MOCK MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

what decreases basal metabolism?

A

very low caloric intake

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2
Q

what is the etiology of anorexia nervosa

A

self-starvation

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3
Q

what eating disorders is characterized by binge eating followed by purging

A

bulimia nervosa

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4
Q

what statement regarding blood glucose is FALSE

A

blood glucose is converted to ketone bodies

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5
Q

what processe is the main function of carbs

A

provide fuel for energy

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6
Q

what statement regarding essential fatty acids is TRUE?

A

essential fatty acids include linoleic and linolenic acids

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7
Q

what amino acids that can be synthesized by the body

A

non-essential amino acids

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8
Q

what abnormalities can lead to a deficiency in vit A, D, E, or K?

A

abnormal fat absorption

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9
Q

what disease is the result of vit D deficiency

A

rickets

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10
Q

what disease is the result of an iron deficiency

A

anemia

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11
Q

which one of the following is a function of HDL in the blood

A

picks up cholesterol from tissues for elimination from the body

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12
Q

what group has the best source of calcium

A

dairy

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13
Q

what dietary component reduces risk of colon cancer to help prevent diverticulosis?

A

insoluble fibre

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14
Q

which of the following is NOT a function of dietary water

A

prevents hemorrhoids

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15
Q

what phytochemical is considered a non-nutrient health deteriorating chemical?

A

monosodium glutamate

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16
Q

what change is recommended to pregnant women

A

take folic acids supplement prior to and during pregnancy

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17
Q

what final structures is surrounded by the 1st loop of the duodenum

A

head of the pancreas

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18
Q

which two organs does the pyloric sphincter separate

A

stomach and intestine

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19
Q

what quadrant is the hepatic flexure of the colon located

A

right upper abdominal quadrant

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20
Q

the shortest part of the intestine

A

duodenum

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21
Q

name of portion of peritoneum resembling a fatty apron draped over the viscera

A

greater omentum

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22
Q

what organ produces bile

A

liver

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23
Q

name of the left colic flexure

A

splenic flexure

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24
Q

location of the soft palate

A

posterior 1/3 of the roof of the mouth

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25
Q

what pancreatic cells produce insulin

A

lslets of langerhans

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26
Q

what metabolic pathway occurs in the mitochondria and results in the catabolism of fatty acids into acetyl CoA?

A

beta oxidation

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27
Q

what metabolic pathway converts excess sugar into glycogen for storage

A

glycogenesis

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28
Q

what metabolic pathway converts glucose resulting in a net gain of 2 molecules of ATP, NADH and pyruvic acid?

A

glycolysis

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29
Q

which tissue layer stores fats and contains large BV’s that supply the skin

A

subcutaneous layer

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30
Q

which cell forms 90% of epidermal layer

A

keratinocytes

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31
Q

what layer of the epidermis is shed daily and forms calluses?

A

stratum corneum

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32
Q

what is the fiber direction of the rectus abdominis mm

A

vertical

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33
Q

what is described as the output strengthens or reinforces change in the body

A

positive feedback system

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34
Q

which process in the building of new proteins from digested acids?

A

anabolism

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35
Q

what organelle is responsible for protein synthesis

A

ribosome

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36
Q

what organic compounds contain carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and oxygen and from quaternary structures?

A

proteins

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37
Q

what structure functions to give our cells a unique identify

A

glycocalyx

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38
Q

what describes the meaning of the CMTO code of principles I - respect for persons?

A

value the dignity and worth of all persons

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39
Q

what describes the meaning of the CMTO code of ethics principles IV - responsibility to society

A

to be accountable to society and promote high ethical standards

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40
Q

what is the final segment of the small intestine called

A

ileum

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41
Q

what allows for the development of client autonomy

A

obtaining informed consent

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42
Q

how does the college of massage therapists suggest we treat clients knowing their background

A

with respect

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43
Q

empathy is described as

A

compassionate understanding of your clients situation

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44
Q

empowerment of the client is best achieved by

A

informing the client that they may stop the treatment at any time

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45
Q

a client has feelings related to his childhood and being comforted by his mother when he is treated

A

transference

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46
Q

providing sensitive, empathetic quality massage therapy describes CMTO code of ethics principle

A

II - responsible caring

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47
Q

what statements defines the CMTO code of ethics principles III - integrity in relationships

A

to practice with integrity and honesty in our professional relationships

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48
Q

if you continually say negative comments regarding your clients chiropractor you are breaking the CMTO code of ethics principle -

A

III - integrity of relationships

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49
Q

which one of the situations does NOT represent a dual relationship

A

your client was referred by your doctor

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50
Q

which statement represents the most potentially harmful dual relationship

A

treating one of your practical intructors

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51
Q

which one of the following criteria increases client vulnerability

A

breaching client confidentiality

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52
Q

which one of the following statements describes a situation of counter-transference

A

therapist has feelings related to his childhood and being comforted by his mother when he treats a client

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53
Q

communication is defined as

A

complex process involving all verbal and non verbal

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54
Q

which of the following is not a chemical mediator

A

platelets

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55
Q

which process describes the replacement of injured tissue with cells of the same parenchymal type and function

A

tissue regeneration

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56
Q

what term identifies the attraction of WBC toward a microbe

A

emigration

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57
Q

suffix for inflammation

A

itis

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58
Q

redness, heat, swelling and rapid onset. which is NOT a sign of inflammation

A

rapid onset

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59
Q

a decease in cell number

A

hypoplasia

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60
Q

what event is a form of reversible cell injury/alteration

A

cellular swelling

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61
Q

vasospam, dilation, formation of platelet plug and development of fibrin clot. which event of homeostasis does not occur to reduce bleeding

A

vasodilation

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62
Q

what situation will likely result in the best resolution after injury

A

a labile tissue type is affected and there is minimal tissue destruction

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63
Q

which is NOT the cause of px during acute inflammation (swelling, nn damage, presence of RBC, presence of chemical mediators)

A

presence of RBC

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64
Q

sequence of cellular and tissue events that take place at initial contact with a causative agent until the disease is expressed

A

pathogensis

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65
Q

elimination of worn out cells (cellular suicide)

A

apoptosis

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66
Q

wound healing phase where there is building of new tissues and the formaiton of granulation tissue

A

proliferative phase

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67
Q

signs of urticaria?

A

puritis and stinging red wheals

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68
Q

what describes psoriasis

A

chronic genetic epidermal proliferation

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69
Q

skin disease that is latent and travels along a sensory nn and causes severe px along the nn’s distribution

A

herpes zoster

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70
Q

a neoplasm of the non-keratinized cells of the basal layer of the epidermis

A

basal cell carcinoma

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71
Q

polyuria, dipsia and phagia and symptoms of what

A

diabetes

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72
Q

what is esophagitis

A

infammation of the esophagus

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73
Q

what is gastro esophegeal reflux

A

reflux of stomach acid contents into the esophagus

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74
Q

what is dysphagia

A

difficulty or inability to swallow

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75
Q

which of the following involving peptic ulcers is correct

A

they are most often found in the duodenum

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76
Q

what is associated with chron’s disease

A

inflammation of the distal ileum

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77
Q

most common etiology of IBS?

A

stress

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78
Q

what sx & sx is associated with diverticulutis

A

lower left qudrant pain

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79
Q

what describes cirrhosis

A

scar tissue replaces normal healthy tissue in the liver

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80
Q

symptom when bilirubin builds up in the BS

A

jaundice

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81
Q

what is known as gallstone

A

cholelithiasis

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82
Q

what is ascites

A

peritoneal fluid build up

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83
Q

what mm is the strongest hip flexor

A

iliopsoas

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84
Q

what glute mm abducts and medially rotates the thigh

A

glute minimus

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85
Q

what type of bone is the patella

A

sesamoid

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86
Q

how many cunieforms are in the foot

A

3

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87
Q

which hip ligament is located posteriorly, spirals down the acetabular rim and attaches to the femoral neck b/t greater & lesser trochater

A

ishiofemoral ligament

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88
Q

what group of mm are the primary extensor of the knee

A

quadriceps group

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89
Q

which ligament is the main stabilizing structure of the femur during weight bearing and flexion of the knee

A

posterior cruciate

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90
Q

which muscle out of the following does not attach to the ishial tuberosity (semimem, semitend, short head of biceps femoris or long head)

A

short head of biceps femoris

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91
Q

anatomical structure that is fat filled, diamond shaped on posterior knee

A

popliteal fossa

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92
Q

common tendon for solus and gastroc

A

calcaneal tendon

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93
Q

what mm flexes the lateral 4 digits

A

flexor digitorum brevis

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94
Q

NSAID’s stand for

A

non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

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95
Q

what condition does insulin treat

A

diabetes

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96
Q

what mm tissue is found in the skin, organs and vessels of the body

A

smooth mm

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97
Q

what property of mm tissue is defined as the ability to return to its original shape and length after contraction

A

elasticity

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98
Q

what forms a tendon

A

extensions of deep fascial CT that surround the mm, fascicles and fibers

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99
Q

what skeletal mm structure stores calcium ions for mm contraction

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

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100
Q

what is the functional unit of a myofibril?

A

the sarcomere

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101
Q

what protein forms the thick filament in a sarcomere

A

myosin

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102
Q

which protein holds tropmyosin in place over the myosin binding sites

A

troponin

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103
Q

where does ATP bind to the sarcomere during contraction

A

the myosin head

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104
Q

what statement regaring the sliding filament theory is false

A

the cross bridges are formed by the attachment of titan and actin

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105
Q

what occurs due to an increased resistance to hepatic blood flow

A

portal hypertension

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106
Q

what event triggers calcium release channels to open during excitation of a mm fiber allowing Ca+ to flood around the sarcomere

A

propagation of a mm action potenial along the sarcolemma

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107
Q

what isnt a function of ATP in mm contraction

A

ATP is hydrolyzed into AMP creating energy for the action potential

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108
Q

what is the function of acetylcholine within the neuromuscular junction

A

to bind to receptors that open sodium channels on the motor end plate

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109
Q

which molecule is found only in mm tissue and supplies oxygen for ATP production

A

myoglobin

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110
Q

which is a characteristic of fast oxidative-glycolytic mm

A

they have a moderately high resistance to fatigue so they function during moderate activity like walking

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111
Q

which statement describes cardiac mm tissue

A

the cylindrical fibers are branched and attach at the ends via intercalated discs

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112
Q

what is the function of a pericyte in mm tissue

A

they are stem cells found in blood capillaries that can regenerate smooth mm tissue

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113
Q

how is a joint classified when it permits movements around 3 axis

A

multiaxial

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114
Q

which movements are permitted on a biaxial joint?

A

flexion, extension, ABduction, ADduction, circumduction

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115
Q

what is a function of a bursa

A

to form a closed sac that prevents friction between soft tissues that meet such as between skin and bone or bone and tendon

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116
Q

boney structure that is defined as: a sheath of dense irregular CT surrounding the shaft and is responsible for lateral growth, protecting, repairing fractures and nourishing the bone tissue

A

peiosteum

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117
Q

what bone cell is unable to divide but is a mature cell that maintains daily metabolism of bone?

A

osteocyte

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118
Q

which of the statement regarding bone is true

A

hydropxyapatite are mineral salts that crystals in bone creating the hardness of bone

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119
Q

what describes a partial break occuring in children due to the flexible nature of the bone

A

greenstick fracture

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120
Q

define a compound fracture

A

a fracture that results in the bone protruding from the skin

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121
Q

what direction does new bone form during the remodeling phase

A

along the lines of stress

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122
Q

what is NOT a factor in the healing of bone after a fracture

A

presence of microbe or foreign object

123
Q

which bones is broken when the term “broken hip” is used

A

neck of the femur

124
Q

which statement regarding the mechanism of shock absoption in the feet is false

A

the ligaments and bones of the foot resist movement creating stability over uneven surfaces

125
Q

which mm forms the superloateral border of the popliteal fossa

A

biceps femoris

126
Q

which set of anterior compartment muscles share a synovial sheath

A

extensor digitorum longus and fibularis tertius

127
Q

which landmark is the distal attachment of the extensor hallicus longus

A

dorsum of the base of the phalanx of the great toe

128
Q

what landmark is the distal attachment of tib ant

A

medial and inferior surface of medial cuneiform and base of 1st metatarsal

129
Q

what mm extends the great toe and dorsiflexes the ankle

A

extensor hallicus longus

130
Q

which mm everts the foot and attaches to the head of the fibula

A

fibularis longus

131
Q

which landmark is the distal attachment of psoas major

A

lesser trochater

132
Q

which mm is the tailors mm

A

sartorius

133
Q

what mm adducts the thigh and rotates the leg medially

A

gracilis

134
Q

distal attachment of semitendonosis

A

medial tibia at pes anserine

135
Q

cardinal signs in inflammation

A

redness, heat, swelling, px, loss of function

136
Q

what event is responsible for localizing the spread of infection at an injury site

A

stagnation of BF and blood clotting at capillary bed

137
Q

what is responsible for causing pan at the vascular stage of inflammation

A

fluid accumulation in the tissues around the injury

138
Q

which soft tissue injury results in town skin increasing the risk of infection

A

laceration

139
Q

small piece of bone or carilage floating free in the joint space

A

loose body

140
Q

which statement describes opportunistic infection

A

ability of a pathogen to cuse infection when the hosts immune system is comprimised

141
Q

bone tumor

A

osteoma

142
Q

bony outgrowth at the joint margins during OA

A

osteophytes

143
Q

what statement regarding secondary OA is false

A

impact exercise if necessary after immobilization to increase the pumping action of the joint to facilitate lubrication of the damaged cartilage

144
Q

what pathological changes occur in the fingers of someone with OA

A

bouchard and herberden nodes

145
Q

what statement is false regarding arthrits in children

A

they will always grow to full adult height

146
Q

what joint is primairly affeted by ankylosing

A

SI

147
Q

what arthritic condition does not involve disorder of immunity

A

OA

148
Q

what arthritic condition is an autoimmune disease

A

RA

149
Q

what anatomical structure does osgood schlatter disease affect

A

tibial tuberosity

150
Q

what treatment is used to correct club foot

A

on going manipulations and casting to hold each change gently alter the portions of the foot

151
Q

first maifestation of osteoporosis

A

skeletal fracture

152
Q

what is NOT a factor of osteoporosis

A

phosphate levels

153
Q

what describes the female athele triad

A

disorder pattern of eating that leads to amenorrhea and osteoporosis

154
Q

process that is accepted pathogenesis of osteoporosis

A

an imbalance that allows bone reabsorption to exceed bone formation

155
Q

for consent to be valid:

A

must be related to the treatment, informed and voluntary

156
Q

the assistance of a substitue decision maker must be obtained if:

A

the therapist believes that the client has not understood the infromation about the treatment

157
Q

the scope of practice of the massage therapy profession includes

A

the assessment and treatment of soft tissue and joints to relieve pain

158
Q

kelly, a 14 yo girl looking for treatment for back pain. arrives alone for her first appt, she says her mother will pick her up and pay. which approach is the therapist legally obligated to follow

A

therpaist cannot treat her as her parent/guardian must be present to give informed consent

159
Q

what statement describes zero tolerance

A

there shall be no sexual interaction between therapist and client even if client initiates it

160
Q

treating an athelete at a marathon. she informs you that at another race she thinks she was sexually abused by a RMT. what are you obligated to do

A

you should not become involved in any way

161
Q

how many lobes and fissures does the right lung has

A

3 lobes 2 fissures

162
Q

inhalation and exhaltion of air between the atmosphere and the alveoli of the lungs

A

pulmonary ventilation

163
Q

upward and outward movement of chest due to contraction of external intercostal mms

A

costal breathing

164
Q

diastole

A

period when ventricles are relaxed

165
Q

purpose of atrial contraction

A

pump blood into ventricles

166
Q

what mm does not attach to scap (coracobrachialis, pec maj, pec min, teres min)

A

pec maj

167
Q

which process is NOT a function of the stress response or GAS?

A

enhanced activity and function of the immune system via epinepherine and cortisol

168
Q

purpose of anastomosis

A

connection between arteries provides a redundant supply of oxygen to tissues

169
Q

which term describes amount of blood ejected from the heart with each beat

A

stroke volume

170
Q

what joint is the only bony articulation between the upper limb and the axial skeleton

A

sternoclavicular

171
Q

what ligament forms a retinaculum for the tendon of the long head of biceps

A

transverse humeral

172
Q

what mm is a supinator of the forearm

A

biceps brachaii

173
Q

what joint primarilty responisble for opposition of the thumb

A

first carpometacarpal

174
Q

how many articulations are found within the capsule of the elbow joint

A

3

175
Q

which joint is the principle joint to allow pronation and supnation of the forearm

A

radioulanr

176
Q

what carpal bone is part of the 1st carpometacarpal joint

A

trapezium

177
Q

what structure supports the testes in the male

A

scrotum

178
Q

what mm of the scrotum is continuous with the internal oblique and attaches to the pubic bone

A

cremaster mm

179
Q

what mm wrinkles the surface of the scrotum upon contraction, reduing the surface area for heat loss

A

dartos mm

180
Q

what cells are responsible for the process called spermination

A

sertoli cells

181
Q

what cell produces testosterone

A

leydig cells

182
Q

average menstrual cycle and ovulation

A

mensturation is 28 days with ovulation occuring on day 14

183
Q

what hormone prolongs life of the corpus luteum after an ovum is fertilized and during pregnancy

A

HCG

184
Q

what hormone is responsible for causing ovulation

A

LH

185
Q

what hormone stimulates the breasts to let down/eject milk

A

oxytocin

186
Q

what hormonal triggers starts menstruation

A

blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease rapidly

187
Q

what groups of organs is the uterus between

A

the urinary bladdar and the rectum

188
Q

what structure does the ejaculatory duct drain into

A

urethra

189
Q

what tissue does a fertilized ovum implant

A

endometrium

190
Q

what statement regarding pregnancy is false

A

fetus is fully formed at 2nd moth

191
Q

what bones articulate with the radius

A

scaphoid and lunate

192
Q

what disease has symptoms of weight loss, dysmenorrhea, nervousness, extreme fatigue, heat-intolerance and exophthalmos

A

hyperthyroidism

193
Q

what event does ADH prevent

A

output of large amounts of urine

194
Q

what hormone is relased by ant pituitary (GH, TRH, ADH, oxytocin)

A

GH

195
Q

function of palmaris longus

A

tenses palmar aponeurosis

196
Q

what location contains the receptors for protein based hormones

A

on the cell membrane

197
Q

what is the target for ADH

A

nephron

198
Q

what pancreatic cell releases insulin

A

beta cells

199
Q

which does not attach to the humerus (flexor carpi radialis, brachialis, biceps brachaii, triceps)

A

biceps brachaii

200
Q

name of the joint between the head of the humerus and glenoid fossa

A

GH

201
Q

what pair of mms will attach to the clavical, acromion, and spine of scap

A

deltoid & trap

202
Q

what bone is NOT considered attachment for pec major (sternum, scap, clavical, humerus)

A

scapula

203
Q

the function on calcitonin

A

lowers blood calcium

204
Q

what mm does not attach to the scap (trap, lev scap, rom maj, lats)

A

lats

205
Q

what process causes testicular torsion

A

twisting of the spermatic cord that suspends the testis and spermatic vessels

206
Q

what about prostate cancer is true

A

diets high in fat and altered sex hormone production can increas the risk of prostate cancer

207
Q

what yearly screening test is citical in early diagnosis of prostate cancer

A

PSA blood test

208
Q

which STI is life long and reoccuring

A

genital herpes

209
Q

what STD is the etiology of cervical cancer

A

HPV

210
Q

what symptom is common in male and female STD

A

generalized fever

211
Q

endometriosis

A

endometrial tissue found in the pelvic cavity

212
Q

what predisposes women do pelvic inflammatory disease

A

multiple sexual partners

213
Q

normal menstrual cycles and flow

A

menorrhea

214
Q

what is NOT associated with amenorrhea (infection, anorexia, strenous physical exercise, heavy periods in pre menopausal women)

A

heavy periods in pre menopausal women

215
Q

what occurs in healthy women with no pathology present

A

metorrhagia

216
Q

what condition is symptoms of swollen breast, bloating, abdominal px, headache, depression, irritability, anxiety and clumisness

A

prementrual syndrome

217
Q

inflammation of the breast

A

mastitis

218
Q

which disease is cause by inflammation of the kidney, parenchyma and renal pelvis

A

pyelonephritis

219
Q

is acute renal failure an irriversible disease?

A

yes

220
Q

nephrotic syndrome

A

disorder that increases the premeability of the glomerular capillary with loss of proteins

221
Q

scientific name for kidney stones

A

calculi

222
Q

why do patients with pulmonary embolisms have very few and mild symptoms

A

the lungs have redundant or collateral blood circulation

223
Q

what serious condition is described as retrograde pressure on the right ventricle that leads to hypertrophy os the RV and creates chronic pulmonry hypertension

A

cor pulmonale

224
Q

most likely location of pulmonary embolism

A

deep vein in legs

225
Q

difficulty breathing while lying down

A

orthopnea

226
Q

anatomical changes found with emphysema

A

SCM hypertrophies, shoulder elevation and expansion of ribs

227
Q

what list of manifestations occur with an asthma attack

A

dyspnea, wheezing, with difficulty exhaling

228
Q

the action of ‘hold the airway open’ and prevents alveolar collapse is known as

A

pursed lip breathing

229
Q

inflammation of one or more bronchiols is associates with what

A

bronchitis

230
Q

air entering the pleural cavity

A

pneumothorax

231
Q

what occurs when emphysema, bronchittis or asthma becomes a chronic event

A

COPD

232
Q

what disease manifests as color change in the skin from white to blue to red

A

raynauds

233
Q

pinpoint hemorrhage

A

petechia

234
Q

do anticoagulants contribute to the formation of DVT?

A

no

235
Q

what location develops accumulation of edema in the early stages of left ventricle heart failure

A

legs

236
Q

“hole in the heart”

A

atrial septal defect

237
Q

which is the following symtoms is not found in angina pectoris (wheezing, severe chest px, left arm radiation, sudden onset of px)

A

left arm radiation

238
Q

what part of the neuron is responisble for increasing the surface area of reception

A

dendrites

239
Q

what is cranial nn 4

A

trochlear

240
Q

which of the following statements regarding the left cerebrum is FALSE

A

the left cerebrum communicates with the right cerebellum

241
Q

what tract carries sensory info regarding propriocetion, touch and vibration

A

posterior (dorsal) columns

242
Q

what spinal nn branch supplies the zypophyseal joints, splenius, erector spinae, and transversospinalis group

A

anteror rami

243
Q

which structure is the site of CSF production

A

choroid process

244
Q

what is the structure for CSF reabsorption

A

arachnoid villi

245
Q

what structure is the raised portions of the cerebral cortex

A

gyri

246
Q

what lobe contains the brocas area

A

left frontal lobe

247
Q

what lobe of the brain contains wernikes area

A

left parietal lobe

248
Q

what ligament ia attached to adjacent laminae and has the highest percentage of elastic fibers enhancing its function

A

ligamentum flavum

249
Q

number of mobile vertebrae

A

24

250
Q

which ligament is closest to the skin (interspinous, supraspinous, intertransverse, posterior longitudinal)

A

supraspinous

251
Q

what mm runs between the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae

A

interspinalis

252
Q

what mm of the following back mms is the deepest transversospinalis group) (spinalis, rotators, multifidis, semispinalis)

A

rotators

253
Q

what structure is the superior continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament

A

cruciform ligament

254
Q

which mm is found in the superficial layer of the deep group of back mms with proximal attachments on the nuchal ligament and spinous process of C7-T3 or T4?

A

splenius

255
Q

what CN NN provides parasympathetic innervations to the parotid gland

A

CN 9

256
Q

what CN NN innervates the eyeball causing abduction

A

ABducens

257
Q

what structure is the term for the “white of the eye”

A

sclera

258
Q

sequence of sound waves

A

tympanic membrane - malleous - incus - stapes - oval window

259
Q

blind spot

A

optic disc

260
Q

what structure contains BV’s that a doc can view directly

A

retina

261
Q

the role of the basal ganglia

A

controls movement and suppress unwanted movements

262
Q

function of parasympathetic nervous system

A

the response includes salvation, urination and digestion

263
Q

what statement involving the ANS is false

A

only a few tissues in the body can respond to sympathetic stimulation

264
Q

what neuron conducts impulses from somatic receptors into the brain or SC

A

1st order

265
Q

what CN NN is implicatied in trigeminal neuralgia

A

CN 5

266
Q

what CN NN is damaged if a person experiences vertigo and tinnitus

A

CN 8

267
Q

what nn gives rise to the sural nn

A

common fibular nn

268
Q

what nn supplies the posterior compartment of the leg

A

tibial nn

269
Q

what nn supplies the ant mm of the leg and dorsum of the foot

A

deep fibular nn

270
Q

dermatome receives sensory supply from the skin scross the nipples

A

T4

271
Q

what nn supplies the supinator

A

radial

272
Q

what nn supplies teres minor

A

radial

273
Q

what mm is not innervated by musculocutaneous nn (brachialis, biceps, pec minor, coracobrachialia)

A

pec minor

274
Q

what nn innervates trap

A

CN XI

275
Q

what nn supplies quads

A

femoral

276
Q

what reflex is triggered if the effector in the reflex arc is a skeletal mm

A

somatic reflex

277
Q

what statement regarding the structures supplied directly by the lumbar plexus is false

A

it supplies the mm in the post leg

278
Q

what combination of CN NN has a somatic sensory component

A

1,2,7,8

279
Q

what mm is innervted by CN 7

A

buccinator

280
Q

what CN innervates the SCM

A

XI

281
Q

which sympathetic division of the ANS serves the glands of the cranium and face

A

superior cervical ganglion

282
Q

pathway of the brachial plexus

A

runs between the 1st rib and clavical

283
Q

what bone forms the lateral aspect and roof of the cranium

A

parietal

284
Q

what mm of mastication is responsible for depressing mandible

A

lateral pterygoid

285
Q

what facial bone doesnt contain a paranasal sinus

A

zygomatic

286
Q

which statement regarding the cervical vertebrae is true

A

the TVP’s of C1 have foramen for the right and left artery

287
Q

what action is the principle movement for the atlanto-axial jt

A

rotation

288
Q

which sub-occipital orignates from the SP of the atlas and inserts on the nuchal line of the occipital bone

A

rectus capitus posterior major

289
Q

what mm contributes to protrusion and acts sunergistically with the masseter to elevate the mandible

A

medial pterygoid

290
Q

what ligament restrains excessive rotation of the head on C1

A

alar ligament

291
Q

what structure is responsible for protecting the IVD by resisting seperation of the lamina during abrupt flexion of the spine

A

ligamentum flavum

292
Q

what action is the primary function of the nucleus pulposus

A

resist and redistribute compressive forces in the vetebral column

293
Q

what movement is limited by the interspinous ligament

A

flexion of the spine

294
Q

what ligament is described as: inferiorly it attaches to the anterior surface of the sacrum

A

anterior longitudinal ligament

295
Q

what mm attaches to the post tubercles of the TVP C1-4 and the superior part of the medial border of the scap

A

lev scap

296
Q

hat mm functions during respiration to elevate the 2nd rib

A

posterior scalene

297
Q

what is described as a high number of anion phosphates and proteins in the cytosol

A

why the resting membrane potential in nn cells is negatively charged

298
Q

what event occurs during the repolarization phase to return the nn cell to a -70mV resting membrane potential

A

an outflow of K+ ions

299
Q

this protects the brain cells from harmful substances and pathogens found in the blood stresm

A

blood brain barrier

300
Q

the presence of a difference in charge in two different locations

A

polarity

301
Q

what would slow down the propagation of an action potential, therby temporarily blocking the transmission of pain stimuli to the CNS

A

application of an ice pack

302
Q

what statement describes the meaning of the CMTO code of ethics principles IV - responsibility to society

A

to be accountable to society and promote high ethical standards

303
Q

what is the “master gland” of the endocrine system

A

pituitary gland

304
Q

what symptom is a common finding in both male and female STD infections

A

generalized fever