Mock Paper Flashcards

1
Q

what two things do you need to know about an enamel-dentine-pulp fracture before you decide if a pulp cap or pulpotomy is most appropriate treatment

A

size of exposure
length of time since injury occurred

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2
Q

stages of pulpotomy on anterior tooth

A

rubber dam
remove pulp tissue 2-3mm radius around exposed area
assess bleeding (want to see normal bleeding and rate)
haemostasis with saline soaked cotton wool roll
cover with non-setting CaOH
seal with GI
cover with composite restoration

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3
Q

favourable radiographic signs 6 months after a pulpotomy

A

continued root development
continued thickening of dentine in the root walls
apical development and no pathology

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4
Q

after a pulpotomy of permanent immature tooth the tooth is now symptomatic and is painful to bite on and there is a lump with pus
what is management

A

dental dam
extirpation
dress with CaOH
refer to paediatric dentistry
apexification with MTA

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5
Q

female has fractured neck of femur and is on medication to prevent another fracture, what medication will this be?

A

antiresorptive drugs - bisphosphonates/denosumab
vitamin supplements - vitamin D

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6
Q

four ways how MRONJ can be prevented

A

patient education
OHI
high fluoride toothpaste
making patient dentally fit prior to starting drugs
removing risk factors
smoking cessation
non-invasive alternative treatments

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7
Q

10 management options for MRONJ

A

conservative approach and careful monitoring
specific OHI in relation to areas of exposed bone
antiseptic mouthwash
occasionally antibiotics
minimal surgical debridement
primary closure
remove traumatic causes
consult with GMP to check if any drug replacement
symptomatic relief
topical preparations
investigations - radiographs
onward referral to secondary care

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8
Q

4 passive uses of a URA

A

space maintainer
habit deterrent
retention
overbite reduction

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9
Q

components of URA for space maintainer for maintaining spaces of 14 and 24

A

adams clasps 16 and 26 0.7mm HSSW
southend clasps 11 21 0.7mm HSSW
acrylic baseplate extending onto the edentulous space

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10
Q

name another type of space maintainer that can be used (not baseplate on URA)

A

fixed palatal or nance arch
band and loop

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11
Q

name 4 active URA components designed to move teeth

A

palatal finger spring
buccal canine retractor
Z spring
expansion screw
roberts retractor

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12
Q

8 signs of good wear of URA

A

wearing on entering
speech with appliance in
proficient handling
good fit
worn appearance of acrylic
indentations on palatal mucosa
signs of tooth movement
active component passive
absence of excess salivation

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13
Q

hypodontia of 22 and 23 but space is quite small, they want implant but what alternative options

A

resin bonded bridge
removable partial denture

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14
Q

aesthetic issues with replacing 22 and 23 but space is small and list 2 ways to fix this issue

A

space wider than 1 pontic but too narrow to fit 2 in
orthodontic tooth movement
prosthetic camouflage

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15
Q

3 general factors before referring someone for implants

A

patient understands what is likely to be involved and is willing to comply with treatment
patient has good oral hygiene
smoking
cost
lack of viable bone or alternatively availability of suitable bone
periodontal history
history of contact sports

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16
Q

3 local factors that will be assessed for implant treatment planning

A

bone height
bone width
root position of adjacent teeth
soft tissue adequacy
smile line
local periodontal health/plaque control
gingival biotype

17
Q

3 potential complications that you would warn patients about when consenting them for an implant retained bridge

A

implant failure
periimplantitis
periimplant mucositis
screw fracture
crown/porcelain chipping/fracture
recession
need for replacement

18
Q

likely cause of gingival recession in lower anteriors

A

traumatic overbite

19
Q

where in patients mouth apart from lower anterior gingival region would you expect to see signs of problems caused by a deep overbite

A

palatal gingiva of upper anteriors

20
Q

why are lower incisors more at risk of recession

A

thin gingival biotype
thin buccal plate

21
Q

with gingival recession what other things may your patient complain about

A

poor aesthetics
dentine hypersensitivity
root caries

22
Q

with gingival recession patient, what 5 investigations would you do after history, exam and charting

A

BPE
full mouth
plaque and bleeding scores
periodontal pocket chart
mobility scores
periapical radiographs
impressions for study casts
sensibility testing
photograph

23
Q

2 general approaches to a patients initial treatment for recession/overbite/mobility

A

hygiene phase therapy (step 1 BSP guidelines)
upper anterior bite raising appliance for night time use

24
Q

at re-evaluation of recession and mobility there are no deep pockets but still mobile what you can use

25
3 main but not unique clinical features in sjogrens syndrome
dry eyes and dry mouth fatigue joint pain
26
2 antigens in sjogrens
anti ro and anti la
27
2 clinical tests to measure the quantity of saliva and tears that are essential items included in the classification criteria of SS ACR/EULAR 2016
unstimulated salivary flow test schirmer test
28
at least 3 oral signs and symptoms in sjogrens symptoms
salivary hypofunction dental caries oral fungal infection dysphagia dysgeusia salivary gland enlargement
29
most common medication for stimulating salivary glands in sjogrens
pilocarpine
30
most common malignancy associated with sjogrens
non-hodgkins lymphoma
31
4 histological features of a minor salivary gland biopsy in SS
lymphocytic focus particularly located in the periductal area with each focus containing 50+ cells. at least one focus in every 4mmsquared atrophy of acini ductal epithelial hyperplasia ductal dilatation fibrosis
32
if the sterilisation temperature of a cycle achieves 135.2 degrees what is the corresponding pressure range in pressure absolute and minimum hold time
3.05-3.35 bar for minimum of 3 minutes
33
if instruments need to be sterile at point of use how should they be prepared for processing and what equipment
wrapped prior to processing type b
34
what 4 bits of information must be recorded from the first production cycle of the day for steriliser
cycle number sterilisation hold time temperature pressure
35
what is the name of the PCD that is used for the first cycle of the day on a vacuum steriliser
bowie dick/helix device/hollow load test
36
what does the bowie dick PCD test for
adequate steam penetration
37
what are the 4 kinds of purified water
de-ionised reverse osmosis distilled sterile
38
what part of the SHTM 01-01 provides guidance on sterilisers
C