Mock Exam Questions

Question 1

Which of the following is a potential risk factor for mental health illness?
a. good self esteem
b. low income and poverty
c. ability to problem solve
d. physical security.

Answer 1

Low income and poverty.

Question 2

What symptom is not commonly seen in bipolar?
a. depression
b. mania
c. auditory hallucination

Answer 2

Auditory hallucinations.

Question 3

You are doing a mental health assessment and note that Stewart has limited eye contact and has been wringing his hands - you would document this under what part of an MSE?
a. affect
b. mood
c. behaviour

Answer 3

Behaviour - appearance.

Question 4

Shelly has told you that she is currently smoking cannabis, this is regular on a weekly basis. This information is documented in the following section of MHA?
a. personal history
b. goals for treatment.
c. premorbid history.
d. safety and risk.

Answer 4

Personal history.

Question 5

Mrs C is a 32 year old women, she has presented to her GP with low mood, tearfulness and loss of appetite over the last 3 months after having a miscarriage in her third trimester. She works as a bank teller and says this is mentally demanding job, which at times she is struggling with, she is finding it hard to find enjoyment in activities and is doing less that she used to do.
The above information is all related to:
a. impact on function
b. risk factors
c. protective factors
d. personal history.

Answer 5

Risk factors

Question 6

Which of the following statements is true about PRN medication?
a. should be considered in partnership with tangata whaiora.
b. interventions used as a way of controlling unwanted tangata whaiora behaviours.
c. intervention that nurses use when they deem it appropriate.
d. used to eliminate risk and violence.

Answer 6

Should be considered in partnership with tangata whaiora.

Question 7

Judy has a diagnosis of schizophrenia, she is experiencing positive symptoms of the disease. The following are all known positive symptoms:
a. flattened affect, apathy, anhedonia.
b. delusions, disorganisation, agitation
c. psychosis, concrete thinking, social isolation.

Answer 7

Delusions, disorganisation, agitation.

Question 8

A histronic personality disorder includes the following components:
a. Brims with self importance, preoccupied with fantasties of power and success, profound belief they are special.
b. Craves being the centre of attentions, sexually seductive behaviour, easily led by others.
c. Disregard for law and rights of others, reckless and aggresive behaviour, no remorse.
d. Intense and unstable mood, impulsive and destructive behaviours, recurrent suicidal behaviour.

Answer 8

Craves being the centre of attention, sexually seductive behaviour, easily led by others.

Question 9

Predisposing factors include:
a. past personal and family history.
b. stressors or other events.
c. statement of the client’s problems.
d. things that maintain the current problems.

Answer 9

Past personal and family history.

Question 10

The appropriate mental distress screening tool for adolescent age group is:
a. BECKS
b. HEADSS
c. DESSLER-10
d. DASS

Answer 10

HEADSS

Question 11

The following are all key concepts of a WRAP:
a. self-advocacy, hopelessness, education
b. hope, education, clinician responsibility.
c. education, self-advocacy, personal responsibility.

Answer 11

Education, self-advocacy, personal responsibility.

Question 12

Mavis is a 62 year old women who is responding to NAS when you ask her what is experiencing she says ‘ you can’t seem them?’ ‘they come in every afternoon’ ‘ they won’t listen to me.’
This would be best characterised as a:
a. hallucination
b. delusion
c. euthymia
d. thought derailment.

Answer 12

Hallucination

Question 13

EPSE side effects are most commonly associated with:
a. atypical antipsychotics
b. typical antipsychotics.

Answer 13

Typical antipsychotics.

Question 14

While there are similarties in some talk therapies. Mindfulness, distress tolerance, emotion regulation and interpersonal effectiveness are all skill building approaches of which talking therapy.
a. MI
b. ACT
c. DBT

Answer 14

DBT

Question 15

The GAD-7 is a screening tool commonly used to assess the severity of what potential condition?
a. depression
b. anxiety
c. bipolar
d. cognition

Answer 15

Anxiety.

Question 16

OARS, ACE and EDRAS are all acronyms associated with which talking therapy?
a. CBT
b. MI
c. ACT
d. DBT

Answer 16

MI

Question 17

People can build on their resiliency by adapting a external locus of control?
a. true
b. false

Answer 17

false

Question 18

Things that set us off with a strong emotional reaction where we feel we have to do something about it are known as what type of triggers in behaviour change?
a. volcanoes
b. emotional dysregulation
c. memory maps
d. heart strings

Answer 18

volcanoes

Question 19

For the patient taking paracetamol, what should the nurse do? (select all that may apply).
a. encourage the patient to check package labels of OTC drugs to avoid overdosing.
b. report side effects immediatley, as toxicity can cause sever hepatic damage.
c. teach the patient that caffeine decreases the effects of paracetamol.
d. monitor routine liver enzyme tests.
e. teach the female patient that oral contraceptives can increase the effect of paracetamol.

Answer 19

Encourage the patient to check package labels of OTC drugs to avoid overdosing.
Report side effects immediately, as toxicity can cause severe hepatic damage.
Monitor routine liver enzyme tests.

Question 20

What is the most appropriate way to assess the level of pain of a patient who is orientate and has recently had surgery?
a. ask the patient to describe the effect pain has on the ability to cope.
b. ask the patient to rate the level of pain.
c. assess the patients body language.
d. observe cardiac monitor for increased HR.

Answer 20

Ask the patient to rate the level of pain.

Question 21

A patient states during a medical history that he takes several paracetamol tablets throughout the day for pain. The nurse teaches the patient that the dosage should not exceed which amount?
a. 4g per day
b. 1g per day
c. 3g per day
d. 2g per day

Answer 21

4g per day.

Question 22

For the patient recieving periodic morphine via intravenous push, which of the following findings would be of utmost concern to the nurse?
a. increased temp
b. decreased resps
c. increase RBC
d. decreased bowel sounds.

Answer 22

Decreased respirations.

Question 23

The nurse is caring for two patients. The first patient had a hysterectomy after a complicated birth. The second patient also had a hysterectomy due to uterine cancer. What will most likely influence the experience of pain for these two patients?
a. competency of the surgeon.
b. meaning of pain.
c. neurological factors.
d. postoperative support personnel.

Answer 23

meaning of pain.

Question 24

What do we call microbes that cause infection?
a. pathogens
b. antibiotics
c. cell walls
d. quinolones

Answer 24

pathogens

Question 25

How do Macrolides act on pathogens?
a. halting protein synthesis.
b. using viruses to kill bacteria.
c. breaking the cell wall.
d. breaking DNA strangs

Answer 25

Halting protein synthesis

Question 26

What are the active components of antibiotics that kill pathogens?
a. only certain types of fungi.
b. Viruses
c. only bacteria
d. fungi and bacteria

Answer 26

Fungi and bacteria

Question 27

The word ‘antibiotic’ literally means?
a. against life
b. against bacteria
c. pathogen death
d. with life

Answer 27

Against life

Question 28

Which class of antibiotics causes rupture of the cell because of an incomplete cell wall?
a. quinolones
b. macrolides
c. beta-lactam

Answer 28

Beta-Lactam

Question 29

How do eukaryotic and bacterial ribosomes differ?
a. Through their structures are basically identical, eukaryotes have 70s ribosomes and bacteria have 80s ribosomes.
b. eukaryotes have 80s ribosomes and bacteria have 70s ribosomes, and their structures have significant differences.
c. Though their structures are basically identical, eukaryotes have 80s ribosomes and bacteria have 70s ribosomes.

Answer 29

Eukaryotes have 80S ribosomes and bacteria have 70s ribosomes, and their structures have significant differences.

Question 30

Which one of these antibiotics blocks the tunnel where the polypetide chain is supposed to come out?
a. tetracycline
b. chloramphenicol
c. erythromycin
d. streptomycin

Answer 30

Erythromycin

Question 31

Which of these antibiotics causes the genetic code of mRNA sequence to be misread?
a. erythromycin
b. tetracycline
c. streptomycin
d. chloramphenicol

Answer 31

Streptomycin

Question 32

How are antibiotics different from vaccines?
a. antibiotics are live vaccines.
b. antibiotics later immune systems, vaccines kill of microorganisms
c. antibiotics are inactivated vaccines.
d. antibiotics kill off microorganisms, vaccines alter immune systems.

Answer 32

Antibiotics kill of microorganisms, vaccines alter immune systems.

Question 33

Why are there so many different kinds of antibiotics?
a. you need to combine antibiotics to combat certain diseases, so there needs to be a variety.
b. there is really only one kind of antibiotic, buy many different companies produce it.
c. different regions need different antibiotics.
d. different antibiotics combat a different set of diseases.

Answer 33

Different antibiotics combat a different set of diseases.

Question 34

Why are live vaccines potentially more dangerous than inactivated vaccines?
a. There’s always a chance the live vaccine could mutate back into its disease causing form.
b. Live vaccines and inactivated vaccines are both equally dangerous.
c. live vaccines contain more harmful viruses, while inactivated vaccines are only used for less harmful viruses.
d. a person requires several shots of a live vaccine compared to one of an inactivated vaccine.

Answer 34

There’s always a chance the live vaccine could mutate back into its disease causing form.

Question 35

Why was the discovery of germ theory so important?
a. it helped to decrease TB rates.
b. it led to the discover of antibiotics.
c. it led to the discovery of vaccines.
d. it increased people’s life spans by changing medicine, food prep and waste disposal.

Answer 35

It increased people’s life spans by changing medicine, food preparation, and waste disposal.

Question 36

What is the difference between a chronic viral infection and an acute viral infection?
a. chronic viral infections mainly infect the immune system, where as acute viral infections affect the liver.
b. acute viral infections come on and resolve quickly.
c. acute viral infections are transmitted through coughs, but chronic viral infections are usually sexually transmitted.
d. chronic viral infections come on and resolve quickly.

Answer 36

Acute viral infections come on and resolve quickly.

Question 37

Which of the following are examples of an acute viral infection?
a. TB - long term disease caused by the bacteria mycobacterium TB.
b. HIV - disease that effects the immune system over the patients entire life.
c. Influenza, or the flu, which lasts for one to two weeks and usually resolves quickly.
d. Herpes, a virus that infects the genitals and mouth and has dormant and active stages over a person’s lifetime.

Answer 37

Influenza, or the flue, which lasts for one to two weeks and usually resolves quickly.

Question 38

Why is the cell wall a good target for an antibiotic?
a. the cell wall is where nucleic acid synthesis occurs, so antibitotics that target the cell wall are doubly toxic.
b. the animal cell wall is very different than the bacterial cell wall, and it is essential for their survival.
c. animal cells don’t have cell walls, but nearly all bacteria do, and they’re essential for their survival.
d. the cell wall is not used as an antibiotic target because bacterial and animal cell walls are too similar to each other.

Answer 38

Animal cells don’t have cell walls, but nearly all bacteria do and they are essential for their survival.

Question 39

Which of the following is NOT a good target for a selectively toxic antimicrobial drug?
a. histones
b. protein synthesis
c. the cell wall.
d. the plasma membrane

Answer 39

Histones.

Question 40

Why do antibiotics that inhibit the bacterial ribosome sometimes produce mild toxicity in humans?
a. because antibiotics are slightly toxic to humans.
b. because ribosomes inhibitors are, by definition, toxic.
c. Because once the bacterial ribosomes are inhibited, the bacteria become poisonous waste in the human body.
d. because the human mitochondrial ribosome is too similar to the bacterial ribosome.

Answer 40

Because the human mitochondrial ribosome is too similar to the bacterial ribosome.

Question 41

Acyclovir is used to treat which of the following viruses?
a. rhinovirus
b. influenza
c. rotovirus
d. herpes simplex 1

Answer 41

herpes simplex 1

Question 42

Viruses can be cured by:
a. vaccines
b. none listed
c. antibiotics
d. antivirals

Answer 42

None listed.

Question 43

Common side effects of acyclovir include:
a. nausea
b. diarrhoea
c. headache
d. vomiting
e. all of the above.

Answer 43

All of the above

Question 44

Viruses survive by infecting a living host and taking control over:
a. the replication process of the cell.
b. the cell structure.
c. the waster removal of the cell.
d. the energy conversion in the cell.

Answer 44

The replication process of the cell.

Question 45

Which of the following can prevent infection by HPV?
a. isolation upon infection in the hospital.
b. hand washing and hygienic practices.
c. vaccines and precautions for safe sex.
d. there is no way to prevent HPV infection, but antiviral treatments are available.

Answer 45

Vaccines and precautions for safe sex

Question 46

Which of the following is a virus that induces oncogenesis?
a. Human immunodeficiency viruses (HIV)
b. rhino virus
c. Ebola
d. human papilloma virus (HPV)

Answer 46

HPV

Question 47

Why do human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infections return even after many years of antiviral treatment?
a. HIV is a oncogenic drug that causes uncontrolled cell growth, which actively inhibits any antiviral treatment.
b. HIV is a latent virus that can hide in host cells, unaffected by antiviral treatment regimens.
c. HIV is lytic virus that lyses host cells too quickly for antiviral treatments to be effective.

Answer 47

HIV is a latent virus that can hide inside host cells, unaffected by antiviral treatment regimens.

Question 48

Which of the following is an example of a virus in the latent cycle?
a. the chicken pox virus inserts its genome into cells of the nervous system and can become dormant for many years.
b. the human rhinovirus that causes the common cold infects cells of the upper respiratory system and exits them through cell lysis.
c. Marburg virus infects a variety of tissues causing large scale cellular death and internal haemorrhaging.
d. herpes virus infects endothelial cells of the mouth and genitals leading to viral production and cell death.

Answer 48

The chicken pox virus inserts its genome into cells of the nervous system and can become dormant for many yearts.