Mock Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is meant by a composite benchmark (5 marks)

A
  • A single indicator of performance
  • made up from elements of a number of different indices
  • in a fixed proportion
  • dependent on funds objectives
  • and risk profile
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2
Q

Explain main differences between UCITS and UCIS that can result in UCIS having greater risk (8 marks)

A
  • UCITS authorised by EU
  • UCITS retail distribution
  • UCITS benefit from better liquidity
  • UCITS regulated
  • UCITS have investor protection
  • UCITS have transparency
  • UCITS have diversification rules
  • UCITS have borrowing restrictions
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3
Q

State five types of investor whom UCIS may be promoted (5 marks)

A
  • Existing holders
  • Certified high net worth
  • Enterprise and Charitable
  • Employees of the fund
  • Professional clients
  • Sophisticated investors
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4
Q

Explain safeguarding regulations that govern UCITS in respect of diversification (6 marks)

A
  • Not more than 10% value of fund
  • in any one company
  • No more than four companies at this maximum 10%
  • Remainder maximum 5%
  • So must be minimum of 16 holdings
  • Max 10% unquoted companies
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5
Q

Explain safeguarding regulations that govern UCITS in respect of Borrowing (4 marks)

A
  • Borrowing only
  • Up to 10%
  • On temporary basis
  • if supported by expected receipts
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6
Q

Explain the terms fettered and unfettered (4 marks)

A

Fettered:
- only exclusively
- in house range

Unfettered:
- can use funds from other managers
- as well as their own

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7
Q

State and explain one advantage of fettered and unfettered

A

Fettered:
- Can be cheaper
- As no additional charge over and above underlying fund charge is allowed

Unfettered:
- Not restricted, broader choice of funds
- If one fund fails to perform it can be replaced as wide universe available

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8
Q

Explain how manager of manager fund works (5 marks)

A
  • Overall manager decides on asset allocation
  • appoints manager for each sector
  • and monitors its performance
  • can replace managers
  • funds are segregated and
  • discretionary
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9
Q

Explain two advantages and two disadvantages of MOM in comparison to FOF

A

Advantages:
- Bespoke mandate
- No requirement to sell a fund and buy a new one
- Can replace managers

Disadvantage:
- New manager left with what predecessor chose to buy
- could be tax implications
- limited number of managers willing to stick to mandate

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10
Q

State the main differences between a physical gold exchange traded commodity and a synthetic gold ETC (2 marks)

A

Physical:
- owns gold

Synthetic:
- purchases derivatives

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11
Q

State six benefits and four drawbacks of gold as part of portfolio (10 marks)

A

Benefits:
- Diversification
- Reduces overall risk
- Negative correlation with equities and bonds
- Hedge against inflation
- Safe haven
- CGT free

Drawbacks:
- No income
- Storage costs
- Price affected by supply and demand
- High transaction costs

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12
Q

Explain why the price of a synthetic gold ETC would differ from the spot price of
gold. (6)

A

Synthetic
• Uses futures/swaps/derivatives.
• Futures/derivative prices are higher than spot prices/contango.
• To reflect costs of storage/insurance/interest.
• Over the 3-month period.
• Ongoing charges/rollover cost.
• Market expectations.

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13
Q

State the type of futures contract you should enter into to compensate for a
fall in the price of gold and explain how it achieves this objective. (7 marks)

A
  • Short futures contract
  • involves obligation
  • to sell
  • at a specific price
  • at a certain date
  • if price falls can sell gold at higher price as per contract
  • covering any losses
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14
Q

Explain why three month futures contract might not be the best way to hedge position (6 marks)

A
  • Margin calls if market moves against him
  • volatility of underlying commodity
  • need for constant monitoring
  • usually limited to professional investors
  • complex investment
  • possibility of unlimited loss
  • underlying must be delivered
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15
Q

State five types of derivative or instrument that could be used to hedge
gold sovereign exposure. (5 marks)

A
  • Spread betting
  • Contracts for differences
  • Options / Forwards
  • Short exchange traded commodity
  • Covered warrant
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16
Q

State the three elements that make up the definition of ‘equity’ for the return on
equity formula. (3 marks)

A
  • Shareholders capital
  • Reserves
  • Retained profits
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17
Q

Formula for Return on equity (5 marks)

A
  • net profit after tax and interest
  • divided by equity (shareholder capital, reserves and retained profits)
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18
Q

ROCE Calculation (5 marks)

A
  • Earnings before interest and tax
  • Divided by shareholder funds (including retained profits) + long term borrowing
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19
Q

Describe the main drawbacks in using price-to-book (P/B) when valuing a company as a potential investment. (6 marks)

A
  • Book value of assets may differ from market value
  • Current value does not factor in future cash flow
  • Not suitable for companies with intangible assets
  • Can be easily distorted by share price movement
  • Not suitable for comparing companies in different sectors
  • Output not robust
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20
Q

From a behavioural finance perspective, state four reasons why a client may be
inclined not to sell, and explain one justification for each reason, based upon situation. (8 marks)

A
  • Loss aversion - might be selling at a loss
  • Anchoring - where paying round figures
  • Endowment effect - sense of attachment
  • Overconfidence - might think still a good investment
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21
Q

Identify five non-behavioural reasons why you might decide to retain shares in Lake company. (5 marks)

A
  • sector scope for growth
  • could be good ROCE
  • may be oversold
  • takeover target
  • see effects of reduced borrowing
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22
Q
A
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23
Q
A
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24
Q

Outline the main factors that a financial adviser would take into consideration when constructing an investment portfolio (7 marks)

A
  • Attitude to risk
  • Capacity for loss
  • Assets
  • Emergency fund
  • Tax status
  • Time horizon
  • Ethical preferences
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25
Q

State the main conditions that must be met for a property fund to qualify as a
property authorised investment fund (PAIF).

A

• At least 60%;
• of income;
• from exempt property business.
• Value of property assets must be at least 60% of total assets.
• Shares widely held.
• No corporate investor;
• holding 10% (or more of net asset value).

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26
Q

State the tax treatment of the three income components of a PAIF, if the PAIF is used to generate income (8 marks)

A

Dividend income:
- Paid gross
- At dividend rate relevant
- Once dividend allowance exceeded

Property Income Distribution:
- PID income paid net of basic rate tax 20%, could reclaim if non taxpayer or may owe more
- once personal savings allowance exceeded

Interest/other income:
- Paid gross
- At marginal rate of tax

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27
Q

How to calculate EPS

A

net profit attributable to ordinary share holders / number of shares in issue

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28
Q

How to calculate dividend cover

A

EPS / Dividend per share

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29
Q

3 risks of direct equities rather than investing in a fund

A
  • Non systematic risk
  • Diversification risk
  • No FSCS protection
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30
Q

Explain what is meant by sequencing risk and its effects on an investment portfolio, given the need to generate an income from the investment (5 marks)

A
  • Impact of volatility
  • On the order and
  • Timing of withdrawals
  • and sustainability of future income
  • long term impact on capital value
  • greater in early years
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31
Q

Explain the main objectives of the rebalancing process. (6 marks)

A
  • Realign a portfolio to its original asset allocation
  • to match attitude to risk
  • capacity for loss
  • Review of individual funds
  • Invest cash
  • adjust portfolio to deal with any changes in circumstances
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32
Q

Identify ten main issues that a financial adviser should consider when rebalancing the portfolio once an investment portfolio is set up and generating an income (10 marks)

A
  • Trading costs
  • Whether to retain benchmark
  • Potential tax liabilities
  • Regulatory issues
  • Is rebalancing automatic or manual
  • Frequency of rebalancing
  • Whether existing income will be affected
  • Liquidity
  • Timing of rebalancing
  • On going suitability of existing funds
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33
Q

Explain the subscription rules and tax treatment of any new investment that if subscribe to a new Enterprise Investment Scheme (10 marks)

A
  • Can invest up to £1,000,000
  • Or upto £2,000,000 if excess £1,000,000 is in knowledge intensive companies
  • 30% income tax relief
  • upto income tax liability
  • can carry back relief to previous year
  • re-investment relief available
  • if invests within 1 year before or 3 years after original gain
  • any gains made in EIS exempt from CGT if held for 3 years
  • qualify for business relief
  • if held for 2 years
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34
Q

Explain briefly why the MWR is not considered appropriate when evaluating and comparing different portfolio returns and suggest a more suitable alternative
return measure (4 marks)

A
  • strongly influenced by cash flows
  • outside control of manager
  • doesn’t identify whether returns are due to managers ability
  • TWR is a better measure
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35
Q

Explain briefly to John the difference between positive screening and negative
screening with respect to socially responsible investing (2 marks)

A
  • Positive screening invests in companies that meet laid down criteria.
  • Negative screening avoids companies that fail to meet criteria
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36
Q

Explain four potential drawbacks of using Socially Responsible Investing
other than investment performance.

A
  • Less diversification due to avoiding certain areas
  • more expensive
  • less research available
  • higher risk
  • approach differs
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37
Q

State the information you would have to provide when requesting an
Additional Permitted Subscription (6 marks)

A
  • Deceased NI number
  • date of birth
  • and date of death
  • proof of marriage
  • full name
  • address
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38
Q

State the qualifying investments that may be held within an Innovative Finance
ISA. (3 marks)

A
  • Peer to peer lending
  • Cash
  • Bonds and debentures
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39
Q

Explain the main features of preference shares compared to ordinary
shares. (3 marks)

A
  • Fixed dividend
  • Higher priority in wind up
  • Non-voting
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40
Q

Explain six relative differences between standard deviation and Beta in terms of
how they measure risk. (6 marks)

A

Measure
• Beta measures market risk;
• standard deviation measures fund risk

How they measure
• Beta measures volatility;
• standard deviation measures total risk

Benchmark
• Beta is relative to market;
• standard deviation based on actual return

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41
Q

Explain the potential impact of rising interest rates upon fixed interest and
equities asset classes (4 marks)

A

Fixed interest:
- yields rise
- capital values fall to remain competitive

Equities:
- debt costs rise
- profits fall, share price falls

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42
Q

Explain two reasons why a Fund may increase its exposure to its
equities and commodities asset classes in response to rising inflation. (4 marks)

A
  • equities will have higher profits
  • higher share price
  • commodities demand increases
  • resulting in higher prices
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43
Q

State three reasons why the price of index-linked fixed interest securities may fall even if inflation is rising and expected to continue to rise. (3 marks)

A
  • Interest rates rising faster than inflation
  • increased issuance to fund budget deficit
  • inflation expectations are falling
  • CPI difference
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44
Q

Describe briefly what is meant by current account and capital account. (6 marks)

A

Current account:
- imports minus
- exports
- in goods and services
- plus receipt from overseas income generating assets

Capital account:
- movement of all monies/assets
- into country
- out of country

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45
Q

Outline four potential economic consequences of the current account and capital account being in deficit over the medium to long-term. (4 marks)

A
  • Rising interest rates
  • Economic growth falls
  • Currency devaluation
  • Capital flight out of the UK
  • Unemployment rises
  • Inflation increases
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46
Q
A
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47
Q
A
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48
Q

State three benefits and three drawbacks, of using a stocks and shares ISA as a
long-term investment vehicle for retirement, compared to a
personal pension.(6 marks)

A

Benefits:
- accessible at any age
- tax-free withdrawals
- not limited to earnings

Drawbacks:
- no tax relief
- lower investment limit
- cannot write under trust
- funds not earmarked for retirement

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49
Q

Explain the diversification rules for a retail Undertakings for the Collective
Investment of Transferable Securities (UCITS) OEIC, based upon the minimum
number of permissible holdings and their respective percentages. (5 marks)

A

• Minimum 16 holdings in total
• Maximum 10%;
• in up to four companies.
• Maximum 5%;
• for rest/other companies.

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50
Q

State the maximum exposure a retail UCITS OEIC may hold in unlisted securities. (2 marks)

A
  • 10%
  • of total assets / fund
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51
Q

Explain the term capacity for loss (4 marks)

A
  • The ability to
  • absorb
  • any negative investment event
  • without it having a material effect
  • on standard of living
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52
Q

List the non-financial factors that can influence an investor’s attitude to risk. (6 marks)

A
  • previous experiences
  • time horizon
  • client objectives
  • investor psychology
  • framing
  • economic environment
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53
Q

Explain why ATR may be higher for a pension than ISA (5 marks)

A
  • longer term investments
  • impact of short term volatility
  • not accessible till age 57
  • effect of tax relief
  • capacity for loss considerations different
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54
Q

Describe the key principles of Modern Portfolio Theory, in respect of the construction of an investment portfolio. (10 marks)

A
  • a diversified portfolio
  • of non correlated assets
  • investors risk adverse
  • maximum return
  • for given level of risk
  • efficient frontier
  • uses expected return of each asset
  • standard deviation
  • to produce optimal portfolio
  • systematic risk cannot be removed
  • non-systematic risk can be
  • sensitivity to the market is expressed by beta as market risk
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55
Q

Why might consider using DFM as well as passive funds (5 marks)

A
  • active management
  • wider range of funds
  • time markets
  • bespoke
  • influence asset allocation
  • tax planning service
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56
Q

State the potential risks of using a DFM service (6 marks)

A
  • might use unsuitable assets
  • duplication with non dfm portfolio
  • dfm acts outside of mandate
  • regulatory issues
  • overtrading / higher costs
  • tax liabilities
  • underperformance
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57
Q

State two reasons why may be putting off the decision to invest, identifying one
justification for each reason, from a behavioural finance perspective. (4 marks)

A
  • Loss aversion, fear of losing money
  • Overconfidence, timing the market
  • Mental accounting, not looking at overall position
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58
Q

State five main risks to which may be specifically exposed to if invests in
high yielding alternative income products. (5 marks)

A

• Liquidity risk.
• Accessibility risk.
• Interest rate/gearing risk.
• Valuation risk.
• Diversification/correlation risk.
• Default/credit risk.

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59
Q

State the four main types of preference share and identify the key characteristic for each type. (8 marks)

A

Cumulative:
- has right to any unpaid dividend

Participating:
- additional dividend linked to company profits

Redeemable:
- Redeemable by company

Convertible:
- can be converted to ordinary shares on pre-set terms

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60
Q

Identify four important considerations that could impact on achieving income
objective in retirement. (4 marks)

A

• Changes in health/life expectancy.
• Changes in taxation.
• Changes in inflation.
• Market volatility/returns.
• Sustainability of income.
• Other savings.

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61
Q

State five benefits and five drawbacks to Efekan of transferring his existing assets to a platform, compared with holding them directly. (10 marks)

A

Benefits
• Everything in one place/consolidated valuations/reporting.
• Less admin
• Income flexibility.
• Pre-funding/cash account.
• Access to tools.
• lower fund charges.

Drawbacks
• May pay exit charges.
• Additional platform charges/pay for services not used.
• Unnecessary functionality/too complex solution.
• May have to sell assets.
• Time out of market.
• Risk of platform failure/outage.
• Unable to hold alternative income products.

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62
Q

Identify the three main categories of benchmark used by fund managers. (3 marks)

A

• Constraint;
• target;
• comparator.

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63
Q

Describe the key differences between M0 and M4 as measures of money supply. (4 marks)

A

• M4 includes deposits created by lending/all bank accounts.
• M0 includes operational deposits at the Bank of England.
• M4 is broad money.
• M0 is narrow money.
• M4 is indicator of economy.
• M0 is indicator of consumer spending/retail sales.

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64
Q

Explain briefly how the Bank of England could reduce the money supply and
state the effect on interest rates. (4 marks)

A

• Selling securities;
• reduces velocity of money
• reduces purchasing power
• Interest rate rise.

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65
Q

State two reasons why the money supply is not suitable as a benchmark for
an investment portfolio. (2 marks)

A
  • not a measure of return
  • economic not financial, stock market and GDP are different
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66
Q

Describe the general limitations of using investment ratios, such as P/E or ROE/ROCE, when analysing a company’s financial performance (5 marks)

A
  • different accounting policies
  • credibility of source of information
  • distorted by one off events
  • data is historical
  • affected by macro trends
  • can’t be considered in isolation
  • can’t compare across sectors
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67
Q

Identify eight main factors, excluding ‘market movement’ that could affect share price. (8 marks)

A
  • economic outlook
  • regulation changes
  • investor sentiment
  • takeover activity
  • profit / earnings expectation
  • capital event
  • dividend expectation
  • change of managers
  • competitors
  • removal from index
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68
Q

Explain briefly how could use a Seed Enterprise Investment Scheme (SEIS)
to mitigate her Capital Gains Tax liability. (4 marks)

A
  • Any gains on SEIS exempt if held for 3 years
  • reinvestment relief applies, 50% gain exempt other 50% chargeable
  • loss relief available
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69
Q

Explain briefly the initial Income Tax treatment of a new SEIS investment. (4 marks)

A
  • 50% relief
  • upto £200,000
  • must be held for three years
  • relief up to tax liability
  • can go back one tax year
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70
Q

Describe what is meant by a momentum investment style. (4 marks)

A

Momentum
• Identify trend.
• Trend accelerating/continuing.
• Sell before trend ends.
• Ignores intrinsic value/fundamentals.
• Generally, short term.

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71
Q

Describe what is meant by a contrarian investment style (4 marks)

A

Contrarian
• Consensus usually wrong.
• Returns from going against the herd/ market sentiment.
• Positive when outlook negative/out of favour.
• Price less than intrinsic value/undervalued.
• Generally, long term.

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72
Q

Explain three main differences between the Sharpe ratio and the Information
ratio. (6 marks)

A
  • IR uses benchmark
  • Sharpe uses risk free rate of return
  • IR can be used to compare funds
  • Sharpe is absolute
  • IR measures consistency over time
  • Sharpe doesn’t
  • IR uses tracking error
  • Sharpe uses standard deviation
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73
Q

State four drawbacks of using the Sharpe ratio in investment planning. (4 marks)

A
  • Need to consider other factors
  • Can be distorted by fund
  • Reliant upon standard deviation
  • Can be distorted by costs / volatility
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74
Q

State the main rules that a fund must adhere to in order to qualify as a REIT. (8 marks)

A
  • UK resident
  • Closed ended
  • At least 75% of profits
  • At least 75% of assets
  • relate to ring fenced business
  • interest / borrowing coverage
  • at least 125%
  • at least 90% of profits must be paid out within 12 months
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75
Q

From a behavioural finance perspective:
State three main biases that may have influenced their investment decision and
provide one justification for each bias. (6 marks)

A
  • Hindsight - may have done well in past
  • Mental accounting - money for set objective
  • Overconfidence - market timing
  • Endowment effect - may already have these types of funds
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76
Q

Outline six main reasons why a financial adviser would use an investment trust
rather than an open-ended investment company (OEIC) when investing in the
same sector of the market. (6 marks)

A
  • charges could be lower
  • gearing / borrowing
  • discount to NAV
  • more flexible
  • ability to change manager
  • greater accessibility
  • wider range of investments
  • real-time pricing
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77
Q

List four open-ended fund structures that could be used to invest in UK equities.
Exclude OEICs from your answer. (4 marks)

A
  • Unit trusts
  • UCITS
  • ETFs
  • life fund / investment bond
  • Non-UCITS
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78
Q

Explain three relative differences between what is measured by alpha and beta. (6 marks)

A
  • Beta measures market risk
  • alpha measures difference between expected return and actual return
  • Beta explained by movements in market
  • alpha not explained by market movements
  • Beta measures volatility
  • Alpha measures stock picking skills
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79
Q

TWR Calculation

A
  • Period 1: V1 - C - V0 / V0 + 1
  • multiplied by
  • Period 2: V2 - V1 / V1 + 1
  • minus 1 x 100
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80
Q

Explain briefly why would use the TWR, rather than the money-weighted rate of return (MWR), when evaluating performance (3 marks)

A
  • TWR not influenced by money added
  • TWR focuses on managers skills
  • TWR shows change over entire period
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81
Q

Identify two aspects of personal taxation that would change if Irma and Christopherwere to get married and state how each could result in potential tax savings. (4 marks)

A
  • inheritance tax
  • unlimited spouse exemption / inherit nil rate band
  • capital gains tax
  • inter spouse disposal exempt
  • income tax
  • marriage allowance / transfer of 10% of personal allowance
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82
Q

Explain briefly the main drawbacks of holding a fund that invests on a single theme or thematic basis. (5 marks)

A
  • smaller investment universe
  • costs likely to be higher
  • illiquidity of underlying holdings
  • higher volatility
  • lack of diversification
  • risk of fund closure
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83
Q

Identify the due diligence factors solely relating to meeting income
needs that the adviser would consider when assessing a potential platform. (4 marks)

A
  • ability to hold existing assets
  • ability to continue paying out income without interruption
  • cash account minimum balance
  • charging structure
  • range of income yielding funds available
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84
Q

Identify the main income options available via the cash account that would enable a platform to meet income needs. (3 marks)

A
  • ability to pay natural income
  • ability to pay fixed income
  • ability to pay adhoc withdrawals
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85
Q

Describe how the investment bond could be used to generate the income and state the basic tax treatment of this figure. (5 marks)

A
  • Take tax deferred withdrawals
  • of up to 5% of initial investment
  • tax deferred so no immediate income tax liability
  • up to 20 years, at which point any withdrawals taken are added into any chargeable gain calculation
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86
Q

Briefly describe sequencing risk. (6 marks)

A
  • effect of volatility
  • on the order and timing of withdrawals
  • and sustainability of income
  • and impact on capital value
  • greater effect in early years
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87
Q

State five actions that could be taken to mitigate the effects of sequencing risk (5 marks)

A
  • Reduce / stop income
  • Change the frequency
  • Take only natural income
  • Extend time horizon
  • Secure proportion of income e.g annuity
  • Diversification
  • Hold at least 6 months in cash
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88
Q

Identify the main differences between an interim and a final dividend. (6 marks)

A
  • Interim declared during financial year
  • Final declared at AGM
  • Interim declared by board
  • Final declared by shareholders
  • Interim can be revoked
  • Final cannot be revoked
  • Interim only if articles expressly permit
  • Final not subject to articles
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89
Q

Describe briefly what it meant by the term ‘correlation’ in relation to investment planning. (3 marks)

A
  • covariance between
  • two assets
  • adjusted for the risk
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90
Q

Identify the four components of an economy’s current account. (4 marks)

A
  • Goods
  • Services
  • Investment income
  • Transfer payments
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91
Q

State the main forms of ethical investment.

Exclude negative screening from your answer. (3 marks)

A
  • Positive
  • Sharia finance
  • ESG
  • Impact
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92
Q

Identify which other non-equity asset classes could be used for new money,
to diversify the existing portfolio while maintaining an overall ethical approach. (4 marks)

A
  • Green bonds
  • Renewable energy
  • Social impact
  • Social housing
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93
Q

Explain three reasons why an equity-based ethical investment strategy could
out-perform an equity-based non-ethical investment strategy. (3 marks)

A
  • Small cap focus shown to outperform
  • Greater concentration
  • Invest at start of trend
  • Government subsidies
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94
Q

State four fund-specific factors that an adviser would consider when researching
ethical funds for potential inclusion in the portfolio. (4 marks)

A
  • Ethical criteria
  • Appropriateness of benchmark
  • Managers skill
  • Ethical stance of management group itself
  • Is it aligned with clients ethical views?
95
Q

Identify three implications to a company of paying out an uncovered dividend. (3 marks)

A
  • may have to cut / reduce dividend
  • unless one off bad year
  • use reserves
  • may raise capital
96
Q

Identify one ratio that would appeal to a growth-orientated fund manager and one
ratio that would appeal to a value-orientated fund manager and state two reasons for each selection.(6 marks)

A

Growth:
- P/E ratio
- High P/E suggests profits expected to rise quickly
- share price increase

Value:
- Dividend yield, Dividend cover of low P/E
- High dividend gives high income, high cover gives income consistency, low P/E could show share is undervalued
- Share price supported by income available

97
Q

Gregor believes that the economy is moving into the latter stages of the business cycle.

(i) State two reasons why this view would likely have a positive impact on share price in the short to medium term. (2 marks)

A
  • low P/E stocks become more attractive
  • dividend yield increases
98
Q

Gregor believes that the economy is moving into the latter stages of the business cycle

State two reasons why this view would likely have a negative impact on share price in the short to medium term. (2 marks)

A
  • High P/E stocks become less attractive
  • Equity risk premium reduces
  • future profits less certain
99
Q

Explain to the client the main differences between ROE and ROCE. (5 marks)

A
  • ROCE considers all assets used in the business
  • including debt / borrowing
  • ROCE uses profit before interest and tax
  • ROCE Useful to compare individual companies and their efficiency
  • ROE is based on profit after interest and tax
  • ROE is based on equity investment only
100
Q

Explain why UK Government Treasury bills are a suitable measure of risk-free
return to use in the CAPM equation. (4 marks)

A
  • minimal no default risk
  • short duration
  • minimal inflation and
  • interest rate sensitivity
101
Q

State seven main assumptions upon which the CAPM equation is based. (7 marks)

A
  • Investors are rational and risk averse
  • identical holding period
  • no individual can affect market price
  • ignores charges
  • market is liquid
  • information fully available
  • risk free rate suitable to use
  • investors can lend unlimited amounts
  • beta is correct measure
102
Q

Describe briefly Macaulay duration. (5 marks)

A
  • Weighted
  • average term
  • in years
  • for initial investment to be repaid
  • taking into account coupon payments
  • and redemption payment
103
Q

Explain briefly what is meant by modified duration (4 marks)

A
  • measures sensitivity of a bonds price
  • to interest rates
104
Q

State one reason why a fixed interest fund manager would use Macaulay duration and one reason why a fixed interest fund manager would use modified duration within a bond fund. (2 marks)

A

Macauley: matching liability / portfolio immunisation

Modified: Reduce interest rate risk

105
Q

State the technical definition of a recession in the UK economy (5 marks)

A
  • Two
  • Consecutive
  • Quarters of
  • negative
  • GDP growth
106
Q

Describe briefly the four main factors that cause UK interest rates to reduce.
You should exclude recession/economic activity from your answer. (4 marks)

A
  • Quantitative easing
  • Reduction in gilt issuance
  • Monetary policy loosening
  • Reduction in inflation expectations
  • Credit crisis / demand for sterling
107
Q

State four changes that could be made within the client’s fixed interest portfolio
in the event of an anticipated recession. (4 marks)

A
  • Increase duration
  • Decrease high yield
  • Increase investment grade
  • Use derivatives
108
Q

State the main product features of NS&I Income Bonds. (6 marks)

A
  • Minimum £500
  • Maximum £1,000,000
  • Instant access
  • Backed by government
  • Taxable but paid gross
  • Income must be paid out cannot be accumulated
  • Variable rate of interest
109
Q

List three benefits of investing in NS&I income bonds

A
  • Provides diversification
  • Protection in excess of £85,000
  • No market risk
110
Q

Identify two limitations on the use of NS&I Premium Bonds within the client’s
portfolio. (2 marks)

A
  • Maximum deposit £50,000
  • Interest rate notional, might not win anything
111
Q

How to calculate standard deviation

A
  • Step 1, calculate the mean of the numbers. So add these numbers together and divide by the number of numbers.
  • Step 2, take each return and minus off the mean calculation
  • Take these numbers and calculate to the power of the amount of numbers
  • Add these results together
  • Divide by the number of numbers
  • Calculate square root
112
Q

Describe briefly what standard deviation measures. (4 marks)

A
  • volatility
  • through variation in
  • actual return
  • against mean return
113
Q

State the percentage of returns that fall within one and two standard deviations,
based upon the normal distribution of returns of a bell curve. (2 marks)

A
  • 1 standard deviation 65%-70%
  • 2 standard deviations 94% - 98%
114
Q

Describe the semi-strong form of efficient market hypothesis (EMH). (7 marks)

A
  • prices reflect
  • all
  • public information
  • rapidly and
  • unbiased
  • cannot outperform market
  • includes past prices and
  • company information
115
Q

State how the semi-strong form of EMH considers technical analysis and
fundamental analysis. (2 marks)

A
  • Both fundamental and technical analysis is ineffective
  • Neither adds outperformance
116
Q

Identify five factors that should be taken into consideration if it is agreed at the meeting to rebalance the portfolio. (5 marks)

A
  • costs
  • potential tax liability
  • interruptions to income
  • ATR / CFL
  • suitability of asset allocation
  • change of benchmark
  • time out of the market
117
Q

List seven additional pieces of information relating to Fenna’s financial situation that a financial adviser would consider when determining her objectives and needs (7 marks)

A
  • marital status
  • state of health
  • other assets
  • liabilities
  • emergency fund
  • ethically / SRI
  • capacity for loss
118
Q

Explain the tax treatment of any investment that Fenna might make into a new VCT (8 marks)

A
  • can invest up to £200,000
  • 30% income tax relief
  • up to tax liability
  • if held for 5 years
  • any gains within VCT exempt
  • with no minimum period
  • no loss relief / deferral relief
  • dividends tax free
119
Q

Explain the tax treatment of any investment that Fenna might make into a new VCT. (2 marks)

A
  • all capital is at risk, no FSCS protection
  • may not receive full income tax relief
120
Q

Identify four additional risks to which Fenna would be exposed if she invested
into a VCT in comparison to her AIM shareholding. (4 marks)

A
  • accessibility
  • liquidity
  • manager could breach qualifying rules
  • manage risk
  • may not be invested for a while
121
Q

Compare the main differences in the tax treatment of the gains and withdrawals from onshore and offshore investment bonds (10 marks)

A

Onshore:
- corporation tax paid within fund
- on capital gains made / investment income
- deemed UK basic rate tax paid
- chargeable gains subject then to no further tax for BR, 20% for HR and 25% for AR
- taxed as top part of income

Offshore:
- withholding tax
- not subject to uk tax internally / gross roll up
- subject to 20% on gains for BR, 40% for HR and 45% for AR
- taxed as savings income

122
Q

State whether strategic or tactical asset allocation would be more suitable for Fenna given her objectives and give two reasons for your choice. (3 marks)

A
  • Strategic
  • Investing for long term
  • Objectives known at outset
123
Q

Identify the main benefits of owning a gilt-based collective fund in comparison to a single gilt on a direct basis. (4 marks)

A
  • active management
  • diversification
  • across yield curves / maturities
  • can invest in new gilts
  • access to market participants
124
Q

Identify the main drawbacks of owning a gilt-based collective fund in comparison
to a single gilt on a direct basis. (4 marks)

A
  • Exposed to duration risk
  • loss of known redemption date
  • investor protection limited upto £85,000
  • subject to CGT on disposal
  • daily dealing
  • fund charges
125
Q

State the three types of credit risk that apply to owning direct gilts. (3 marks)

A
  • Default
  • Downgrade
  • Credit Spread
126
Q

State the two options available to the client other than taking up the rights issue in full (2 marks)

A
  • Do nothing
  • Sell the rights
127
Q

List four main smart beta strategies that may be suitable based upon the client’s
objectives. (4 marks)

A
  • Weighting
  • Earnings growth
  • Dividend Cover
  • Style
128
Q

State four limitations of using alpha to measure a funds performance (4 marks)

A
  • Doesn’t explain reason for outperformance
  • Assumes CAPM is suitable
  • Assumes beta is correct measure of risk
  • Ignores costs / charges
  • only suitable when comparing similar funds
129
Q

Identify and explain briefly four main types of investment risk that would be
relevant to Clara’s investment in the OEIC fund. Exclude market
risk from your answer. (8 marks)

A
  • Volatility
  • Greater degree of movement
  • Manager
  • Stock picking risk
  • Shortfall
  • Returns less than needed
  • Style risk
  • Could be out of favour
  • Non-systematic
  • Corporate event
130
Q

Identify and explain briefly four additional main types of investment risk that
would be relevant to Clara investing in investment trust . (8 marks)

A
  • Liquidity
  • unable to sell / achieve fair price
  • pricing
  • trades at discount / premium to NAV
  • Currency
  • returns affected by currency movement
  • Gearing/interest rate risk
  • equity returns affected by borrowing
  • sector risk
  • early stage potentially / speculative
131
Q

State the maximum amount that Lucy could each contribute to a
Lifetime ISA in its first year and any Government bonus that may be payable. (3 marks)

A
  • £4,000
  • Government bonus of £1,000
132
Q

Explain the main contribution and withdrawal rules for a Lifetime ISA. (8 marks)

A
  • Part of overall ISA allowance
  • £4,000 contribution per year
  • must be 18 or over
  • must make first contribution under 40
  • must cease contributing at 50
  • must be held for 12 months
  • 25% withdrawal charge unless buying first home
  • £450,000 or less
  • aged 60 or over
  • terminally ill
  • bonus not paid if using H2B ISA
133
Q

Outline the options available to Lucy in respect of her existing Help to Buy ISA. (4 marks)

A
  • Increase contributions up to £200 pm
  • Stop / decrease contributions
  • withdraw / close
  • transfer to a LISA
  • transfer to different provider
134
Q

State the information that an ISA administrator would require in order to process an additional permitted subscription (APS) request by a surviving civil partner. (6 marks)

A
  • deceased name
  • deceased proof of residency
  • NI number
  • date of death
  • date of birth
  • date of partnership
135
Q

Describe the main differences in the structure of an OEIC and an Investment Trust. (8 marks)

A

OEIC:
- unlimited shares
- redeems shares linked to NAV
- may be standalone or sub fund of ICVC
- must appoint an ACD
- assets held by depositary
- can borrow on a temporary basis upto 10%

Investment trust:
- fixed number of shares
- shares bought / sold independent of NAV
- listed company
- has board of directors
- can borrow on permanent basis
- may have fixed life

136
Q

Describe the main differences in the pricing of an OEIC and an Investment Trust. (8 marks)

A

OEIC:
- daily pricing
- based upon NAV
- single pricing
- may apply dilution levy

Investment Trust:
- real time pricing
- determined by supply and demand
- dual pricing / bidoffer spread
- can trade at discount / premium

137
Q

Identify three advantages and three disadvantages of using a GIA for retirement planning, compared to a workplace pension (6 marks)

A

Advantages:
- accessible at any time
- can use CGT allowance, CGT rates lower than income tax rates
- no limit on contributions

Disadvantages:
- No income tax relief
- No employer contribution
- taxation within GIA

138
Q

Identify six main benefits to Anshul of consolidating his existing collective funds onto a platform (6 marks)

A
  • all info in one place
  • multiple tax-sheltered products
  • easier admin
  • income flexibility
  • access to tools
  • transaction history
  • lower fund charges
139
Q

State the time limits within which CGT deferral relief would be available to Anshul on a new investment into an EIS. (3 marks)

A
  • up to 1 year before
  • up to 3 years after
  • disposal
140
Q

Explain briefly the CGT rules of any new investment into an EIS, if the investment
were made with the proceeds from the sale of the shares. (8 marks)

A
  • existing gain
  • deferred until disposal
  • without limits
  • can be deferred again
  • any new gains within EIS
  • exempt from CGT
  • after 3 years
  • if income tax relief obtained
  • loss relief available
  • offset against income or gains
141
Q

Identify two factors that are relevant to Anshul, from a behavioural finance perspective and give one reason for each of these two factors. (4 marks)

A

Anchoring:
- holding on to round numbers

Endowment effect:
- valuing something more back he has it

Mental accounting:
- compartmentalising capital

142
Q

Describe briefly the objective of Stochastic modelling. (5 marks)

A
  • Estimate of
  • Probabilistic
  • range of returns
  • and volatility
  • under different scenarios
143
Q

State the three main inputs required to generate an optimal portfolio via a
Stochastic modelling tool. (3 marks)

A
  • Returns
  • Standard deviation
  • Time period
144
Q

Identify four drawbacks of using a Stochastic modelling tool. (4 marks)

A
  • Assumptions unrealistic
  • Ignores sequencing risk
  • over confidence
  • difficult to understand
  • expected return not accurate
  • doesn’t factor in client circumstance
145
Q

Describe what is measured by ROE metric (4 marks)

A
  • ability to generate profit
  • how efficiently it uses
  • shareholders funds / capital
  • relative performance against sectors
146
Q

How to calculate quick ratio

A

assets (includes cash and trade debtors) / current liabilities

147
Q

State the two main Asset headings within the balance sheet of a company’s
accounts and list two categories of assets that would be found under each
heading. (6 marks)

A
  • Current
  • Cash
  • Stock
  • Trade receivables
  • Non current
  • Tangible
  • Intangible
  • Investments
148
Q

State the three main components of the UK’s capital account. (3 marks)

A
  • Assets
  • Loans / Borrowing
  • Foreign currency
149
Q

State the principal purpose of a capital account surplus within the UK’s balance
of payments. (3 marks)

A
  • To fund
  • a current account
  • deficit
150
Q

Explain briefly the macro-economic role of financial investment within the
economy. (4 marks)

A
  • stimulates demand
  • by increasing aggregate demand
  • increases productivity
  • and business investment
151
Q

Describe briefly what is meant by the OCF in respect of a collective fund. (4 marks)

A
  • single
  • percentage figure
  • that shows the
  • annual cost of
  • investing in a fund
152
Q

Identify six main risks of investing in a global emerging markets equities fund and provide one reason for each risk. (12 marks)

A
  • Currency:
  • adverse exchange rate movement
  • Economic:
  • Different stage of business cycle

Concentration:
- Index composition

Political:
- political instability

Liquidity:
- may not be able to access quickly

Regulatory:
- lower accounting standards / less governance

Manager:
- may not have local knowledge

153
Q

State the options that are available to Johanna at the forthcoming maturity of the issue of Index-Linked Savings Certificates. (3 marks)

A
  • Renew at new term for same length
  • Renew at new term for different length
  • Cash it in
154
Q

Explain briefly to Johanna how the total maturity value of the Index-Linked Savings Certificates is calculated. (4 marks)

A
  • The original value
  • Plus interest
  • Plus inflation
  • using CPI
155
Q

Identify four main benefits of investing in NS&I products. (4 marks)

A
  • no market risk
  • highly liquid
  • government backed
  • above FSCS limit
  • no charges
156
Q

Outline the tax treatment of Johanna’s holding of NS&I Green Savings Bonds. (3 marks)

A
  • all interest taxable in year of maturity
  • taxed as savings income
  • PSA can be used if applicable
157
Q

Describe the main characteristics of a value-based investment style (7 marks)

A
  • bottom up
  • uses fundamental analysis to find
  • undervalued stocks
  • Low P/E
  • or high dividend yield
  • potential for re-rating
  • often contrarian
  • long term view
158
Q

TWR Calculation

A

Period 1:
V1/V0

x by

Period 2:
V2 / V1 + C

  • 1 x 100
159
Q

Explain briefly why Mathieu and Johanna would use the TWR rather than the money weighted return (MWR) when evaluating the performance of the fund. (3 marks)

A
  • better for comparison
  • not influenced by cash flows
  • as these are outside of managers control
  • focuses on managers performance
  • compounds multiple sub periods
160
Q

Describe briefly the main functions of the authorised corporate director (ACD) in
respect of the structure and operation of an OEIC. (4 marks)

A
  • compliance and regulatory reporting
  • responsible for pricing
  • oversees manager
  • buys / sells shares
  • maintains shareholder register
  • maintains liquidity
  • prepares accounts
161
Q

Describe briefly the main functions of the depositary in respect of the structure and
operation of an OEIC. (4 marks)

A
  • act as custodian
  • safeguard assets
  • pay income distributions
  • monitor ACD
  • on investment / borrowing limits
  • deals with fund wind up
162
Q

Explain briefly the tax treatment of dividends paid from a VCT and from a SEIS. (3 marks)

A
  • VCT tax free
  • SEIS dividends taxable at marginal rate, can use DA
163
Q

Explain briefly reinvestment relief in respect of investment into a new SEIS.
(3 marks).

A
  • 50% of gain exempt
  • up to maximum £200,000
  • must qualify for income tax relief available
164
Q

Explain briefly disposal relief in respect of investment into a new SEIS. (3 marks)

A
  • gain exempt
  • if shares held for 3 years
  • must have qualified for income tax relief
  • applies to loss or gain
165
Q

Outline the main benefits to Syed offered by segmentation of the onshore
investment bond. (5 marks)

A
  • can encash whole segments
  • may keep as BRT
  • defers chargeable events for longer
  • considers investment performance
  • can reduce chargeable gains
  • can assign segments
166
Q

Describe the regular withdrawal facility of the onshore investment bond
including the tax treatment based upon Syed’s Income Tax position. (6 marks)

A
  • up to 5% per annum
  • of original investment
  • cumulative
  • deemed as return of capital
  • tax-deferred
  • to 20 years
  • corporation tax paid internally
  • 20% BRT deemed paid
167
Q

Describe briefly the basic principle and objective of top-slicing relief. (4 marks)

A
  • Divides excess gain
  • By number of policy years
  • in order to give average yearly gain
  • in order to reduce / mitigate
  • higher rate tax liability
168
Q

Identify the main differences between an unfettered fund of funds and a manager of managers fund (4 marks)

A
  • FOF is multiple funds, MOM is single fund
  • FOF has additional charges, MOM does not
  • FOF has to sell fund, MOM switches only manager
  • FOF has no control over mandate, MOM has more control
  • FOF less transparent, MOM is more transparent
  • FOF affected by capacity
169
Q

State the main component parts of the UK’s current account. (4 marks)

A
  • Goods
  • Services
  • Investment Income
  • Transfer payments
170
Q

State the main component parts of the UK’s capital account. (3 marks)

A
  • foreign assets
  • foreign loans / borrowing
  • foreign currency
171
Q

Describe briefly three ways in which a current account deficit could be
balanced out. (3 marks)

A
  • met by capital account surplus
  • foreign investments
  • sale of foreign currency
  • central bank intervention
172
Q

Explain limitations of relying on dividend cover and dividend yield (6 marks)

A
  • Dividend info historical
  • Dividend cover could be low
  • Dividend can change
  • Can be distorted by one off factors
  • Will be affected by share buybacks
  • ignores capital value
173
Q

Identify 8 factors that could affect share price (8 marks)

A
  • Economic Outlook
  • Changes in legislation
  • Change in sector sentiment
  • Corporate event
  • Investor sentiment
  • Takeover speculation
  • Change in management
  • Accounting issues
  • Inclusion / removal from index
174
Q

State two factors why a client may be displaying anchoring (2 marks)

A
  • Anchoring - could be focused on dividend figures / round numbers
  • Mental accounting - compartmentalising, focusing on one thing at expense of another
175
Q

State three advantages to Reg of owning a direct equity compared to his collective
funds. (3 marks)

A
  • Greater potential growth
  • No ongoing costs
  • Greater control
  • Direct link between share price and return
176
Q

Explain the main objectives of the rebalancing process for an investment portfolio where the client has an income need. (6 marks)

A
  • Realign portfolio to original
  • asset allocation
  • to match ATR / CFL
  • correct portfolio style
  • take profits
  • top up underperforming funds
  • maintain / increase cash
  • ensure income can be maintained
  • utilise tax allowances
177
Q

Explain briefly the aim of Modern Portfolio Theory (MPT) and how it is achieved. (5 marks)

A

• Maximum return;
• for given risk;
• via diversification;
• of imperfectly correlated;
• asset classes.

178
Q

State the key assumptions upon which MPT is based. (5 marks)

A

• Investors are rational;
• and risk adverse.
• Returns are normally distributed.
• Based on historical data.
• Investors have access to all information.
• Market is efficient/no one investor can influence market.
• Unlimited borrowing at risk-free rate.
• No costs/tax.

179
Q

Explain briefly to Mitchell four main benefits of diversification within an investment portfolio. (4 marks)

A
  • Reduce systematic risk
  • Can remove non-systematic risk
  • Gain exposure to different asset classes
  • Increase stability of returns
180
Q

Describe briefly what is measured by standard deviation. (4 marks)

A
  • volatility through
  • variation in
  • actual return
  • against mean
181
Q

Identify six main risks relating to Mitchell’s existing investments and give one reason for each risk. (12 marks)

A

-Geographical

  • Concentration risk - lack of diversification
  • Sector - could be in same sector
  • Economic risk - exposed to economic cycle
  • Accessibility - where capital is in private companies
  • Liquidity - no market for private shares
  • Investor protection - no FSCS protection
182
Q

Outline the main differences between the Consumer Prices Index (CPI) and Retail
Prices Index (RPI) measures of UK inflation. (5 marks)

A

CPI
• Key inflation measure/BoE target.
• National statistic.
• Geometric/lower than RPI.
• Used by government in payment of state pension/benefits.
• Excludes housing costs/mortgage interest payments.

RPI
• Used for index-linked gilts/planned to be replaced by 2030.
• Not a national statistic.
• Arithmetic/higher than CPI.
• Includes housing costs/mortgage interest payments.

183
Q

Describe briefly the main differences between broad and narrow money. (4 marks)

A

• Broad includes;
• lending activities;
• and accounts;
• of UK residents.

Narrow includes;
operational deposits with the BoE.

  • Broad indicator of economy.
    • Narrow indicator of consumer confidence.
184
Q

Identify the likely economic consequences of a sustained increase in the UK money
supply. (3 marks)

A

• Greater velocity/transmission of money.
• Increased borrowing/spending/
• Increase in prices
• Tightening monetary policy

185
Q

State three drawbacks that Mitchell should consider when using ROE as a measure of a company’s performance. (3 marks)

A
  • Only shows return on shareholder equity
  • ignores borrowing
  • difficult to compare with different companies
186
Q

State five non-financial factors that could influence Mitchell’s attitude to risk. (5 marks)

A
  • Expertise
  • Age
  • Investor psychology
  • Economic outlook
  • Society / media
187
Q

State four ways in which capacity for loss can be mitigated. (4 marks)

A
  • Invest only what can afford to lose
  • Reduce ATR
  • Hold sufficient cash
  • Discussion and understanding
  • avoid over reliance on tools
  • establish risk able to take
188
Q

what is over confidence and herding (4 marks)

A

• Overconfidence
• Overestimates own abilities/knowledge.
• Using economic data as own research/to support his view.

• Herding
• Following friend’s advice.
• Fear of missing out.

189
Q

State four ways in which an Enterprise Investment Scheme (EIS) could provide Mitchell with greater tax planning opportunities compared to his stocks and shares ISA. (4 marks)

A
  • Higher investment limit
  • Can carry back tax relief
  • 30% income tax relief
  • CGT deferral available
  • IHT business relief available
  • loss relief available
190
Q

Describe briefly the objective of gearing within an investment trust. (3 marks)

A
  • To increase available funds
  • without using cash / going to shareholders
  • to increase exposure to other assets
  • to increase returns
191
Q

Explain briefly the possible consequences that could result from an investment
trust increasing its level of gearing. (4 marks)

A
  • higher volatility
  • gains and losses magnified
  • increased sensitivity to interest rates
  • increased borrowing costs
  • forced seller if borrowing limits exceeded
  • change in investor sentiment
192
Q

Describe briefly what is meant by an investment trust trading at a discount. (3 marks)

A
  • Share price
  • below
  • NAV
193
Q

Identify five possible reasons for the current level of discount at which Strategic Long View plc is trading. (5 marks)

A
  • holds unlisted securities
  • sector out of favour
  • manager out of favour
  • poor recent performance
  • ejections from index
  • level of gearing
194
Q

Identify the three main income options that could be available on the platform’s cash account to support Patrick in meeting his income need. (3 marks)

A

• Ability to pay just dividends/ natural income.
• Ability to pay fixed/regular levels of income.
• Ability to pay ad-hoc/one-off withdrawals.

195
Q

Explain briefly to Patrick how tactical asset allocation differs from strategic asset allocation.(4 marks)

A
  • strategic long term, tactical short term
  • strategic has fixed allocation, tactical varied allocations
  • strategic reviewed less frequently
  • strategic trades less frequently
  • tactical aims to take advantage of market movement
196
Q

Describe five actions that Patrick could take to mitigate the effects of sequencing
risk. (5 marks)

A
  • Work longer/defer retirement date.
  • Reduce level of income.
  • Take natural income only.
  • Change the frequency of income.
  • Purchase annuity/secure proportion of - income.
  • Reduce equities/holding in Strategic Long View.
  • Buy higher yield assets/fixed interest/diversify asset allocation.
  • Hold sufficient cash.
197
Q

State three main benefits of owning a gilt-based collective fund compared to
owning Gilts X and Y on a direct basis. (3 marks)

A

• Invest across range of maturities/durations.
• Invest across range of coupons.
• Fund manager expertise/potential for outperformance.
• Less administration/knowledge required.
• Able to access gilts at issue/not available directly.

198
Q

State three main drawbacks of owning a gilt-based collective fund compared to
owning Gilts X and Y on a direct basis. (3 marks)

A

• Higher on-going charges.
• Annual interest/redemption yield not known.
• Less/no control.
• Potential CGT liability on sale.
• Manager may underperform/not add value.
• Investor protection limited to £85,000/subject to FSCS limit.

199
Q

Identify three reasons why index-linked gilt prices would fall when inflation itself is rising. (3 marks)

A

• Interest rates increase faster than inflation

• Actual inflation exceeds expected inflation.

• Expectation of lower inflation in future

• indexation lag

• Uk downgraded

• Index linked coupons small part of overall return

• Increased supply

200
Q

Outline the effects of increases in interest rates on conventional fixed interest
securities. (4 marks)

A
  • Fixed coupon less attractive; so price/capital value falls.
  • Yield rises/new bonds issue with higher coupon.
  • Longer dated bonds see larger falls.
  • Lower coupon bonds see larger falls.
201
Q

State the main objectives of quantitative tightening (QT). (3 marks)

A
  • Reduce consumer spending
  • Reduce liquidity
  • Raise interest rates
  • Reduce inflation
202
Q

Explain briefly to Tommaso the consequences of a central bank implementing QT. (3 marks)

A
  • Increased supply of bonds causes prices to fall;
  • and yields to rise
  • Borrowing becomes more expensive
  • savings rates increase
  • inflation comes down
  • lenders unable to lend as much
203
Q

Identify four main factors that would cause the UK yield curve to steepen (4 marks)

A
  • sell off in long dated gilts
  • expectation of higher inflation
  • excessive economic growth
  • expansionary fiscal policy
  • QT
  • market shock
204
Q

Comment on the investor protection when investing in gilts and state, giving your reasons why, whether all of Tommaso’s portfolio is protected. (4 marks)

A
  • Gilt fund covered by FSCS
  • up to £85,000
  • directly held gilts backed by government
  • without limit
  • however still subject to credit risk
205
Q

Outline nine factors that Silvia would take into consideration when conducting the
annual review with Tadeusz. (9 marks)

A
  • change in needs
  • change in health
  • emergency fund
  • liabilities
  • use of tax allowances
  • changes in legislation
  • performance
  • ongoing suitability
  • ATR / CFL
  • ethical considerations
  • level of service
  • additional monies to invest
206
Q

Describe what beta represents and what it measures. (4 marks)

A

• Beta represents market risk
• a measure of sensitivity
• relative to the market.

207
Q

Explain briefly the limitations of using beta as a measure of risk. (3 marks)

A
  • Measures market risk alone
  • Assumes risk free rate is correct
  • Not stable
  • Based on historical data
208
Q

Identify the main differences between GAARP and growth investing. (3 marks)

A
  • Lower P/E ratios than growth
  • Only pay fair price
  • Not pure growth
209
Q

State the two main risk-adjusted ratios used to analyse an actively-managed fund and explain briefly what each ratio measures. (6 marks)

A

• Sharpe Ratio
• Excess return for every unit of risk/risk-free rate.
• Excess return over standard deviation.

• Information Ratio
• Excess return over benchmark/in relation to tracking error.
• Consistency of manager.

210
Q

State the main rules that a fund must adhere to in order to qualify as a real estate investment trust (REIT). (8 marks)

A

• UK resident/listed.
• Closed-ended/only one share class.
• Property rental/ring-fenced business;
at least 75%; of total gross profits;
• of total value of assets.
• Interest on borrowing covered; at least 125%;
• by rental profits.
• Distributes;
at least 90% of exempt profits;
• within 12 months of accounting period.

211
Q

State the two types of income payment that can be made by a REIT and describe
their tax treatment if received within a GIA. (8 marks)

A

• PID
• Paid net of 20%
• Could be reclaimed / might need to pay more
• PSA can be used if available.

• Dividend
• Paid gross.
• Subject to 33.75% dividend rate tax.
• DA available.

212
Q

Outline four benefits of introducing commercial property to the asset allocation of a GIA portfolio (4 marks)

A
  • Hedge against inflation
  • Increased income
  • Reduced equity market risk
  • Reduced positive correlation
213
Q

Identify four main risks when investing in physical commercial property through
open-ended collective funds and state one reason for each risk (8 marks)

A

• Liquidity
• Fund forced to sell properties/limited cash within OEIC/properties hard to sell.

• Accessibility
• Unable to access money/fund gated/dealing suspended.

• Pricing
• Swing pricing/pricing basis changes/dilution levy applied.

• Valuation
• Material uncertainty/unable to provide NAV.

• Void
• Loss of tenant/property empty.

• Income
• Loss of yield/unable to collect rent/reduction in rent.

214
Q

State four of the main assumptions used in portfolio optimisation (4 marks)

A

• Risk.
• Historical data.
• Forecasts.
• Costs.
• Implementation.

215
Q

Describe briefly the objective of Stochastic modelling. (5 marks)

A

• Forecast/predict the;
• probabilistic/potential;
• range of;
• returns/outcomes;
• using volatility/standard deviation;
• under different scenarios/simulations.

216
Q

Identify four main drawbacks of using stochastic modelling.

A

• Assumptions unrealistic
• Over-reliance/over-confidence in output.
• Output unrealistic/unattainable.
• Difficult to understand
• not client specific

217
Q

Describe what is meant by GDP and what it measures. (5 marks)

A

• Monetary value/;
• of all final goods/;
• and services;
• of an economy/;
• over a quarter/y
• measure of the size and growth
• of the economy

218
Q

Explain briefly from an investment perspective the consequences of
globalisation (4 marks)

A

• Increased interconnectivity of trade.
• Increased correlation of equity markets.
• Market risk harder to diversify
• International exposure through domestic listed companies.
• Increased volatility risk.
• Greater sensitivity to political events
• Markets increasingly efficient

219
Q

Explain briefly the tax treatment of friendly society policies within the fund and in the hands of the investor. (4 marks)

A

Within the fund
• Interest/dividends;
• capital gains
•tax-free

Hands of the investor
• Investment growth is tax-free/free

220
Q

Identify five benefits of investing in a frontier markets equities fund, compared
to holding direct UK equities. (5 marks)

A

• Reduction in systematic risk.
• Reduction/removal of non-systematic risk.
• Geographical diversification.
• Exposure to higher growth economies/potentially higher returns.
• Potential returns from currency movements.
• Professional management.
• Potential for alpha/frontier markets not efficient.
• FSCS/investor protection.
• Reduced administration/less involvement.

221
Q

State the main stages of the top-down investment process for a frontier
markets equities fund. (3 marks)

A

• Geographical allocation.
• Sector weightings.
• Individual stock/security selection.

222
Q

Explain briefly the main investment-related factors that George and Rosemary
would take into consideration when deciding whether to choose active or
passive strategies for the investment into a collective fund. (7 marks)

A

Active
• Fund style/objective/mandate.
• Manager track record/expertise.
• Alpha/IR/Sharpe/does active justify the cost?

Passive
• Replication strategy/tracking error.
• is market efficient
• counterparty risk

Either:
• costs and charges
• choice of benchmark

223
Q

State four main benefits and four main drawbacks of using a stocks and shares ISA as a long-term savings vehicle for retirement, compared to a personal pension plan. (8 marks)

A

Benefits
• Accessible at any time/before age 55/57.
• 100% tax-free lump sum.
• No need for/not linked to earnings.
No tax on any income withdrawal.

Drawbacks
• No Income Tax relief/employer contributions.
• Lower investment limit/no carry forward/AA is £60,000.
• Part of estate/can’t write under trust.
• Funds not ‘earmarked’ for retirement/can spend at any time.
• ISA limited to £85,000 FSCS.

224
Q

State three ways in which an investment trust can raise capital. (3 marks)

A
  • Rights issue
  • Placement
  • Borrowing
  • Issue bonds
225
Q

Describe briefly the concept of dilution in relation to the investment trust. (3 marks)

A

• Company issues new shares/number of shares increase.
• Existing shareholders;
• own less of company/shares worth less/NAV per share falls;
• unless buy additional/new shares.

226
Q

State the time limits for reinvestment of the proceeds into an EIS within which
CGT deferral relief would be available to Kambiz. (3 marks)

A

• Up to 3 years;
• after sale
• Upto 1 year before sale

227
Q

Outline the main differences between the tax treatment of an EIS and a VCT (5 marks)

A

• VCT no CGT deferral relief/EIS CGT deferral relief.

• VCT dividends tax free/EIS dividends taxable.

• VCT new gain exempt CGT immediately/EIS gain exempt after 3 years.

• VCT no loss relief/EIS loss relief available.

• VCT no business relief/EIS business relief available.

• VCT minimum period to retain Income Tax relief 5 years/EIS 3 years.

• VCT no carry back/EIS carry back available.

228
Q

Identify three main benefits of investing into an EIS portfolio compared to a single
company EIS. (3 marks)

A

• Non-systematic risk can be reduced.
• Can invest across multiples sectors.
• Professional manager expertise/experience.
• All research, selection and investment decisions made by manager.
• Invest across different stages of underlying companies.

229
Q

Identify three main drawbacks of investing into an EIS portfolio compared to a single company EIS. (3 marks)

A

• Investment not pooled/not technically a fund.
• Less visibility.
• Increased paperwork/administration/HMRC reporting.
• Low number of investment companies/non-systematic risk not removed.
• Additional layer of charges/discretionary management expensive.