Mock questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following statements about the CFA Institute’s Professional Conduct Program (PCP) is least accurate?

A)
Possible sanctions include condemnation by a member’s peers or suspension of a candidate’s participation in the CFA Program.

B)
If the PCP staff determine that a sanction against a member is warranted, the member must either accept the sanction or lose the right to use the CFA designation.

C)
Members who cooperate with a PCP inquiry by providing confidential client information to PCP staff are not in violation of Standard III(E) Preservation of Confidentiality.

A

B)
If the PCP staff determine that a sanction against a member is warranted, the member must either accept the sanction or lose the right to use the CFA designation.

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2
Q

Robert Miguel, CFA, is a portfolio manager. On Saturday, one of his clients invited Miguel and his wife to be his guests at his luxury suite for a major league baseball playoff game, which they did. Miguel told his supervisor on Monday that they had attended the game with the client and that the suite was luxurious. Miguel has:

A)
not violated the Standards.

B)
violated the Standards because disclosure must be in writing.

C)
violated the Standards because he must disclose the gift prior to accepting.

A

A)
not violated the Standards.

In this case, Miguel has not violated the standards. For a gift from a client in appreciation of past service or performance, informing his supervisor verbally is sufficient. Standard I(B) Independence and Objectivity requires disclosure prior to accepting the gift “when possible,” but in cases such as this when there is short notice, notification afterward is permitted.

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3
Q

At his golf club on Saturday morning, Paul Corwin, CFA, sees Frank Roberts, a friend and institutional client of his, who tells him that he is planning to sell his house on the 7th fairway. While golfing that day, Corwin tells Robert Lowe, a realtor, that Roberts is planning to sell his house and may need a realtor. He also tells Lowe that he manages an equities account for Roberts. If Corwin has not received permission from Roberts, he has violated the Standard on preservation of confidentiality:

A)
both by disclosing Roberts’ plan to sell his home and that he is a client.

B)
by disclosing Roberts’ plan to sell his home but not by mentioning that he was a client.

C)
by disclosing that Roberts is a client of his but not by mentioning Roberts’ plan to sell his home.

A

C)
by disclosing that Roberts is a client of his but not by mentioning Roberts’ plan to sell his home.

Corwin violated Standard III(E) Preservation of Confidentiality by revealing his business relationship with Roberts without permission. Because the information that Roberts’ plans to sell his home is not received as part of his professional relationship with Roberts, it is not covered by the Standard.

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4
Q

Which of the following is least likely included in the CFA Institute Code of Ethics? Members of CFA Institute must:

A)
place their clients’ interests before their employer’s interests.

B)
strive to maintain and improve the competence of others in the profession.

C)
use reasonable care and exercise independent professional judgment.

A

A)
place their clients’ interests before their employer’s interests.

The requirement that members and candidates place their clients’ interests before their employer’s or their own is in Standard III(A) Loyalty, Prudence, and Care. The other choices are included in the CFA Institute Code of Ethics.

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5
Q

Dudley Thompson is a bond salesman for a small broker/dealer in London. His firm is the lead underwriter on a new junk bond issue for Ibex Corporation, and Thompson has sent details of the offering to clients. Thompson calls only his accounts over £1,000,000 for whom he thinks the issue is suitable. Thompson also posts his firm’s optimistic projections for Ibex’s performance in several Internet chat rooms. According to the Standards concerning market manipulation and fair dealing, Thompson is in violation of:

A)
both of these Standards.

B)
neither of these Standards.

C)
only one of these Standards.

A

B)
neither of these Standards.

Thompson has not violated Standard II(B) Market Manipulation by posting his firm’s projections for Ibex. A firm’s recommendation of a security may increase its price without any intent to mislead the market. The firm has disseminated the details of the offering to its clients fairly, so Thompson may call individual clients without violating the Standard III(B) Fair Dealing.

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6
Q

Angie Franklin, CFA, who covers technology stocks, joins a conference call for analysts presented by Cynthia Lucas, chief technology officer for LevelTech. Lucas tells the analysts that overseas shipments of the company’s important new product are going to be delayed due to manufacturing defects, which is new information to the analysts. After the meeting Franklin changes her rating on LevelTech from “buy” to “hold” and sends a note to accounts recommending the sale of LevelTech. Franklin:

A)
did not violate the Standards.

B)
violated the Standard on nonpublic information by revising her rating on LevelTech.

C)
violated the Standard on fair dealing by rating the stock a “hold” but recommending sale of the shares to her accounts.

A

B)
violated the Standard on nonpublic information by revising her rating on LevelTech.

Telling a selected group of analysts new information does not constitute public disclosure, and therefore acting or causing others to act on this information is a violation of Standard II(A) Material Nonpublic Information. Recommending the sale of a stock rated as a “hold” is not a violation of Standard III(B) Fair Dealing.

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7
Q

According to the Code and Standards, members and candidates who are involved in distributing an initial public offering (IPO) of equity shares and wish to participate in the IPO:

A)
may participate unless the IPO is oversubscribed.

B)
may not participate because this creates a conflict of interest.

C)
must obtain pre-clearance from a supervisor before participating.

A

A)
may participate unless the IPO is oversubscribed

Standard VI(B) Priority of Transactions recommends, but does not require, that a member or candidate obtain pre-clearance from his or her supervisor before participating in an equity IPO. Guidance for Standard III(B) Fair Dealing states that members and candidates distributing IPO shares must distribute shares in an oversubscribed IPO to clients and may not withhold shares for themselves.

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8
Q

Shan Ang, CFA, is a portfolio manager at Huang Investments. Lian Jan, an old friend of Ang’s, is an executive recruiter in the same city. Jan proposes that she will refer any high-level executives that she places locally to Ang, in exchange for one round of golf at Ang’s country club for each new client. According to the Standard concerning referral fees, Ang would be required to disclose this referral arrangement:

A)
only to all prospective clients referred by Jan.

B)
to his employer and all prospective clients referred by Jan.

C)
to all prospective clients, current clients, and his employer.

A

B)
to his employer and all prospective clients referred by Jan.

Standard VI(C) Referral Fees states that members and candidates must disclose to employers and to affected prospects and clients, before entering into any formal agreement for services, any benefits received for the recommendation of services provided by the member.

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9
Q

Other things equal, a country is most likely to have a current account deficit if it also has:

A)
a low savings rate.

B)
a government budget surplus.

C)
a low rate of domestic investment.

A

A)
a low savings rate.

As shown by the fundamental macro relationship (X – M) = (S – I) – (G – T), a current account deficit (X < M) is associated with a low savings rate, a high rate of domestic investment, or low government savings (i.e., a budget deficit).

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10
Q

Haltata Turf & Sod currently uses the first in, first out (FIFO) method to account for inventory. Due to significant tax-loss carryforwards, the company has an effective tax rate of zero. Prices are rising and inventory quantities are stable. If the company were to use last in, first out (LIFO) instead of FIFO:

A)
net income would be lower and cash flow would be higher.

B)
cash flow would remain the same and working capital would be lower.

C)
gross margin would be higher and stockholder’s equity would be lower.

A

B)
cash flow would remain the same and working capital would be lower.

In the absence of taxes, there is no difference in cash flow between LIFO and FIFO. In addition, using LIFO would result in lower working capital (inventory is lower). Using LIFO would result in lower net income because of a lower gross margin (cost of goods sold is higher).

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11
Q

The five steps required for a company to record revenue on a long-term contract are least likely to include:

A)
identifying a customer contract.

B)
receiving proportional payments.

C)
identifying separate performance obligations in the contract.

A

B)
receiving proportional payments.

Receipt of payments is not one of the required steps described by accounting standards to recognize revenue for a long-term contract

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12
Q

The probability that an acquisition has been executed well is 48%. If it is executed well, the probability of EPS greater than $3.20 is 55%. If the acquisition has not been executed well, the probability of EPS less than or equal to $3.20 is 65%. The unconditional probability of EPS greater than $3.20 is closest to:

A)
45%.

B)
48%.

C)
55%

A

A)
45%.

The unconditional probability, Prob(EPS>$3.20), is equal to Prob(executed well) × Prob(EPS > $3.20)|executed well) + Prob(not executed well) × Prob(EPS > $3.20|not executed well) = 0.48 × 0.55 + (1 – 0.48)(1 – 0.65) = 0.446.

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13
Q

Which of the following statements about monopolists is most accurate?

A)
Monopolists have imperfect information about the demand curve for their product.

B)
Without government intervention, monopolists will always earn economic profits.

C)
A monopolist maximizes total revenue where marginal revenue equals marginal cost.

A

A)
Monopolists have imperfect information about the demand curve for their product.

Demand curves are not observable so a monopolist must search for the profit maximizing price. Because demand information is not perfect, a monopolist is a price searcher. The other statements are false. Although a monopolist can earn positive economic profits in the long run, they are not guaranteed; if average total costs exceed price, the monopolist will experience economic losses. A monopolist maximizes profit, not revenue, where marginal revenue equals marginal cost.

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14
Q

A central bank’s ability to achieve its policy goals is most likely to be limited by available resources when which of the following actual rates is below its target rate?

A)
Interest rate.

B)
Inflation rate.

C)
Exchange rate.

A

C)
Exchange rate.

With exchange rate targeting, a central bank’s ability to increase the value of the domestic currency is limited by the amount of foreign reserves the country has available to buy its own currency in the foreign exchange market. While inflation targeting and interest rate targeting have limitations (e.g., liquidity trap conditions may exist, interest rates are bounded by zero), the central bank’s resources are not typically a limitation.

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15
Q

Acme Corp. purchased a new stamping machine for $100,000, paid $10,000 for shipping, and paid $5,000 to have it installed in their plant. Based on an estimated salvage value of $25,000 and an economic life of six years, the difference between straight-line depreciation and double-declining balance depreciation in the second year of the asset’s life is closest to:

A)
$7,220.

B)
$10,556.

C)
$16,666.

A

B)
$10,556.

Straight line depreciation is (100,000 + 10,000 + 5,000 − 25,000) / 6 = 15,000 each year. Double-declining balance depreciation in the second year is: 115,000 (2/3)(1/3) = 25,556. The difference is $10,556. Remember that salvage value is not part of the declining balance calculation.

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15
Q

From the point of view of a financial analyst, when evaluating companies that use different inventory cost assumptions, in a period of:

A)
stable prices, LIFO inventory is preferred to FIFO inventory.

B)
decreasing prices, FIFO inventory is preferred to LIFO inventory.

C)
increasing prices, FIFO cost of sales is preferred to LIFO cost of sales.

A

B)
decreasing prices, FIFO inventory is preferred to LIFO inventory.

The most useful estimates of inventory and cost of sales are those that best approximate current cost. Whether prices are increasing or decreasing, FIFO provides a better estimate of inventory values, and LIFO provides a better estimate of cost of sales. If prices are stable, there is no difference between LIFO and FIFO estimates of inventory or cost of sales.

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16
Q

Incorrect production decisions are most likely to occur when the inflation rate is:

A)
lower than expected only.

B)
higher than expected only.

C)
either higher or lower than expected.

A

C)
either higher or lower than expected.

Either higher-than-expected or lower-than-expected inflation can cause producers to misinterpret unexpected changes in the price level as signals of increases or decreases in demand, and produce more or less than the equilibrium quantity of output. (

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17
Q

Which of the following statements about elasticity is least accurate?

A)
Both demand and supply are more elastic in the long run than in the short run.

B)
When demand is inelastic, an increase in price will cause a decrease in the total expenditure on a good.

C)
When the price of a product increases, consumers will reduce their consumption by a larger amount in the long run than in the short run.

A

B)
When demand is inelastic, an increase in price will cause a decrease in the total expenditure on a good.

If demand is inelastic, the percentage change in quantity demanded is smaller than the percentage change in price; quantity demanded is relatively unresponsive to price changes. A price increase increases total expenditures on a good

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18
Q

For 20X1, Belcher Motors reported a decrease in its deferred tax liabilities, a decrease in its deferred tax assets, and an increase in its valuation allowance. To an analyst, this would most likely suggest that the company has:

A)
decreased its estimate of future profitability.

B)
increased the estimated useful life of some capitalized assets.

C)
increased its estimate of the period over which unearned revenue will be recognized.

A

A)
decreased its estimate of future profitability.

The increase in the valuation allowance tells us that the company has decreased its estimate of its future profitability and thus its ability to realize the benefits of its deferred tax assets. A longer period for recognition of unearned revenue would not affect the temporary differences reflected in deferred tax assets. Increasing the estimate of assets’ useful lives would tend to slow financial statement depreciation relative to depreciation for tax, which would increase deferred tax liability going forward, other things constant. Decreases in the carrying values of both a DTL and a DTA may reflect a decrease in the tax rate.

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19
Q

Which of the following statements about hypothesis testing is most accurate?

A)
Rejecting a true null hypothesis is a Type I error.

B)
The power of a test is the probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false.

C)
For a one-tailed test regarding the value of parameter X, the null hypothesis would be H0: X = 0, and the alternative hypothesis would be HA: X ≠ 0.

A

A)
Rejecting a true null hypothesis is a Type I error.

Type I error is rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true. The power of a test is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false. HA: X ≠ 0 indicates a two-tailed test, while HA: X < 0 or HA: X > 0 indicates a one-tailed test.

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20
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the money supply and determination of short-term interest rates is least accurate?

A)
On balance, growth in real GDP tends to increase the transactional demand for money.

B)
If the short-term interest rate is greater than the equilibrium rate, there will be excess supply of real money balances.

C)
An increase in the real money supply from an initial equilibrium situation will cause households and businesses to sell interest- bearing securities.

A

C)
An increase in the real money supply from an initial equilibrium situation will cause households and businesses to sell interest- bearing securities.

From an initial equilibrium, an increase in real money balances will leave households and businesses with more money than they wish to hold, so they will purchase interest-bearing securities, driving their prices up and yields down until a new equilibrium short-term rate is established.

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20
Q

An analyst writes the following about two nations:

East Dumerde has a state-dominated domestic economy and conducts little foreign trade.
West Dumerde uses its large economy and geophysical resource endowment to discourage other nations from criticizing its human rights record.
In this analyst’s opinion, the geopolitics of both East Dumerde and West Dumerde are most accurately described as:

A)
hegemony.

B)
nationalism.

C)
non-cooperation.

A

C)
non-cooperation.

In this analyst’s opinion, East Dumerde is best described as practicing autarky (nationalism and non-cooperation) and West Dumerde is best described as practicing hegemony (globalization and non-cooperation)

21
Q

Automatic stabilizers are government programs that require no legislation and tend to:

A)
automatically increase spending at the same growth rate as real GDP.

B)
reduce interest rates, thus stimulating aggregate demand.

C)
change the government budget deficit in an opposite direction to economic growth.

A

C)
change the government budget deficit in an opposite direction to economic growth.

Automatic stabilizers are built-in features that tend to automatically promote a budget deficit during a recession and a budget surplus during an inflationary boom, without a change in policy

21
Q

An economy is in full-employment equilibrium. If the government unexpectedly decreases the tax rate, the economy is most likely to experience:

A)
an increase in employment in the short run.

B)
a decrease in the price level in the short run.

C)
no change in employment in the short run.

A

A)
an increase in employment in the short run.

Short-run equilibrium may occur above full employment, for example as a result of an increase in aggregate demand caused by a decrease in taxes. Both employment and the price level increase in the short run. Above-full employment causes upward pressure on wages that will reduce short-run aggregate supply until, in the long run, output returns to its full-employment level with a still-higher equilibrium price level.

22
Q

Pat Bannerman is analyzing economic indicators to form an opinion on whether an economic contraction has ended. Which of the following turning points should Bannerman most appropriately interpret as a coincident indicator suggesting economic growth is entering the early stage of a new expansion?

A)
Real personal income has begun increasing.

B)
The unemployment rate has begun decreasing.

C)
Building permits for new houses have begun increasing.

A

A)
Real personal income has begun increasing.

Real personal income is a coincident indicator with turning points that tend to coincide with business cycle turning points. The unemployment rate is a lagging indicator, here suggesting an expansion has been underway for some time. Building permits are a leading indicator because builders may seek permits in anticipation of an economic expansion that has not begun yet.

22
Q

Which of the following items is least likely to contain details about various accruals, adjustments, balances, and management assumptions?

A)
Income statement.

B)
Supplementary schedules.

C)
Discussion and analysis by management.

A

A)
Income statement.

The income statement reports the amounts for each of the major line items within the general categories of revenues and expenses. The various accruals, adjustments, and management assumptions are implicit in the reported amounts but are not specifically explained in the income statement. Much of the detail contained in various accruals, adjustments, and management assumptions that go into the financial statements can be found in the footnotes to the statements and Management’s Discussion and Analysis. Supplementary schedules contain additional information, including a more detailed breakdown of certain large account balances

23
Q

An investment with an initial cost of $30,000 is sold for $60,000 after two years. The annual return on a continuously compounded basis is closest to:

A)
35%.

B)
38%.

C)
40%.

A

A)
35%.

The two-year holding period return is +100%. The effective annual rate is (1 + 1.00)1/2 – 1 = 41.42%. The equivalent annual rate of interest on a continuously compound basis is ln(1.4142) = 34.66%. Alternatively, we can calculate the two-year continuously compounded rate as ln(2) = 69.31% and divide by two to get 34.66%.

24
Q

A researcher has data on the 20 largest firms in each state and samples the data by choosing 20 states at random and then selecting 10 firms at random from each of the samples. Her sampling method is referred to as:

A)
cluster sampling.

B)
convenience sampling.

C)
stratified random sampling.

A

A)
cluster sampling.

The procedure described is an example of two-stage cluster sampling. With stratified random sampling, all subsets of the data (all states) would be included, and random samples would be selected from each. Convenience sampling is based on the low cost or easy availability of the data used

24
Q

A firm uses the first-in first-out (FIFO) cost flow assumption. Compared to gross profit with a periodic inventory system, the firm’s gross profit with a perpetual inventory system would be:

A)
lower.

B)
higher.

C)
the same.

A

C)
the same.

For a firm using FIFO, gross profit is the same whether the firm uses a periodic or perpetual inventory system. For a firm using LIFO or average cost, gross profit can be different depending on the choice of inventory system

25
Q

In a period of rising prices, management of a company that reports under IFRS is least likely to attempt to influence analysts’ opinions of its financial results by:

A)
liquidating inventory.

B)
increasing the useful lives of assets.

C)
emphasizing earnings that exclude nonrecurring costs.

A

A)
liquidating inventory.

During periods of rising prices, liquidating inventory is a potential way for companies that use the LIFO inventory cost method to report higher current-period earnings, but LIFO is not permitted under IFRS. Managers attempting to influence analysts’ opinions may manipulate accounting assumptions or emphasize non-GAAP measures in their financial reports

26
Q

Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in expansionary effects from fiscal policy being felt when an economic expansion is already underway?

A)
Slow economic growth is being caused by supply shortages rather than low aggregate demand.

B)
Expansionary fiscal policy requires policymakers to recognize an economic contraction and enact legislation.

C)
Government borrowing to finance expansionary spending is increasing interest rates faced by private sector borrowers.

A

B)
Expansionary fiscal policy requires policymakers to recognize an economic contraction and enact legislation.

Fiscal policy takes effect with a lag due to the time it takes for policymakers to recognize the business cycle stage (recognition lag) and enact legislation to change fiscal policy (action lag), and the time it takes for individuals and businesses to react to the policy changes (impact lag). As a result of these lags, fiscal policy changes may result in pro-cyclical rather than countercyclical effects. Supply shortages and higher interest rates as a result of government borrowing (the crowding-out effect) both act to reduce the expansionary effect of expansionary fiscal policy but are not related directly to its time lags.

27
Q

Under Modigliani and Miller’s assumptions and with no taxes, the value of a firm is:

A)
unaffected by its capital structure.

B)
maximized with an all-debt capital structure.

C)
maximized with an all-equity capital structure.

A

A)
unaffected by its capital structure.

Under Modigliani and Miller’s assumptions, in the absence of taxes a firm’s capital structure does not affect its value. If taxes exist while the rest of their assumptions hold, Modigliani and Miller conclude a firm would finance itself entirely with debt to maximize its value.

27
Q

Smith Company’s earnings per share are more sensitive to changes in operating income than are those of Jones Company. This implies that Smith Company has a higher degree of:

A)
total leverage.

B)
financial leverage.

C)
operating leverage.

A

B)
financial leverage.

The degree of financial leverage (DFL) is the percent change in earnings per share for a given percent change in operating income. The degree of operating leverage (DOL) is the percent change in operating income for a given percent change in sales. The degree of total leverage (DTL) is the percent change in earnings per share for a given percent change in sales, and is the product of DOL and DFL. Based on the information given, Smith has a higher DFL than Jones, but we cannot conclude that Smith has a higher DTL than Jones

28
Q

Which of the following types of institutions is most likely to have the lowest risk tolerance?

A)
Commercial bank.

B)
College endowment.

C)
Mutual fund company.

A

A)
Commercial bank.

Banks typically need to maintain excess reserves in order to meet regulatory requirements. As a result, a bank must invest in assets that are more conservative than those invested by other types of financial institutions. An endowment will usually have significant long-term spending requirements in addition to its current expenses. Thus, a college endowment should accept higher risk in order to attain the returns indicated by its mandate. A mutual fund company may invest in many types of securities depending on the type of funds being managed. Investments may range from conservative money market funds to more aggressive derivatives. Therefore, a mutual fund company’s level of risk tolerance may be greater than or less than those of a bank or endowment.

29
Q

Consider three firms of approximately equal size:

Brinde is a retailer that owns its shops and sells primarily on credit.
Enbird is a regional airline that leases its aircraft and service facilities.
Ribden is a magazine publisher that takes advance payments for subscriptions.
Based only on this information, which of these firms is likely to have the greatest capital needs?

A)
Brinde.

B)
Enbird.

C)
Ribden.

A

A)
Brinde.

Other things equal, a firm that owns its assets and extends credit to customers will have a greater need for capital compared to firms that operate using an asset-light model (Enbird) or a pay-in-advance model (Ribden)

30
Q

Co-investing is most accurately described as investing:

A)
as a limited partner in an investment fund, but only committing capital to one or more of the fund’s portfolio companies.

B)
directly in one or more of an investment fund’s portfolio companies, instead of investing as a limited partner in the fund.

C)
directly in one or more of an investment fund’s portfolio companies, in addition to investing as a limited partner in the fund.

A

C)
directly in one or more of an investment fund’s portfolio companies, in addition to investing as a limited partner in the fund.

Co-investing refers to investing in a fund as a limited partner, while additionally investing directly in some of the assets in which the fund invests

31
Q

Pat McCoy is analyzing a technology firm that has experienced annual earnings growth of 12%. McCoy does not expect the firm to begin paying dividends on its common shares in the foreseeable future. To estimate the value of this firm’s common shares, McCoy should most appropriately use:

A)
a two-stage DDM.

B)
a free cash flow model.

C)
a Gordon growth model.

A

B)
a free cash flow model.

Free cash flow-based valuation techniques are appropriate for valuing shares of a firm that does not pay dividends. The Gordon growth model and two-stage dividend discount model are appropriate for valuing shares of dividend-paying firms. (

32
Q

A bond with nine years to maturity is quoted at an interpolated spread of +150 basis points. The benchmark yield for this bond is:

A)
a swap rate.

B)
a matrix rate.

C)
a government bond yield.

A

A)
a swap rate.

Interpolated spreads (I-spreads) are spreads to swap rates

33
Q

An investor purchases 1,000 shares of each of the stocks in a price-weighted index at their closing prices (ignore transactions costs). On a total return basis, if the index stocks remain the same, this portfolio will most likely:

A)
perform exactly like the index over time.

B)
outperform the index over time.

C)
underperform the index over time.

A

B)
outperform the index over time.

Total return includes dividend yield. Because dividends are not included in the performance of the index itself, the portfolio will outperform the index by the amount of the dividend yield.

34
Q

Among valuation models, the difficulty of estimating a required rate of return is most likely to be a disadvantage of using:

A)
a Gordon growth model.

B)
an asset-based valuation model.

C)
an enterprise value multiplier model.

A

A)
a Gordon growth model.

One of the disadvantages of present value models such as the Gordon growth model is that the required rate of return on equity must be estimated. Neither an enterprise value multiplier model nor an asset valuation model requires an explicit estimate of the required rate of return

34
Q

Consider two option-free, 5% annual-pay bonds from the same issuer and with the same seniority. One of the bonds has a modified duration of 3.5 and approximate convexity of 15. The other has a modified duration of 8.5 and approximate convexity of 75. Can the lower-duration bond have more price volatility than the higher-duration bond?

A)
No, because it also exhibits lower convexity.

B)
Yes, because shifts in the yield curve may be non-parallel.

C)
No, because its price will respond relatively less in response to changes in yield.

A

B)
Yes, because shifts in the yield curve may be non-parallel.

Duration-based estimates of bond value changes assume the yield curve shifts in a parallel manner. If instead short-term interest rates are more volatile than long-term interest rates, it is possible for a bond with lower duration to have more price volatility than a bond with higher duration.

35
Q

A 10-year note issued by Gaullic Finance will be paid from a bankruptcy-remote pool of Gaullic’s balance sheet assets. These notes are best described as:

A)
covered bonds.

B)
securitized bonds.

C)
asset-backed bonds.

A

A)
covered bonds.

Covered bonds are an obligation of the corporation that issues them, but their interest and principal payments are provided by a pool of assets that are legally recognized as bankruptcy remote. They are different from securitized bonds (i.e., asset-backed securities), which are issued by a special purpose entity to which the underlying assets are sold

36
Q

Returns calculated from which type of real estate index are most likely to have the lowest standard deviation?

A)
REIT index.

B)
Appraisal index.

C)
Repeat sales index.

A

B)
Appraisal index.

Valuations based on appraisals tend to smooth returns compared to using market-based valuations. As a result, returns based on an appraisal index are likely to have a lower standard deviation than returns based on a repeat sales index or a REIT index

37
Q

The type of equity depository receipt that gives its owners the right to vote and receive dividends from a company’s shares is best described as:

A)
a global depository receipt.

B)
a sponsored depository receipt.

C)
a fully-owned depository receipt.

A

B)
a sponsored depository receipt.

The owner of a sponsored DR share has the same voting rights and receives the same dividends as the owner of a common share of the firm. With an unsponsored DR, the depository bank retains the voting rights. A global depository receipt may be sponsored or unsponsored.

38
Q

An increase in the risk-free rate, together with an increase in the expected volatility of the price of the underlying asset, will most likely lead to a gain for a:

A)
long call option.

B)
long put option.

C)
short put option.

A

A)
long call option.

An increase in the risk-free rate will decrease the value of put options and increase the value of call options. An increase in the expected volatility of the underlying will increase the value of both puts and calls. Because both changes will increase call values, a long position in a call option is the most likely to produce a gain

38
Q

Ron Egan classifies firms in the transportation industry in peer groups that include airlines and bus operators. Egan learns that one of the airlines, Acme, derives half its revenue from its Acme Bus Lines subsidiary. Egan adds Acme to his peer group for bus operators while continuing to include Acme in his peer group for airlines. Is Egan’s treatment of Acme appropriate?

A)
Yes.

B)
No, because each company should be included in only one peer group.

C)
No, because the bus operations are not the company’s principal business activity.

A

A)
Yes.

Peer groups should include comparable companies with similar business activities. An analyst can appropriately include a company in multiple peer groups if the company’s business activities are comparable to firms in more than one peer group.

39
Q

The derivative that is least likely to have a value of zero at initiation is:

A)
a credit default swap.

B)
a forward rate agreement.

C)
an at-the-money call option.

A

C)
an at-the-money call option.

An option will have a positive value at initiation. The fixed rate in a credit default swap and the interest rate in a forward rate agreement are set so that these derivatives have a zero value at initiation.

40
Q

Consider a collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) structure with one planned amortization class (PAC) class and one support tranche outstanding. If the prepayment speed is higher than the upper collar on the PAC:

A)
the life of the PAC tranche will increase.

B)
the PAC tranche has no risk of prepayments.

C)
the life of the support tranche will decrease.

A

C)
the life of the support tranche will decrease.

If the prepayment speed is higher than the PAC collar, the support tranche receives more prepayments. The life of the support tranche will shorten. The PAC tranche could receive higher prepayments if the support tranche principal is fully repaid (i.e., a broken PAC). In this case, the support tranche is still outstanding, which means that hasn’t happened yet

41
Q

The change in the intrinsic value of a firm’s common stock resulting from an increase in ROE most likely:

A)
increases the stock’s intrinsic value.

B)
decreases the stock’s intrinsic value.

C)
depends on the reason for the increase in ROE.

A

C)
depends on the reason for the increase in ROE.

While an increase in a firm’s ROE due to a sharp increase in earnings will, if unexpected, lead to an increase in the intrinsic value of its shares, an increase in a firm’s ROE due to the repurchase of stock with debt will not necessarily increase the intrinsic value of the firm’s shares, as any increase in ROE may be offset by an increase in the risk inherent in the firm’s shares.

42
Q

The put-call-forward parity relationship is similar to the standard put-call parity relationship with a forward price substituted for:

A)
the risk-free bond.

B)
the underlying asset.

C)
either the call or put option.

A

B)
the underlying asset.

The put-call-forward parity relationship is the same as the standard put-call parity relationship, with the present value of the forward price substituted for the underlying asset.

43
Q

Compared to an index of 100 U.S. exchange-traded stocks, an index of 100 U.S. government and corporate bonds will most likely:

A)
reflect equally timely price data.

B)
be more difficult to build and maintain.

C)
have less turnover among the securities in the index.

A

B)
be more difficult to build and maintain.

Bond indexes are more difficult to build and maintain than stock indexes for several reasons. Bonds in an index have to be replaced as they mature, so turnover is likely to be greater in a bond index than in a stock index. Many bonds lack the continuous trade data that exists for exchange-traded equities. (

44
Q

Which of the following provisions is least likely to benefit the limited partners in a private equity fund?

A)
High hurdle rate.

B)
Catch-up clause.

C)
Whole-of-fund waterfall structure.

A

B)
Catch-up clause.

Catch-up clauses benefit the general partners, allowing them to collect all gains after the hurdle rate is met until they have collected their specified incentive percentage of the initial gains. A high hurdle rate benefits the limited partners because they do not pay incentive fees until the hurdle rate is met. A whole-of-fund waterfall structure is more favorable to limited partners than a deal-by-deal waterfall structure.

45
Q

A 60-day forward rate agreement (FRA) on a 60-day market reference rate has a fixed rate of 6%. If, at the initiation of the contract, the market reference rate is 5%, the payment in 60 days:

A)
is unknown.

B)
will be received by the long position.

C)
will be received by the short position.

A

A)
is unknown.

The payment on an FRA is unknown until the settlement date of the forward, when the future 60-day market reference rate is known

46
Q

Liquidity is generally supplied by dealers in:

A)
a brokered market.

B)
an order-driven market.

C)
a quote-driven market.

A

C)
a quote-driven market.

Liquidity is generally supplied by dealers in a quote-driven market, by other traders in an order-driven market, and by brokers (who arrange the trades) and traders in a brokered market