MOCK MCQ Flashcards
(304 cards)
1
Q
what decreases basal metabolism?
A
very low caloric intake
2
Q
what is the etiology of anorexia nervosa
A
self-starvation
3
Q
what eating disorders is characterized by binge eating followed by purging
A
bulimia nervosa
4
Q
what statement regarding blood glucose is FALSE
A
blood glucose is converted to ketone bodies
5
Q
what processe is the main function of carbs
A
provide fuel for energy
6
Q
what statement regarding essential fatty acids is TRUE?
A
essential fatty acids include linoleic and linolenic acids
7
Q
what amino acids that can be synthesized by the body
A
non-essential amino acids
8
Q
what abnormalities can lead to a deficiency in vit A, D, E, or K?
A
abnormal fat absorption
9
Q
what disease is the result of vit D deficiency
A
rickets
10
Q
what disease is the result of an iron deficiency
A
anemia
11
Q
which one of the following is a function of HDL in the blood
A
picks up cholesterol from tissues for elimination from the body
12
Q
what group has the best source of calcium
A
dairy
13
Q
what dietary component reduces risk of colon cancer to help prevent diverticulosis?
A
insoluble fibre
14
Q
which of the following is NOT a function of dietary water
A
prevents hemorrhoids
15
Q
what phytochemical is considered a non-nutrient health deteriorating chemical?
A
monosodium glutamate
16
Q
what change is recommended to pregnant women
A
take folic acids supplement prior to and during pregnancy
17
Q
what final structures is surrounded by the 1st loop of the duodenum
A
head of the pancreas
18
Q
which two organs does the pyloric sphincter separate
A
stomach and intestine
19
Q
what quadrant is the hepatic flexure of the colon located
A
right upper abdominal quadrant
20
Q
the shortest part of the intestine
A
duodenum
21
Q
name of portion of peritoneum resembling a fatty apron draped over the viscera
A
greater omentum
22
Q
what organ produces bile
A
liver
23
Q
name of the left colic flexure
A
splenic flexure
24
Q
location of the soft palate
A
posterior 1/3 of the roof of the mouth
25
what pancreatic cells produce insulin
lslets of langerhans
26
what metabolic pathway occurs in the mitochondria and results in the catabolism of fatty acids into acetyl CoA?
beta oxidation
27
what metabolic pathway converts excess sugar into glycogen for storage
glycogenesis
28
what metabolic pathway converts glucose resulting in a net gain of 2 molecules of ATP, NADH and pyruvic acid?
glycolysis
29
which tissue layer stores fats and contains large BV's that supply the skin
subcutaneous layer
30
which cell forms 90% of epidermal layer
keratinocytes
31
what layer of the epidermis is shed daily and forms calluses?
stratum corneum
32
what is the fiber direction of the rectus abdominis mm
vertical
33
what is described as the output strengthens or reinforces change in the body
positive feedback system
34
which process in the building of new proteins from digested acids?
anabolism
35
what organelle is responsible for protein synthesis
ribosome
36
what organic compounds contain carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and oxygen and from quaternary structures?
proteins
37
what structure functions to give our cells a unique identify
glycocalyx
38
what describes the meaning of the CMTO code of principles I - respect for persons?
value the dignity and worth of all persons
39
what describes the meaning of the CMTO code of ethics principles IV - responsibility to society
to be accountable to society and promote high ethical standards
40
what is the final segment of the small intestine called
ileum
41
what allows for the development of client autonomy
obtaining informed consent
42
how does the college of massage therapists suggest we treat clients knowing their background
with respect
43
empathy is described as
compassionate understanding of your clients situation
44
empowerment of the client is best achieved by
informing the client that they may stop the treatment at any time
45
a client has feelings related to his childhood and being comforted by his mother when he is treated
transference
46
providing sensitive, empathetic quality massage therapy describes CMTO code of ethics principle
II - responsible caring
47
what statements defines the CMTO code of ethics principles III - integrity in relationships
to practice with integrity and honesty in our professional relationships
48
if you continually say negative comments regarding your clients chiropractor you are breaking the CMTO code of ethics principle -
III - integrity of relationships
49
which one of the situations does NOT represent a dual relationship
your client was referred by your doctor
50
which statement represents the most potentially harmful dual relationship
treating one of your practical intructors
51
which one of the following criteria increases client vulnerability
breaching client confidentiality
52
which one of the following statements describes a situation of counter-transference
therapist has feelings related to his childhood and being comforted by his mother when he treats a client
53
communication is defined as
complex process involving all verbal and non verbal
54
which of the following is not a chemical mediator
platelets
55
which process describes the replacement of injured tissue with cells of the same parenchymal type and function
tissue regeneration
56
what term identifies the attraction of WBC toward a microbe
emigration
57
suffix for inflammation
itis
58
redness, heat, swelling and rapid onset. which is NOT a sign of inflammation
rapid onset
59
a decease in cell number
hypoplasia
60
what event is a form of reversible cell injury/alteration
cellular swelling
61
vasospam, dilation, formation of platelet plug and development of fibrin clot. which event of homeostasis does not occur to reduce bleeding
vasodilation
62
what situation will likely result in the best resolution after injury
a labile tissue type is affected and there is minimal tissue destruction
63
which is NOT the cause of px during acute inflammation (swelling, nn damage, presence of RBC, presence of chemical mediators)
presence of RBC
64
sequence of cellular and tissue events that take place at initial contact with a causative agent until the disease is expressed
pathogensis
65
elimination of worn out cells (cellular suicide)
apoptosis
66
wound healing phase where there is building of new tissues and the formaiton of granulation tissue
proliferative phase
67
signs of urticaria?
puritis and stinging red wheals
68
what describes psoriasis
chronic genetic epidermal proliferation
69
skin disease that is latent and travels along a sensory nn and causes severe px along the nn's distribution
herpes zoster
70
a neoplasm of the non-keratinized cells of the basal layer of the epidermis
basal cell carcinoma
71
polyuria, dipsia and phagia and symptoms of what
diabetes
72
what is esophagitis
infammation of the esophagus
73
what is gastro esophegeal reflux
reflux of stomach acid contents into the esophagus
74
what is dysphagia
difficulty or inability to swallow
75
which of the following involving peptic ulcers is correct
they are most often found in the duodenum
76
what is associated with chron's disease
inflammation of the distal ileum
77
most common etiology of IBS?
stress
78
what sx & sx is associated with diverticulutis
lower left qudrant pain
79
what describes cirrhosis
scar tissue replaces normal healthy tissue in the liver
80
symptom when bilirubin builds up in the BS
jaundice
81
what is known as gallstone
cholelithiasis
82
what is ascites
peritoneal fluid build up
83
what mm is the strongest hip flexor
iliopsoas
84
what glute mm abducts and medially rotates the thigh
glute minimus
85
what type of bone is the patella
sesamoid
86
how many cunieforms are in the foot
3
87
which hip ligament is located posteriorly, spirals down the acetabular rim and attaches to the femoral neck b/t greater & lesser trochater
ishiofemoral ligament
88
what group of mm are the primary extensor of the knee
quadriceps group
89
which ligament is the main stabilizing structure of the femur during weight bearing and flexion of the knee
posterior cruciate
90
which muscle out of the following does not attach to the ishial tuberosity (semimem, semitend, short head of biceps femoris or long head)
short head of biceps femoris
91
anatomical structure that is fat filled, diamond shaped on posterior knee
popliteal fossa
92
common tendon for solus and gastroc
calcaneal tendon
93
what mm flexes the lateral 4 digits
flexor digitorum brevis
94
NSAID's stand for
non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
95
what condition does insulin treat
diabetes
96
what mm tissue is found in the skin, organs and vessels of the body
smooth mm
97
what property of mm tissue is defined as the ability to return to its original shape and length after contraction
elasticity
98
what forms a tendon
extensions of deep fascial CT that surround the mm, fascicles and fibers
99
what skeletal mm structure stores calcium ions for mm contraction
sarcoplasmic reticulum
100
what is the functional unit of a myofibril?
the sarcomere
101
what protein forms the thick filament in a sarcomere
myosin
102
which protein holds tropmyosin in place over the myosin binding sites
troponin
103
where does ATP bind to the sarcomere during contraction
the myosin head
104
what statement regaring the sliding filament theory is false
the cross bridges are formed by the attachment of titan and actin
105
what occurs due to an increased resistance to hepatic blood flow
portal hypertension
106
what event triggers calcium release channels to open during excitation of a mm fiber allowing Ca+ to flood around the sarcomere
propagation of a mm action potenial along the sarcolemma
107
what isnt a function of ATP in mm contraction
ATP is hydrolyzed into AMP creating energy for the action potential
108
what is the function of acetylcholine within the neuromuscular junction
to bind to receptors that open sodium channels on the motor end plate
109
which molecule is found only in mm tissue and supplies oxygen for ATP production
myoglobin
110
which is a characteristic of fast oxidative-glycolytic mm
they have a moderately high resistance to fatigue so they function during moderate activity like walking
111
which statement describes cardiac mm tissue
the cylindrical fibers are branched and attach at the ends via intercalated discs
112
what is the function of a pericyte in mm tissue
they are stem cells found in blood capillaries that can regenerate smooth mm tissue
113
how is a joint classified when it permits movements around 3 axis
multiaxial
114
which movements are permitted on a biaxial joint?
flexion, extension, ABduction, ADduction, circumduction
115
what is a function of a bursa
to form a closed sac that prevents friction between soft tissues that meet such as between skin and bone or bone and tendon
116
boney structure that is defined as: a sheath of dense irregular CT surrounding the shaft and is responsible for lateral growth, protecting, repairing fractures and nourishing the bone tissue
peiosteum
117
what bone cell is unable to divide but is a mature cell that maintains daily metabolism of bone?
osteocyte
118
which of the statement regarding bone is true
hydropxyapatite are mineral salts that crystals in bone creating the hardness of bone
119
what describes a partial break occuring in children due to the flexible nature of the bone
greenstick fracture
120
define a compound fracture
a fracture that results in the bone protruding from the skin
121
what direction does new bone form during the remodeling phase
along the lines of stress
122
what is NOT a factor in the healing of bone after a fracture
presence of microbe or foreign object
123
which bones is broken when the term "broken hip" is used
neck of the femur
124
which statement regarding the mechanism of shock absoption in the feet is false
the ligaments and bones of the foot resist movement creating stability over uneven surfaces
125
which mm forms the superloateral border of the popliteal fossa
biceps femoris
126
which set of anterior compartment muscles share a synovial sheath
extensor digitorum longus and fibularis tertius
127
which landmark is the distal attachment of the extensor hallicus longus
dorsum of the base of the phalanx of the great toe
128
what landmark is the distal attachment of tib ant
medial and inferior surface of medial cuneiform and base of 1st metatarsal
129
what mm extends the great toe and dorsiflexes the ankle
extensor hallicus longus
130
which mm everts the foot and attaches to the head of the fibula
fibularis longus
131
which landmark is the distal attachment of psoas major
lesser trochater
132
which mm is the tailors mm
sartorius
133
what mm adducts the thigh and rotates the leg medially
gracilis
134
distal attachment of semitendonosis
medial tibia at pes anserine
135
cardinal signs in inflammation
redness, heat, swelling, px, loss of function
136
what event is responsible for localizing the spread of infection at an injury site
stagnation of BF and blood clotting at capillary bed
137
what is responsible for causing pan at the vascular stage of inflammation
fluid accumulation in the tissues around the injury
138
which soft tissue injury results in town skin increasing the risk of infection
laceration
139
small piece of bone or carilage floating free in the joint space
loose body
140
which statement describes opportunistic infection
ability of a pathogen to cuse infection when the hosts immune system is comprimised
141
bone tumor
osteoma
142
bony outgrowth at the joint margins during OA
osteophytes
143
what statement regarding secondary OA is false
impact exercise if necessary after immobilization to increase the pumping action of the joint to facilitate lubrication of the damaged cartilage
144
what pathological changes occur in the fingers of someone with OA
bouchard and herberden nodes
145
what statement is false regarding arthrits in children
they will always grow to full adult height
146
what joint is primairly affeted by ankylosing
SI
147
what arthritic condition does not involve disorder of immunity
OA
148
what arthritic condition is an autoimmune disease
RA
149
what anatomical structure does osgood schlatter disease affect
tibial tuberosity
150
what treatment is used to correct club foot
on going manipulations and casting to hold each change gently alter the portions of the foot
151
first maifestation of osteoporosis
skeletal fracture
152
what is NOT a factor of osteoporosis
phosphate levels
153
what describes the female athele triad
disorder pattern of eating that leads to amenorrhea and osteoporosis
154
process that is accepted pathogenesis of osteoporosis
an imbalance that allows bone reabsorption to exceed bone formation
155
for consent to be valid:
must be related to the treatment, informed and voluntary
156
the assistance of a substitue decision maker must be obtained if:
the therapist believes that the client has not understood the infromation about the treatment
157
the scope of practice of the massage therapy profession includes
the assessment and treatment of soft tissue and joints to relieve pain
158
kelly, a 14 yo girl looking for treatment for back pain. arrives alone for her first appt, she says her mother will pick her up and pay. which approach is the therapist legally obligated to follow
therpaist cannot treat her as her parent/guardian must be present to give informed consent
159
what statement describes zero tolerance
there shall be no sexual interaction between therapist and client even if client initiates it
160
treating an athelete at a marathon. she informs you that at another race she thinks she was sexually abused by a RMT. what are you obligated to do
you should not become involved in any way
161
how many lobes and fissures does the right lung has
3 lobes 2 fissures
162
inhalation and exhaltion of air between the atmosphere and the alveoli of the lungs
pulmonary ventilation
163
upward and outward movement of chest due to contraction of external intercostal mms
costal breathing
164
diastole
period when ventricles are relaxed
165
purpose of atrial contraction
pump blood into ventricles
166
what mm does not attach to scap (coracobrachialis, pec maj, pec min, teres min)
pec maj
167
which process is NOT a function of the stress response or GAS?
enhanced activity and function of the immune system via epinepherine and cortisol
168
purpose of anastomosis
connection between arteries provides a redundant supply of oxygen to tissues
169
which term describes amount of blood ejected from the heart with each beat
stroke volume
170
what joint is the only bony articulation between the upper limb and the axial skeleton
sternoclavicular
171
what ligament forms a retinaculum for the tendon of the long head of biceps
transverse humeral
172
what mm is a supinator of the forearm
biceps brachaii
173
what joint primarilty responisble for opposition of the thumb
first carpometacarpal
174
how many articulations are found within the capsule of the elbow joint
3
175
which joint is the principle joint to allow pronation and supnation of the forearm
radioulanr
176
what carpal bone is part of the 1st carpometacarpal joint
trapezium
177
what structure supports the testes in the male
scrotum
178
what mm of the scrotum is continuous with the internal oblique and attaches to the pubic bone
cremaster mm
179
what mm wrinkles the surface of the scrotum upon contraction, reduing the surface area for heat loss
dartos mm
180
what cells are responsible for the process called spermination
sertoli cells
181
what cell produces testosterone
leydig cells
182
average menstrual cycle and ovulation
mensturation is 28 days with ovulation occuring on day 14
183
what hormone prolongs life of the corpus luteum after an ovum is fertilized and during pregnancy
HCG
184
what hormone is responsible for causing ovulation
LH
185
what hormone stimulates the breasts to let down/eject milk
oxytocin
186
what hormonal triggers starts menstruation
blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease rapidly
187
what groups of organs is the uterus between
the urinary bladdar and the rectum
188
what structure does the ejaculatory duct drain into
urethra
189
what tissue does a fertilized ovum implant
endometrium
190
what statement regarding pregnancy is false
fetus is fully formed at 2nd moth
191
what bones articulate with the radius
scaphoid and lunate
192
what disease has symptoms of weight loss, dysmenorrhea, nervousness, extreme fatigue, heat-intolerance and exophthalmos
hyperthyroidism
193
what event does ADH prevent
output of large amounts of urine
194
what hormone is relased by ant pituitary (GH, TRH, ADH, oxytocin)
GH
195
function of palmaris longus
tenses palmar aponeurosis
196
what location contains the receptors for protein based hormones
on the cell membrane
197
what is the target for ADH
nephron
198
what pancreatic cell releases insulin
beta cells
199
which does not attach to the humerus (flexor carpi radialis, brachialis, biceps brachaii, triceps)
biceps brachaii
200
name of the joint between the head of the humerus and glenoid fossa
GH
201
what pair of mms will attach to the clavical, acromion, and spine of scap
deltoid & trap
202
what bone is NOT considered attachment for pec major (sternum, scap, clavical, humerus)
scapula
203
the function on calcitonin
lowers blood calcium
204
what mm does not attach to the scap (trap, lev scap, rom maj, lats)
lats
205
what process causes testicular torsion
twisting of the spermatic cord that suspends the testis and spermatic vessels
206
what about prostate cancer is true
diets high in fat and altered sex hormone production can increas the risk of prostate cancer
207
what yearly screening test is citical in early diagnosis of prostate cancer
PSA blood test
208
which STI is life long and reoccuring
genital herpes
209
what STD is the etiology of cervical cancer
HPV
210
what symptom is common in male and female STD
generalized fever
211
endometriosis
endometrial tissue found in the pelvic cavity
212
what predisposes women do pelvic inflammatory disease
multiple sexual partners
213
normal menstrual cycles and flow
menorrhea
214
what is NOT associated with amenorrhea (infection, anorexia, strenous physical exercise, heavy periods in pre menopausal women)
heavy periods in pre menopausal women
215
what occurs in healthy women with no pathology present
metorrhagia
216
what condition is symptoms of swollen breast, bloating, abdominal px, headache, depression, irritability, anxiety and clumisness
prementrual syndrome
217
inflammation of the breast
mastitis
218
which disease is cause by inflammation of the kidney, parenchyma and renal pelvis
pyelonephritis
219
is acute renal failure an irriversible disease?
yes
220
nephrotic syndrome
disorder that increases the premeability of the glomerular capillary with loss of proteins
221
scientific name for kidney stones
calculi
222
why do patients with pulmonary embolisms have very few and mild symptoms
the lungs have redundant or collateral blood circulation
223
what serious condition is described as retrograde pressure on the right ventricle that leads to hypertrophy os the RV and creates chronic pulmonry hypertension
cor pulmonale
224
most likely location of pulmonary embolism
deep vein in legs
225
difficulty breathing while lying down
orthopnea
226
anatomical changes found with emphysema
SCM hypertrophies, shoulder elevation and expansion of ribs
227
what list of manifestations occur with an asthma attack
dyspnea, wheezing, with difficulty exhaling
228
the action of 'hold the airway open' and prevents alveolar collapse is known as
pursed lip breathing
229
inflammation of one or more bronchiols is associates with what
bronchitis
230
air entering the pleural cavity
pneumothorax
231
what occurs when emphysema, bronchittis or asthma becomes a chronic event
COPD
232
what disease manifests as color change in the skin from white to blue to red
raynauds
233
pinpoint hemorrhage
petechia
234
do anticoagulants contribute to the formation of DVT?
no
235
what location develops accumulation of edema in the early stages of left ventricle heart failure
legs
236
"hole in the heart"
atrial septal defect
237
which is the following symtoms is not found in angina pectoris (wheezing, severe chest px, left arm radiation, sudden onset of px)
left arm radiation
238
what part of the neuron is responisble for increasing the surface area of reception
dendrites
239
what is cranial nn 4
trochlear
240
which of the following statements regarding the left cerebrum is FALSE
the left cerebrum communicates with the right cerebellum
241
what tract carries sensory info regarding propriocetion, touch and vibration
posterior (dorsal) columns
242
what spinal nn branch supplies the zypophyseal joints, splenius, erector spinae, and transversospinalis group
anteror rami
243
which structure is the site of CSF production
choroid process
244
what is the structure for CSF reabsorption
arachnoid villi
245
what structure is the raised portions of the cerebral cortex
gyri
246
what lobe contains the brocas area
left frontal lobe
247
what lobe of the brain contains wernikes area
left parietal lobe
248
what ligament ia attached to adjacent laminae and has the highest percentage of elastic fibers enhancing its function
ligamentum flavum
249
number of mobile vertebrae
24
250
which ligament is closest to the skin (interspinous, supraspinous, intertransverse, posterior longitudinal)
supraspinous
251
what mm runs between the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae
interspinalis
252
what mm of the following back mms is the deepest transversospinalis group) (spinalis, rotators, multifidis, semispinalis)
rotators
253
what structure is the superior continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament
cruciform ligament
254
which mm is found in the superficial layer of the deep group of back mms with proximal attachments on the nuchal ligament and spinous process of C7-T3 or T4?
splenius
255
what CN NN provides parasympathetic innervations to the parotid gland
CN 9
256
what CN NN innervates the eyeball causing abduction
ABducens
257
what structure is the term for the "white of the eye"
sclera
258
sequence of sound waves
tympanic membrane - malleous - incus - stapes - oval window
259
blind spot
optic disc
260
what structure contains BV's that a doc can view directly
retina
261
the role of the basal ganglia
controls movement and suppress unwanted movements
262
function of parasympathetic nervous system
the response includes salvation, urination and digestion
263
what statement involving the ANS is false
only a few tissues in the body can respond to sympathetic stimulation
264
what neuron conducts impulses from somatic receptors into the brain or SC
1st order
265
what CN NN is implicatied in trigeminal neuralgia
CN 5
266
what CN NN is damaged if a person experiences vertigo and tinnitus
CN 8
267
what nn gives rise to the sural nn
common fibular nn
268
what nn supplies the posterior compartment of the leg
tibial nn
269
what nn supplies the ant mm of the leg and dorsum of the foot
deep fibular nn
270
dermatome receives sensory supply from the skin scross the nipples
T4
271
what nn supplies the supinator
radial
272
what nn supplies teres minor
radial
273
what mm is not innervated by musculocutaneous nn (brachialis, biceps, pec minor, coracobrachialia)
pec minor
274
what nn innervates trap
CN XI
275
what nn supplies quads
femoral
276
what reflex is triggered if the effector in the reflex arc is a skeletal mm
somatic reflex
277
what statement regarding the structures supplied directly by the lumbar plexus is false
it supplies the mm in the post leg
278
what combination of CN NN has a somatic sensory component
1,2,7,8
279
what mm is innervted by CN 7
buccinator
280
what CN innervates the SCM
XI
281
which sympathetic division of the ANS serves the glands of the cranium and face
superior cervical ganglion
282
pathway of the brachial plexus
runs between the 1st rib and clavical
283
what bone forms the lateral aspect and roof of the cranium
parietal
284
what mm of mastication is responsible for depressing mandible
lateral pterygoid
285
what facial bone doesnt contain a paranasal sinus
zygomatic
286
which statement regarding the cervical vertebrae is true
the TVP's of C1 have foramen for the right and left artery
287
what action is the principle movement for the atlanto-axial jt
rotation
288
which sub-occipital orignates from the SP of the atlas and inserts on the nuchal line of the occipital bone
rectus capitus posterior major
289
what mm contributes to protrusion and acts sunergistically with the masseter to elevate the mandible
medial pterygoid
290
what ligament restrains excessive rotation of the head on C1
alar ligament
291
what structure is responsible for protecting the IVD by resisting seperation of the lamina during abrupt flexion of the spine
ligamentum flavum
292
what action is the primary function of the nucleus pulposus
resist and redistribute compressive forces in the vetebral column
293
what movement is limited by the interspinous ligament
flexion of the spine
294
what ligament is described as: inferiorly it attaches to the anterior surface of the sacrum
anterior longitudinal ligament
295
what mm attaches to the post tubercles of the TVP C1-4 and the superior part of the medial border of the scap
lev scap
296
hat mm functions during respiration to elevate the 2nd rib
posterior scalene
297
what is described as a high number of anion phosphates and proteins in the cytosol
why the resting membrane potential in nn cells is negatively charged
298
what event occurs during the repolarization phase to return the nn cell to a -70mV resting membrane potential
an outflow of K+ ions
299
this protects the brain cells from harmful substances and pathogens found in the blood stresm
blood brain barrier
300
the presence of a difference in charge in two different locations
polarity
301
what would slow down the propagation of an action potential, therby temporarily blocking the transmission of pain stimuli to the CNS
application of an ice pack
302
what statement describes the meaning of the CMTO code of ethics principles IV - responsibility to society
to be accountable to society and promote high ethical standards
303
what is the "master gland" of the endocrine system
pituitary gland
304
what symptom is a common finding in both male and female STD infections
generalized fever
