mock SBA Flashcards

1
Q
Wilson’s disease is a type of genetic disorder affecting the active transport in the body. What is the Na+/K+ -ATPase an example of?
A. Primary active transport
B. Secondary active transport
C. Tertiary active transport
D. Facilitated diffusion
E. Simple diffusion
A

A. Primary active transport
The Na+/K+ ATPase pump use energy from the hydrolysis of ATP to move Na+ & K+ against their concentration gradients, this a prime and typical example of primary active transport

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2
Q
What does a diamond represent on a genetic pedigree chart?
A. Male
B. Female
C. Miscarriage
D. Undetermined gender
E. Deceased
A

D. Undetermined gender

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3
Q
Proteins often have multiple levels of folding. An alpha helix is an example of what kind of protein structure?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Super-secondary
D. Tertiary
E. Quaternary
A

B. Secondary
Alpha helix & beta-pleated sheets are typical examples of secondary protein structures
•Primary protein structure is the order of amino acids
•Super-secondary structures are things like zinc fingers
•Tertiary is the combination of different polypeptide chains
•Quaternary is the combination of different polypeptide chains with prosthetic groups eg. Fe2+ groups in haemoglobin

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4
Q
“A reproductive union between 2 relatives”. For which of the following is this definition for?
A. Homozygosity
B. Heterozygosity
C. Consanguinity
D. Polymorphism
E. Polyploidy
A

C. Consanguinity
Consanguinity = a reproductive union between 2 relatives
•Homozygosity = both alleles are the same at a locus
•Heterozygosity = alleles are different at a locus
•Polymorphism = frequent hereditary at a locus, that typically don’t cause disease but can make you more/less susceptible
•Polyploidy = the state in which an organism/cell has more than 2 paired (homologous) sets of chromosomes

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5
Q
What kind of inheritance pattern only affects male offspring?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. X-linked recessive
D. X-linked dominant
E. Mitochondrial
A

C. X-linked recessive
Males are more susceptible to X-linked recessive disease because they only have 1 X chromosome, so much so that it is very rare for a female to have an X-linked recessive disease; however they can often be carriers of the disease without being affected themselves. A common example is haemophilia.

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6
Q

Some types of chemotherapy inhibit the enzyme topoisomerase. What is the function of topoisomerase?
A. Separate the DNA strands by breaking hydrogen bonds to expose nucleotide bases
B. Recognises the RNA primers and removes them once DNA synthesis has begun
C. Joins Okazaki fragments together into a continuous strand
D. Unwinds the DNA double by relieving the supercoil
E. Joins adjacent nucleotides together via a phosphodiester bond in a 5’ to 3’ direction

A

D. Unwinds the DNA double by relieving the supercoil
Topoisomerase unwinds the supercoiling of DNA
•DNA helicase breaks the hydrogen bonds between strands
•RNAse H (Ribonuclease H) recognises RNA primers & removes them once DNA synthesis has begun
•DNA ligase joins Okazaki fragments in a continuous strand of DNA
•DNA polymerase joins adjacent nucleotides together via a phosphodiester bond in a 5’ to 3’ direction

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7
Q
The amount of glucose within a cell has to be closely regulated and controlled. What is the rate-limiting enzyme of glycolysis? 
A. Aldolase
B. Enolase
C. Pyruvate kinase
D. Phosphofructokinase-1
E. Phosphohexose isomerase
A

D. Phosphofructokinase-1
Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1) is the main rate-limiting enzymes of glycolysis. This is very important to remember and is a common question…

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8
Q
Enolase converts which substrate into phosphoenolpyruvate in glycolysis?
A. Fructose 1,6-bisphophate
B. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
C. Pyruvate
D. 3-phosphoglycerate
E. 2-phosphoglycerate
A

E. 2-phosphoglycerate
You just need to learn the substrate and enzymes of glycolysis to answer this question, you are expected to know it. However, there are many useful mnemonics to help you learn both glycolysis & Krebs’.

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9
Q
Where does the Krebs’ cycle take place? 
A. In the cytoplasm
B. In the cristae of the mitochondrion
C. In the matrix of the mitochondrion
D. In the nucleus
E. In the Golgi apparatus
A

C. In the matrix of the mitochondrion

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10
Q
Which enzyme is involved in the production of FADH2 in the Krebs’ cycle?
A. Succinate dehydrogenase
B. Malate dehydrogenase
C. Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
D. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
E. Succinyl-CoA synthetase
A

A. Succinate dehydrogenase

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11
Q
Some cells have very distinctive features that can easily be identified in a histological slide; a perinuclear hof is an example of this. In which cell type are you most likely to find a perinuclear huff?
A. Basophil
B. Eosinophil
C. Plasma cell
D. T helper cell
E. Megakaryocyte
A

C. Plasma cell

A plasma cell is the typical cell that a perinuclear huff can be seen in.

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12
Q
Many blood-borne cells have to be regulated to ensure there are adequate amounts present in the blood. What is the regulatory hormone for platelets?
A. Human growth hormone
B. Oxytocin
C. Erythropoietin
D. Granulocyte colony stimulating factor
E. Thrombopoietin
A

E. Thrombopoietin
Thrombopoietin is the regulatory hormone for platelet production
•Erythropoietin is the regulatory hormone for erythrocytes (RBCs)
•Granulocyte colony stimulating factor is the regulatory hormone for granulocyte (white blood cells eg. basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils)

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13
Q
Which of the following cell types has a reniform nucleus?
A. Neutrophil
B. Monocyte
C. Basophil
D. Eosinophil
E. T lymphocyte
A

B. Monocyte
Monocytes typically have a reniform (kidney bean-shaped) nucleus
•Neutrophils have multi-lobed nuclei
•Eosinophils have a bi-lobed & lozenge-shaped nucleus
•Basophils have bi-lobed nuclei

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14
Q
A woman is brought to A&E by an ambulance following a myocardial infarction. After a series of tests, it is found that her atrioventricular node has suffered an infarction. Which artery is the main supply to the atrioventricular node (AVN)?
A. Right marginal artery
B. Left marginal artery
C. Posterior interventricular artery
D. Right coronary artery
E. Left coronary artery
A

C. Posterior interventricular artery
•The posterior interventricular artery (PIA) is the main blood supply to the atrioventricular node (AVN).
•The PIA can vary in its originating artery:
•70% Right coronary artery only
•20% Right & Left coronary arteries
•10% Left coronary artery only

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15
Q
In a foetus, various arteries in the arise as branches of the aortic arches. The maxillary artery arises from which of the aortic arches?
A. Arch 1
B. Arch 2
C. Arch 3
D. Arch 4
E. Arch 5
A

A. Arch 1

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16
Q
Which of the following is NOT a vasodilator?
A. Prostacyclin
B. ANP
C. Angiotensin II
D. Bradykinin
E. NO
A

C. Angiotensin II
Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor (it is in the name, angio= blood vessel, tensin = tense/constrict)
•Prostacyclin, ANP, Bradykinin & NO are all vasodilators

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17
Q
What happens during the plateau at the top of a myocardial action potential?
A. Na+ enters the cell
B. Ca2+ enters the cell
C. Ca2+ leaves the cell
D. K+ enters the cell
E. Na+ leaves the cell
A

B. Ca2+ enters the cell

18
Q
What does the T wave represent on an ECG?
A. Atrial depolarisation
B. Atrial repolarisation
C. Ventricular depolarisation
D. Ventricular repolarisation
E. Isovolumetric contraction
A

D. Ventricular repolarisation

19
Q
What is contained within the dense granules of platelets?
A. vWF and fibrinogen
B. ADP and thromboxane A2
C. Lysosomes
D. Lecithin
E. Plasminogen
A

B. ADP and thromboxane A2

20
Q
What does the bulbus cordis develop into?
A. Right atrium
B. Right ventricle
C. Left atrium
D. Left ventricle
E. Right sinus horn
A

B. Right ventricle

21
Q
Respiratory epithelium is found in many parts of the respiratory tract but is not found in which of the following? 
A. Nasal sinuses
B. Nasopharynx
C. Larynx
D. Bronchi
E. Bronchioles
A

E. Bronchioles

Bronchioles contain ciliated columnar epithelium with a few goblet cells & Clara cells

22
Q

What is the function of the periciliary fluid?
A. It keeps the mucous at an optimum distance from the epithelia
B. It keeps the epithelia moisturised
C. Provides lubrication to the lung tissue
D. Encapsulates the pathogens in the respiratory tract
E. Helps maintain surface tension of the lungs

A

A. It keeps the mucous at an optimum distance from the epithelia

23
Q
A patient develops a lung carcinoma at the carina. At which level of the thoracic vertebrae does the trachea bifurcate? 
A. T1
B. T3
C. T4
D. T6
E. T8
A

C. T4
The bifurcation of the trachea (AKA the carina of the trachea) lies at the level of the T4 vertebra.
•All the major bifurcations in the body lie at the 4th vertebra in their respective area (biFOURcation to remember this) eg. common carotid artery bifurcates at C4, the aorta bifurcates into the common iliac arteries at L4

24
Q

What is the definition of functional plasticity?
A. The ability of cells to alter their function in order to accommodate for the current needs of a tissue
B. The ability of an organ to take over a function from another organ
C. Changes in structure of an organ due to neurological malfunction
D. The ability of a tissue to increase its goblet cell production
E. The degree to which a tissue can stretch

A

A. The ability of cells to alter their function in order to accommodate for the current needs of a tissue

25
Q

There are many tests that are very useful to help diagnose respiratory diseases. What is the purpose of exhaled nitric oxide test?
A. Measuring of total lung capacity
B. Measuring of transfer estimates
C. Indirect measuring of airway inflammation
D. Measuring of residual volume
E. Indirect measuring of transfer estimates

A

C. Indirect measuring of airway inflammation

26
Q
Where can you find central chemoreceptors?
A. In the brain
B. In the brainstem
C. In the hypothalamus
D. In the pituitary gland
E. In the carotid sinus
A

B. In the brainstem

27
Q
What percentage of the surface area of an alveoli does a type 1 pneumocyte usually make up?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
E. 90%
A

E. 90%
Type 1 pneumocytes make up ~90% of the surface area of an alveoli, this makes them thinner, reducing the diffusion distance of gases allowing more efficient diffusion
•Type 2 pneumocytes make up most of the rest of the alveolar surface area

28
Q
The diaphragm receives motor innervation from which nerve?
A. Phrenic nerve
B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Ansa cervicalis
E. Long thoracic nerve
A

A. Phrenic nerve

If the phrenic nerve is irritated, a referred pain can be felt in the shoulder.

29
Q
Which of the following cartilages are attached to the vocal cords?
A. Cuneiform
B. Arytenoid
C. Corniculate
D. Cricoid
E. Epiglottis
A

B. Arytenoid
You are expected to know the cartilages of the larynx & what they look like:
•There are 3 single cartilages (cricoid cartilage, thyroid cartilage & epiglottis)
•There are 6 paired cartilages (arytenoid, corniculate & cuneiform cartilages)

30
Q
At which thoracic vertebral level does the hiatus for the inferior vena cava lie?
A. T8
B. T9
C. T10
D. T11
E. T12
A

A. T8
You should know the vertebral level at which the diaphragmatic hiatuses lie and travels through them
•T8 = IVC
•T10 = Oesophagus
•T12 = descending aorta
•You can remember this by seeing that the number of letters increase with vertebral number

31
Q
Which of the following is an example of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue? 
A. Spleen
B. Peyer’s patches
C. Pancreas
D. Sphincter of Oddi
E. Pylorus of the stomach
A

B. Peyer’s patches
Peyer’s patches are an example of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT).
•Other examples are the vermiform appendix (the appendix colloquially) & Waldeyer’s tonsillar ring

32
Q
There are many components to saliva that all have important functions. Which of the following is NOT a component of saliva?
A. Amylase
B. Lysozymes
C. HCO3-
D. Ca2+ ions
E. Mucus
A

D. Ca2+ ions

33
Q
The following are all salivary glands. Which has a purely serous secretion?
A. Weber’s glands
B. Palatine glands
C. Sublingual glands
D. Parotid glands
E. Submandibular glands
A

D. Parotid glands
The parotid gland has a purely serous secretion, the only other salivary gland to have this is Von Ebner’s gland (a minor salivary gland)
•All the others have either a mucous or mixed salivary secretion.

34
Q

Which of these factors increase the strength of gastric peristaltic contractions?
A. Gastrin
B. Duodenal distension
C. Decrease in duodenal pH
D. Increase in duodenal osmolarity
E. High fat concentration in the duodenum

A

A. Gastrin
There are numerous factors that affect the strength of gastric peristaltic contractions.
•They generally make sense after a bit of thought.
•Eg. gastric pH will rise when food is present as the acid is diluted, therefore you want to move food into the duodenum so gastric peristaltic contractions increase when pH increases.

35
Q
Which one of these is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin B9
D. Vitamin K
E. Vitamin E
A

C. Vitamin B9
•Vitamins A,D,E & K are the fat-soluble vitamins
•Vitamin B-12 is absorbed like a fat-soluble vitamin when intrinsic factor has bound to it

36
Q
Which type of cell is the equivalent of a pace-maker cell in the intestines?
A. G cells
B. Interstitial cells of Cajal
C. Clara cells
D. I cells
E. J cells
A

B. Interstitial cells of Cajal

37
Q
What BMI range is considered to be overweight?
A. 0-18.4
B. 18.5>24.9
C. 25>29.9
D. 30>34.9
E. 35+
A
C. 25>29.9
>30 = obese
•>25 = overweight
•Normal = 18.5 < BMI < 25
•<18.5 = underweight
38
Q
Fluid is absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract by the small intestine. What percentage of fluid is absorbed in the small intestine?
A. 40%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 70%
E. 80%
A

E. 80%

•The majority of water (and therefore fluid) is absorbed in the small intestine.

39
Q
There are many types of research study but some are considered more reliable than others. What type of research study is considered to be the “golden standard”?
A. Meta-analysis
B. Cross-sectional study
C. Systematic review
D. Randomised control trial
E. Cohort study
A

D. Randomised control trial

40
Q
Which is the main hormone stimulating bile secretion?
A. Gastrin
B. Somatostatin
C. Cholecystokinin
D. Leptin
E. Secretin
A

C. Cholecystokinin