position
uterine contractions
fundal pressure
abdominal palpation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Intervention for Acceleration

A

none required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Early Deceleration occurs when in relation to the contraction?

A

generally the onset, nadir, and recovery of the deceleration correspond to the beginning, peak and end of the contraction. (mirror image)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define Deceleration

A

a visually apparent, gradual decrease in and return to baseline fetal heart rate Associated with contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the cause of Early deceleration?

A

fetal head compression resulting from the following:
Uterine contractions
vaginal examination
fundal pressure
placement of the internal mode of monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Intervention for Early Deceleration?

A

none required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Late Deceleration occurs when in relation to the contraction?

A

The deceleration begins after the contraction has started and the nadir of the deceleration occurs after the peak of the contraction. The deceleration usually does not return to baseline until after the contraction ends.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define Late Deceleration

A

visually apparent, gradual decrease in and return to baseline fetal heart rate associated with contractions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cause of late Deceleration?

A
caused by disruption of oxygen transfer from the environment to the fetus caused by the following:
uterine tachysystole
maternal supine hypotension
Epidural or spinal anesthesia 
placenta abruption 
placental previa
hypertensive disorders
post maturity
intrauterine growth restrictions
diabetes mellitus 
intraamniotic infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Intervention of late Deceleration?

A

Change maternal position (lateral)
Correct maternal hypotension by elevating the legs
increase rate of maintenance Intravenous solution
palpate uterus to assess tor tachysystole
discontinue oxytocin if infusing
administer oxygen at 8 to 10 L/M nonrebreather
notify the doctor or midwife
consider internal monitoring
assist with birth if it cannot be corrected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Variable Deceleration occurs when in relation to the contraction?

A

occur anytime the UC phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define Variable Deceleration

A

A visually apparent abrupt decrease in fetal heart rate below the baseline. The decrease is at least 15 beats/ min or more below the baseline, lasts at least 15 seconds, and returns to baseline in less than 2 minutes from the time of onset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cause of variable deceleration?

A

caused by compression of the umbilical cord caused by the following:
maternal position with the cord between fetus and maternal pelvis
cord around the fetal neck, arm, leg or other body part
short cord
knot in cord
prolapsed cord (emergency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Intervention of variable deceleration

A

Change maternal position (side to side, knee to chest)
discontinue oxytocin if infusing
administer oxygen at 8 to 10 L/M nonrebreather
notify the doctor or midwife
assist with vaginal or speculum examination to assess for cord prolapse
assist with birth if it cannot be corrected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does VEAL CHOP stand for?

A

variable cord compression
early head compression
acceleration ok
late placenta insignificancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the normal baseline for fetal heart rate?

A

110 to 160 BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is variability in the Fetal heart rate?

A

Irregular waves or fluctuations in the baseline FHR of two cycles per minute or greater. There are four possible categories of variability: absent, minimal, moderate, and marked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is bradycardia?

A

A baseline FHR less than 110 beats/min for 10 minutes or longer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the most common cause of bradycardia?

A
structural defects
viral infection
maternal hypoglycemia
maternal hypothermia 
fetal heart failure 
medications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are nursing interventions for bradycardia?

A

depends on the cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Tachycardia?

A

A baseline FHR greater than 160 beats/min for 10 minutes or longer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are nursing interventions for tachycardia?

A

dependent on the cause; reduce maternal fever with antipyretics as ordered and cooling measures; oxygen at 10 L/min by nonrebreather face mask may be of some value; carry out health care providers orders based on alleviating the cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What nursing intervention is usually the first choice when dealing with late and variable decelerations?

A

change maternal position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the legal responsibilities of the perinatal nurse in regards to fetal monitoring?

A

Nurses who care for women during child birth are legally responsible for correctly interpreting FHR patterns, initiating appropriate nursing interventions based on those patterns, and documenting the outcomes of those interventions. Perinatal nurses are responsible for timely notification of the physician or mid-wife in the event of abnormal FHR patterns They are also responsible for initiating the institutional chain of command should difference in opinion arise among health care provider concerning the interpretation of FHR pattern and the intervention required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the effects of cocaine on pregnancy and the fetus?

A

increased incidence of miscarriages, preterm labor, small for gestational age, abruption of the placenta, and still birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the effects of alcohol on pregnancy and the fetus?

A

plecenta perfusion and low birth weights in infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the effects of cigarettes on pregnancy and the fetus?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome, increase risk of miscarriage, still birth, preterm birth, and SID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the hallmark maternal symptoms of Candidiasis?

A

pruritis, vaginal dryness, dysuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the treatment of Candidiasis?

A

antifungal preparation
comfort measures include:
sitz bath
no underwear

31
Q

Define Amnioinfusion

A

Infusion of room-temperature normal saline or lactated Ringer’s solution through an intrauterine pressure catheter into the uterine cavity in an attempt to increase the fluid around the umbilical cord and prevent compression during uterine contractions.

32
Q

Define Acculturation

A

The process of adopting the cultural traits or social patterns of a different population group.

33
Q

Define Ethnocentrism

A

The opinion that the beliefs and customs of one’s own ethnic group are superior to those of others.

34
Q

Define Assimilation

A

The process in which a person or a group of people of a different ethnic background become absorbed into a new culture.

35
Q

what is a concept that health and normality emerge within a social context and that the content and form of mental health will vary greatly from one culture to another. Differences may result from variations in stressors, symbolic interpretation, acceptance of expression and repression, and cohesion and tolerance of deviation of social groups.

A

cultural relativism

36
Q

what is bluish discoloration of the hands and feet caused by reduced peripheral circulation?

A

Acrocyanosis

37
Q

what is thick, white substance that protects the skin of the fetus?

A

Vernix caseosa

38
Q

define cold stress

A

Excessive loss of heat that results in increased respirations and nonshivering thermogenesis to maintain core body temperature.

39
Q

what is convection?

A

the flow of heat from the body surface to cooler ambient air.

40
Q

what is radiation?

A

the loss of heat from the body surface to a cooler solid surface not indirect contact but in relative proximity. (window)

41
Q

what is evaporation?

A

the loss of heat that occurs when liquid is converted into vapor. in the newborn heat loss by evaporation occurs as a result of moisture from the skin.

42
Q

what is conduction?

A

it is the loss of heat from the body surface to a cooler surface indirect contact.

43
Q

what are the hallmark maternal symptoms of bacterial vaginosis (BV)?

A

fishy odor and increased thin vaginal discharge

44
Q

what is the treatment of bacterial vaginosis?

A
oral metronidazole (flagyl)
vaginal preparations (metronidazole gel, clindamycin cream)
45
Q

what are the hallmark maternal symptoms of Trichomoniasis?

A

inflammation of the vulva, vagina, or both
irritation
pruritus
dysuria
dyspareunia
tiny petechiae (strawberry spots) on the cervix and vaginal walls

46
Q

what is the treatment for Trichomoniasis?

A

metronidazole or tinidazole orally in a single dose

47
Q

what are the hallmark maternal symptoms of Gonorrhea?

A

often asymptomatic but when symptoms are present they may have a greenish-yellow purulent endocervical discharge and menstruation irregularities.
may complain of chronic or acute severe pelvic or lower abdominal pain.

rectal:
profuse purulent anal discharge 
blood in the stool
pain 
itching 
fullness 
diarrhea
48
Q

what is the treatment for Gonorrhea?

A

ceftriaxone once IM

49
Q

what are the hallmark maternal symptoms of HIV?

A
HIV seroconversion may be totally asymptomatic  but is usually accompanied with a viremic influenza like response:
fever 
headache 
night seats
malaise
generalized lymphadenopathy
myalgia
nausea/diarrhea
weight loss 
sore throat 
rash
50
Q

what is the treatment for HIV?

A

no cure
triple drug antiviral therapy or highly active (zidovudine) antiretroviral therapy to decrease the risk of perinatal transmission

51
Q

which contraceptives protect against STIs and HIV?

A

abstinence
male condom
female condom
Vaccination to prevent: hep B, some strains of HPV

52
Q

what are the benefits Intrauterine devices?

A

lighter flow during menses and less cramping with thelevonorgestrel intrautrerine
do not have to remember pill or other manipulation between coital acts

53
Q

what are the disadvantages Intrauterine devices?

A

increased risk of PID
risk of perforation
doesn’t protect against HIV or STDs
heavier flow during menses with the copper T380A

54
Q

how does a intrauterine device work?

A

the copper is used as a spermicide and inflames the endometrium prevent fertilization

55
Q

What are the long term treatment plans for adolescents with eating disorders?

A

reinstitution of normal nutrition or reversal of the severe state of malnutrition
resolution of disturbed patterns of family interaction
individual psychotherapy to correct deficits and
distortions in physiologic functioning

56
Q

What are some of the factors that would indicate when someone was a victim of intimate partner violence (IPV)?

A
overuse of health services
vague nonspecific complaints 
missed appointments
unexplained injuries
untreated serious injuries
injuries not matching the description
intimate partner never leaving the patients side
intimate partner insisting on telling the story of the injury
57
Q

What are the most common maternal medical risk factors when providing care for the pregnant woman?

A

the leading cause of maternal death all over the world:
hypertensive disorders, infection, and hemorrhage

in the us: hypertension, pulmonary embolism and hemorrhage

factors: younger than 20 older 35
lack of prenatal care
low education
unmarried status 
non-Caucasian race
58
Q

which type of family is most socially vulnerable?

A

single parent families

59
Q

What is the make-up of the multigenerational family?

A

grandparents, children and grandchildren

60
Q

What is the make-up of the no-parent family ?

A

children live independently in foster care or in kinship care such as living with a grandparent

61
Q

What is the make-up of the married blended family ?

A

those that form as a result of divorce and remarriage

62
Q

What is the make-up of the cohabiting- parent families?

A

those which children live with two unmarried biological parents or two adoptive parents

63
Q

What is the make-up of the single-parent family?

A

an unmarried biological or adoptive parent who may or may not live with another adult?

64
Q

What is the make-up of the homosexual family?

A

lesbians or gays may live together with or without children

65
Q

Which is the most common STI?

A

chlamydia trachomatis

66
Q

Who is most at risk for chlamydia?

A

sexually active women younger then 20

67
Q

Who is most at risk for gonorrhea?

A

young adults
active teenagers
African Americans

Anyone younger than 20 and engage in sexual activity with multiple partners

68
Q

Who account for most cases of syphilis?

A

African American women account for one half of all the case reported

69
Q

Who is most at risk for herpes?

A

women between the ages of 15 and 35

70
Q

what is the process IVF-ET?

A

a women’s eggs are collected from her ovaries, fertilized in the laboratory with sperm and transferred to her uterus after normal embryo development has occurred

71
Q

what is the process of GIFT?

A

Oocytes are retrieved from the ovary, placed in a catheter with washed motile sperm and immediately transferred into the fimbriated end of the uterine tube. fertilization occurs in the uterine tube

72
Q

what hormones involved in milk production?

A

prolactin and oxytocin

73
Q

what are the benefits Breastfeeding for the infant?

A
it reduces the risk of: 
nonspecific gastrointestinal infections
celiac disease 
childhood inflammatory bowel disease
necrotizing enterocolitis in preterm infants 
clinical asthma, atopic dermatitis and eczema 
lower respiratory tract infections 
otitis media
SIDS
obesity in adolescence and adulthood
type 1 and 2 diabetes 
acute lymphocytic and myeloid leukemia
74
Q

what are the benefits Breastfeeding for the mother?

A

decrease postpartum bleeding and more rapid uterine involution
reduces the risk of:
ovarian cancer and breast cancer
type II diabetes
hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and cardiovascular disease
rheumatoid arthritis