Mock exam Flashcards
The Contraception, Sterilisation and Abortion act 1977, as amended in 1990, states that nurses
a) Are not able to give any contraceptives
b) Are able to inform parents of the family planning visit
c) can give information of advice on the use of oral contraceptives to people of any age
d) can give advice on sexual health but not on the use of oral contraceptives.
c) can give information of advice on the use of oral contraceptives to people of any age
The nurse is assessing a client who desires an effective contraceptive method. Which assessment finding would possibly contraindicate the use of an oral contraceptive by the client.
a) Anaemia
b) Age 24
c) Irregular menstrual cycles
d) History of thrombophlebitis
B) History of thrombophlebitis
A history of thrombophlebitis (inflammation of a vein with clot formation) is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of developing blood clots (thromboembolism) with hormonal contraceptives.
The best time frame for taking the Emergency Contraceptive Pill to achieve a 96-99% efficacy rate is:
a) Within 1-12 hours
b) Within 24 hours
c) At 6 hourly intervals
d) Within 72 hours
Taking the ECP within 72 hours (3 days) after unprotected intercourse or contraceptive failure is recommended for maximum effectiveness. While taking it earlier (such as within 1-12 hours) may slightly increase effectiveness, taking it within 72 hours still provides a high efficacy rate.
C) Within 72 hours
Take the tablet as soon as possible, preferably within 12 hours, and no later than 72 hours (3 days) after you have had unprotected sex.
Jane asks you about the Emergency Contraceptive pill. Which of these statements is incorrect?
a) It changes the lining of your uterus so a fertilised egg cannot implant and develop
b) it makes the sperm inactive
c) it delays the release of an egg from your ovary until sperm are no longer active
d) there is a 96-99% chance that the pill will be effective.
c) it delays the release of an egg from your ovary until sperm are no longer active
This statement is incorrect because the ECP primarily works by preventing or delaying ovulation (release of an egg from the ovary) rather than delaying the release of an egg until sperm are no longer active. The ECP may also affect the cervical mucus and the lining of the uterus to prevent fertilization and implantation, but its primary mechanism of action is to prevent ovulation. Therefore, option c) is the correct answer.
How does the combined contraceptive Pill work to prevent pregnancy?
a) The hormones contained in the pill kill the sperm
b) The hormones in the pill prevent ovulation (the release of the ovum from the ovaries)
c) The hormones contained in the pill cause early miscarriage.
d) the hormones contained in the pill reduce sexual drive
b) The hormones in the pill prevent ovulation (the release of the ovum from the ovaries)
The combined contraceptive pill contains synthetic forms of estrogen and progesterone (progestin). These hormones work together to suppress the release of an egg (ovulation) from the ovary. By preventing ovulation, there is no egg available for fertilization by sperm, thereby preventing pregnancy. Therefore, option b) is the correct answer.
At what age can a child obtain contraception without consent from parents/caregivers?
a) Any age
b) Over the age of 16 years
c) Over the age of 13 years
d) Not at all
c) Over the age of 13 years
In New Zealand, the legal age of consent to medical treatment without parental consent is 16 years old. However, the Fraser Guidelines provide guidance that individuals under 16 years old can consent to medical treatment, including contraception, if they are deemed mature enough to understand the nature and implications of the treatment. This typically applies to individuals aged 13 and older, depending on their maturity level and understanding. Therefore, option c) is the correct answer.
You are a school nurse who is responsible for teaching adolescents about sexually transmitted infections (STI’s). Which of the following is the best statement you would make regarding prevention of STI’s?
a) HIB is best prevented with the use of condoms and foam
b) Herpes simplex is detected easily and therefore symptom education is very necessary
c) Condoms are recommended as a prevention against STI’s
d) Many STI’s are transmitted to the foetus through the bloodstream from the placenta
c) Condoms are recommended as a prevention against STI’s
This statement emphasizes a key preventive measure that adolescents can use to protect themselves from sexually transmitted infections. Condoms are highly effective in reducing the risk of STI transmission when used consistently and correctly. Therefore, option c) is the correct answer.
Which statement is correct about menstruation?
a) Flow usually lasts 3 to 7 days
b) A normal cycle is 32 days
c) The average amount of flow is 500ml
d) Most girls begin menstruation at 12 or 13 years
a) Flow usually lasts 3 to 7 days
This statement accurately reflects the typical duration of menstrual flow, which generally lasts between 3 to 7 days. Therefore, option a) is the correct answer.
The importance of a cervical screen is to:
a) Detect a sexually transmitted infection
b) Detect abnormal cell changes
c) To prevent infertility
d) all of the above
b) Detect abnormal cell changes
Cervical screening is crucial for detecting abnormal cell changes in the cervix, which can indicate early signs of cervical cancer or precancerous conditions. While it can sometimes detect infections, its primary goal is to detect changes in cervical cells that could potentially lead to cancer if left untreated. Therefore, option b) is the correct answer.
You are a public health nurse at a school and you and your team are planning to vaccinate 12-13 year old girls against human papillomavirus (HPV). You are providing a health education session to parents and teachers. One mother asks you why her daughter needs to be vaccinated against HPB when she knows that her daughter is not sexually active. What would be the most appropriate response?
a) There are increased adverse reactions associated with having the vaccine after puberty.
b) The HPV vaccine is effective in the prevention of HPV infection. For this reason girls need to be vaccinated before they are exposed to HPV through sexual activity.
c) Tell her that her daughter is exempt from having the vaccine and that she should discuss this with their family doctor or nurse.
d) You advise her that she can make an appointment to see their family doctor or nurse when she does become sexually active
b) The HPV vaccine is effective in the prevention of HPV infection. For this reason girls need to be vaccinated before they are exposed to HPV through sexual activity.
While carrying out the education session the Mother also asks you about shingles. She asks you whether she needs to be vaccinated given she has had chicken pox. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a) You can only get shingles if you’ve had chickenpox in the past
b) The risk of getting shingles is greater in people with a weakened immune system
c) The risk of shingles increases as you get older
d) You will be immune to shingles if you’ve had chickenpox in the past
d) You will be immune to shingles if you’ve had chickenpox in the past
The correct name for shingles is:
a) herpes zoster virus
b) herpes simplex type 1
c) herpes simplex type 2
d) fever blisters
a) herpes zoster virus
Another Mother has heard that several children have been diagnosed with mononucleosis (glandular fever). She asks the nurse what precautions should be taken to prevent this illness occurring in her child. Which of the following would the nurse advise the mother to do?
a) Advise her child not to share drink bottles at school
b) Sterilise the child’s eating utensils before they are reused
c) Wash the child’s linens separately in hot, soapy water
d) Wear a mask when providing direct personal care
a) Advise her child not to share drink bottles at school
A father asks the nurse how he would know if his child had developed mononucleosis. The nurse explains that in addition to fatigue, which of the following would be most common?
a) Liver tenderness
b) Enlarged lymph glands
c) Persistent non-productive cough
d) A blush-like generalised skin rash
b) Enlarged lymph glands
You are asked by a student of a school you are visiting about the measles as they have heard there has been an outbreak in their area. The scientific name for measles is:
a) Herpes Zoster
b) Rubeola
c) Pertussis
d) Varicella
b) Rubeola
The student then asks you how measles is transmitted. The best response is:
a) It is spread person to person by direct contact with body fluids particularly blood products.
b) It is only transmitted in non- vaccinated communities.
c) It is spread person to person through the air.
d) It is only transmitted during the flu season when people sneeze and cough.
c) It is spread person to person through the air.
She asks you what the infectious period for measles is. The correct information about the infectious period is:
a) Once the rash appears until the spots are no longer red and inflamed.
b) 10 days prior to the appearance of the rash until 14 days after the rash appears.
c) During the entire time the rash is evident.
d) 5 days prior to the appearance of the rash until 5 days after the rash appears.
d) 5 days prior to the appearance of the rash until 5 days after the rash appears.
The recommended immunisation schedule for measles is:
a) 12 months and 15 months of age
b) 15 months and 4 years of age
c) 6 weeks, 3 months and 5 months of age
d) 5 months and 4 years of age
a) 12 months and 15 months of age
The student tells you her family doesn’t believe in vaccinations. What is the most appropriate response to this statement?
a) “Are you aware of the serious consequences of not vaccinating”
b) “Do you have some questions about this decision?”
c) “There are articles and pamphlets available about this. Would you like them?”
d) “That seems like an irresponsible decision to make”
b) “Do you have some questions about this decision?”
She asks you how the vaccination works. The correct response to this is:
a) The vaccination causes the person to produce antibodies that will recognise and bind to measles virus particles in the blood.
b) The vaccination introduces antibodies that will inactivate measles virus particles.
c) The vaccination introduces the measles virus so the monocytes can learn to engulf them.
d) The vaccination causes the person to produce antigens that recognise and destroy measles virus particles.
a) The vaccination causes the person to produce antibodies that will recognise and bind to measles virus particles in the blood.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted for treatment of cellulitis in her left leg. Her white cell count is abnormally high. When planning for this client, the nurse should expect to
a) see an increase in the blood glucose concentration
b) see a decrease in the blood glucose concentration
c) Decrease the insulin dosage
d) Withhold all insulin
a) see an increase in the blood glucose concentration
What should you do first if someone has a blood glucose level of 1.5 mmol/L?
a) Give glucose gel
b) Increase insulin by 50%
c) Give a sandwich for lunch
d) Give six jellybeans
a) Give glucose gel
Type 1 diabetes differs from type 2 diabetes in that:
a) Type 2 diabetes only affects the adult population
b) Insulin is never required for type 2 diabetes
c) Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disease
d) Type 1 diabetes is only acquired in childhood
c) Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disease
After a stroke a client develops dysphasia. Which assessment finding most typifies dysphasia?
a) Arm and leg weakness
b) Absence of gag reflex
c) Difficulty with swallowing
d) Inability to speak clearly
d) Inability to speak clearly
On admission your adult client’s vital signs are: temperature 38.8˚C; heart rate 144 beats/minute; respiration rate 26 breaths/minute; and blood pressure 140/87 mmHg. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning this client’s care?
a) Decreased cardiac output
b) Ineffective thermoregulation
c) Ineffective breathing pattern
d) Altered renal tissue perfusion
c) Ineffective breathing pattern
Mrs Khan is an 80-year-old female who lives with her son, his wife and their three children. She has had type 2 diabetes for many years, which used to be well-managed using oral hypoglycaemic medications, but now requires exogenous insulin. Her family report that she is requiring more assistance with her personal care.
Why is insulin given as an injection, rather than orally?
a) Gastric juices digest insulin
b) Mucous membranes are sensitive to insulin
c) It is slower acting if administered orally
d) It is easiest to administer by injection
a) Gastric juices digest insulin
Which of the following is a CORRECT statement about one of the ways oral hypoglycaemic medications act?
a) They assist the facilitated transport of glucose into skeletal muscle cells
b) They stimulate glycogenolysis
c) They increase insulin resistance in skeletal muscle and adipose cells
d) They stimulate the release of glucagon to reduce blood glucose concentration
a) They assist the facilitated transport of glucose into skeletal muscle cells
Mrs Khan’s blood glucose concentration is greater than 10 mmol/L, and when you test her urine it is positive for glucose. This is because
a) Kidney tubules secrete excess glucose.
b) Antidiuretic hormone allows glucose to diffuse into the renal collecting ducts.
c) Kidney tubules cannot resorb the glucose fast enough.
d) Glucose diffuses directly from the capillaries’ into the bladder.
c) Kidney tubules cannot resorb the glucose fast enough.
When visiting Mrs Khan at 0800 her son tells you she has been feeling unwell for the last hour, and that she is complaining of blurred vision, and a headache. Her son also states that she has been up to the toilet a number of times this morning.
The potential problem here is:
a) Hyperglycaemia
b) Alcohol intake
c) Hypoglycaemia
d) Hypertension
a) Hyperglycaemia
Why do people with diabetes have an increased risk of getting urinary tract infections?
a) They require increased amounts of fluids
b) The loop of Henle is associated with the production of insulin in the body
c) They have altered urine output
d) Glucose in urine assists bacterial reproduction
d) Glucose in urine assists bacterial reproduction
Billy, aged 22 years is diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. He periodically looks intently towards the ceiling and cocks his head to one side while tugging at his ear. In assessing this behaviour, the nurse should consider that Billy:
a) Has peculiar mannerisms
b) May be hearing voices
c) Is avoiding the nurse
d) Is daydreaming
b) May be hearing voices
Which of the following would be the most appropriate action for the nurse to take when a good rapport has been established with Billy and he has voiced his delusions on more than one occasion?
a) Enter into discussion with Billy about his delusions and the negative impact of these on his relationships with other people.
b) Listen patiently and avoid any comment about his delusions.
c) Suggest he ought to discuss his feelings with his doctor and request a medication review.
d) Reassure him that whilst his thinking is real to him suggest that talking about his feelings might be more beneficial for him.
d) Reassure him that whilst his thinking is real to him suggest that talking about his feelings might be more beneficial for him.
Billy is prescribed Clozapine.(Clozaril) this is an atypical antipsychotic medication which acts on
a) positive symptoms related to excess dopamine and decreased GABA.
b) positive symptoms related to decreased dopamine.
c) both positive and negative symptoms related to activity of both serotonin and dopamine.
d) negative symptoms related to excess dopamine and decreased GABA.
c) both positive and negative symptoms related to activity of both serotonin and dopamine.
When you are assessing Billy the following morning, you notice that he appears flushed. With his permission, you assess his vital signs and discover T 37.5, P143, R 20, and BP 100/60. What will you do about his next dose of Clozapine, scheduled for 9am?
a) Withhold the dose and notify the physician
b) Give the medication and monitor vital signs 4 hourly
c) Postpone the dose until her vital signs are normal
d) Recognise these signs as non-important side effects and give the medication
a) Withhold the dose and notify the physician
Freda is admitted to your ward following the death of her mother 12 weeks ago. She is withdrawn and isolates herself in her bedroom, where she sits huddled on her bed and stares at the floor. You suspect that Freda is having suicidal ideation. What would be your best approach?
a) Ask Freda directly about your concern
b) Avoid direct questioning, but observe her carefully
c) Institute suicide precautions and record these in Freda’s notes
d) Record your suspicion in Freda’s notes
a) Ask Freda directly about your concern
On her first night in hospital, Freda states she cannot sleep. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to take?
a) Look up her prescribed medication on the prescription sheet and administer it with a glass of hot milk
b) Ring up the duty medical officer because you feel Freda is suicidal
c) Discuss with Freda what is bothering her, asking what she does at home when she can’t sleep, and use prescribed sedation if necessary
d) Ensure that Freda cannot leave the ward and let her wander about as she likes
c) Discuss with Freda what is bothering her, asking what she does at home when she can’t sleep, and use prescribed sedation if necessary
