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DMI 128: Special Procedures > Mock Exam > Flashcards

Mock Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the degree difference between the orbitomeatal line (OML) and the infraorbitomeatal line (IOML)?

A

7 degrees

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2
Q

What is the annual whole-body radiation dose limit for infrequent exposure to the general public?

A

5 millisievert (mSv)

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3
Q

Before entering into a contact isolation room the radiographer should do which two of the following?

A

Put on a disposable gown and put on gloves

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4
Q

To reduce occupational exposure during fluoroscopy, where is the most acceptable position for the technologist to stand?

A

In the fluoroscopy room, as far from the patient as practical

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5
Q

An abnormally exaggerated posterior convex curve in the thoracic spine is termed:

A

Kyphosis

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6
Q

An image receptor (IR) is used on multiple patients without being cleaned. One of the patients develops a serious skin infection. What term might be applied to the IR?

A

Fomite

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7
Q

Which two of the following would help reduce unnecessary radiation to the patient during fluoroscopy?

A

Last image hold and pulsed fluoroscopy

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8
Q

The distal end of the spinal cord is found at the level of:

A

L2

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9
Q

A radiograph is produced using 15 mAs and 70 kVp. If the kVp is increased to 80, what new mAs is needed to maintain the same exposure?

A

7.5 mAs

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10
Q

Placing the supine patient in a Trendelenburg position might be used during an upper GI procedure to:

A

Visualize a hiatus hernia

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11
Q

When ionization occurs, which of the following is separated from the atom?

A

Electron

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12
Q

When positioning an axiolateral projection of the TMJs using the Schuller method, what is the degree and direction of central ray angulation?

A

25-30 degrees caudad

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13
Q

The central ray for an AP projection of the shoulder should enter perpendicular to a point:

A

1 inch inferior to the coracoid process

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14
Q

When using AEC, which three of the following would increase the radiation output used during the procedure?

A

Increased tube current, increased exposure adjustment, and increased tube potential

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15
Q

Which of the following devices acts as a switch to release the electric charge collected by the detector element?

A

Thin-film transistor (TFT)

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16
Q

A radiograph was acquired with a SID of 42 inches. However, the grid was designed to be used with a 50 to 72 inch SID. The resulting error is called:

A

Off-focus error

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17
Q

Which of the following technical factor adjustments should be made when negative contrast media agents are used?

A

Decreased kVp

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18
Q

Which four factors are true of acute radiation syndrome (ARS)

A

More likely in a nuclear accident than in radiography, often causes death, dose related, and caused by high doses of radiation.

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19
Q

Because of the binding energy of a K-shell tungsten atom, the minimum electron energy necessary to create a characteristic photon is:

A

69.5 keV

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20
Q

When diagnostic studies are viewed and interpreted directly through the PACS server, this presents what potential disadvantages?

A

If the PACS server goes down, all images are inaccessible.

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21
Q

Which of the following controls the quality of an x-ray beam?

A

kVp

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22
Q

Which of the following blood pressure readings would indicate anaphylactic shock?

A

Dramatic decrease in BP

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23
Q

Which of the following beam restriction devices is the most versatile for defining the size and shape of the radiographic beam?

A

Collimator

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24
Q

Heparin and Coumadin are examples of what type of drug?

A

Anticoagulants

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25
Q

During CPR of an adult, the cardiac compression rate should be about:

A

100-120 compressions per minute

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26
Q

The amount of radiation damage to the exposed individual depends on which of the following?

A

Type of radiation, size of the area being exposed, absorbed dose, and oxygen enhancement ratio

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27
Q

What may potentially occur if a diabetic patient has taken his or her normal dose of insulin, but has nothing by mouth since midnight?

A

Insulin shock

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28
Q

Properly positioned PA projection of the skull demonstrates the petrous portions of the temporal bones in what relationship with the orbits?

A

Filling the orbits

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29
Q

You receive an order to confirm J-tube placement. What radiographic examination would best show the anatomy of interest?

A

AP abdoment

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30
Q

The medical condition associated with a protrusion of the stomach through the diaphragm is best known as:

A

Hiatal hernia

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31
Q

The selection of the small filament causes what change to the size of the actual focal spot?

A

Decrease

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32
Q

The measurement of the rate at which electrons flow is known as:

A

Amperage

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33
Q

Mutual induction occurs only with transformers that are supplied with:

A

Alternating current

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34
Q

An AP chest was obtained at a 40 inch SID, 3.5 mAs, 110 kVp, and a 12:1 grid. Which technical factor change would increase image receptor exposure?

A

Decreased grid ratio

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35
Q

Which of the following may alert fluoroscopic x-ray production after a preset period of time?

A

Cumulative timer

36
Q

Which of the following muscles are found in the abdominal cavity just lateral to the lumbar vertebrae?

A

Psoas muscles

37
Q

Which of the following is not an effective mode of communication between a radiographer and a patient?

A

Conversing with patient with arms crossed

38
Q

A technologist has an unexpected opening in their schedule and can fit in a patient scheduled for a myelogram. The patient and her husband are in the department and she needs the myelogram prior to a spinal CT. While preparing to obtain the informed consent from the patient, the technologist discovers that the patient does not speak English, although her husband is reasonably fluent. Which of the following is the best course of action?

A

Should call for a hospital interpreter to come to the imaging department and interpret the physician’s explanation

39
Q

During a series of mobile chest x-rays in the emergency department, the technologist fails to adjust the kVp for a hypersthenic patient after their previous asthenic patient. This is likely to result in which?

A

Quantum mottle

40
Q

What are the major categories of microorganisms?

A

Fungus, protozoa, viruses, and bacteria

41
Q

As you are injecting contrast media, you notice edmea at the injection site and the patient complains of pain. The proper patient care procedure is:

A

Remove the needle, place a warm or cold compress (depending on department protocol) on the injection site, and monitor the patient for pain

42
Q

Personnel monitoring reports must be available for occupational workers’ review:

A

Annually

43
Q

Which of the following terms would be appropriate if your patient’s respiratory rate is severely decreased?

A

Bradypnea

44
Q

The terms monomer and dimer reflect the number of benzene rings in an iodinated media’s molecular structure. What is the obvious advantage of a contrast media composed of dimers?

A

More iodine atoms can be added to a single molecule

45
Q

Which of the following technical factors if the controlling factor for image receptor exposure:

A

mAs

46
Q

Which statement regarding oxygen delivery is true?

A

Only physicians, PAs, or nurse practitioners can prescribe the use of oxygen

47
Q

Rotating anodes are used in x-ray tubes to:

A

Increase tube heat dissipation

48
Q

As the angle of the anode decreases, what happens to the heat loading capacity of the x-ray tube?

A

Decrease

49
Q

The penetrating power of the x-ray beam is controlled by:

A

kVp

50
Q

If a patient develops pulmonary edema after administration of contrast media, and they do not respond to conservative treatment, which emergency medication can be administered intravenously?

A

Lasix

51
Q

The resistance to electric flow through a circuit is measured in:

A

Ohms

52
Q

An ambulatory patient is one who:

A

Is able to walk

53
Q

The primary function of the analog-to-digital converter in a CR plate reader is to convert:

A

Electrical signals into binary signals

54
Q

Elongation is a type of:

A

Shape distortion

55
Q

Which of the following will erase the photostimulable phosphor (PSP)?

A

White light

56
Q

Concerning personal health records, federal laws does not allow a patient to:

A

Remove the health records from a system database

57
Q

The filling of the inner-shell electron vacancy in the photoelectric effect is called the:

A

Cascade effect

58
Q

When radiographing the pelvis, the top of the image receptor should be:

A

1-1.5 inches superior to the iliac crests

59
Q

The hip bone is formed by the fusion of which three?

A

Pubis, ilium, and ischium

60
Q

Which three are associated with a Colles fracture?

A

Transverse fracture of the distal radius, ulnar styloid process fractured, and posterior displacement of the distal fracture fragment

61
Q

Which technical factor should the technologist use to control IR exposure?

A

mAs

62
Q

Radiation-induced cataracts are classified as a:

A

Deterministic effect

63
Q

Positive beam limitation technology is applied to which of the following devices?

A

Collimator

64
Q

An axiolateral projection of the mandible has been ordered to evaluate possible pathology of the mandibular symphysis. In what position is the patient’s head placed?

A

Rotated 45 degrees toward the image receptor

65
Q

When performing procedures that cause pain, discomfort, or strange sensations, the radiographer should do what?

A

Inform the patient before the procedure begins, answer any questions the patient may have, and make sure the patient is comfortable with proceeding with the exam.

66
Q

Which of the following classifications includes radiation-induced cancer?

A

Stochastic

67
Q

Which two of the following are features of fluoroscopic equipment designed to reduced radiation exposure to the patient?

A

Collimation and Deadman switch

68
Q

A patient with a history of ulcerative colitis is scheduled for a lower GI study. What type of contrast media will be required for the examination?

A

High density barium and air

69
Q

A hospital employee left a telephone message with the daughter of a patient that detailed the results of a recent medical examination. Is this a HIPAA violation?

A

Only if the daughter has not been identified to receive protected health information on behalf of her mother

70
Q

Which are part of the hip joint?

A

Ilium, ischium, and pubis

71
Q

Which matrix size will have the smallest pixels?

A

2048 x 2048

72
Q

As the actual focal spot size increases, what happens to the spatial resolution?

A

Decreases

73
Q

During the preimplantation phase of pregnancy, radiation exposure is most likely to result in:

A

Death of conceptus or no harmful effects

74
Q

Which should be used to evaluate the spatial resolution of a chest radiograph?

A

Lung markings and heart and vasculature

75
Q

The sella turcica is part of which bone?

A

Sphenoid

76
Q

Cancellous bone is most commonly described as:

A

Sponge-like

77
Q

After the injection of contrast for an intravenous urogram, it is noticed that the patient is suffering from hydronephrosis. To ensure adequate filling of the ureters with contrast medium, which of the following positions might be added to the examination?

A

Prone

78
Q

Which variable is described as the force with which electrons travel through a circuit?

A

Voltage

79
Q

Underexposure using digital image receptors will result in:

A

Quantum noise

80
Q

To reduce occupational exposure, what is the minimum length required for a mobile x-ray machine’s handheld exposure switch cord?

A

6 feet

81
Q

During the direct action of radiation, the x-ray photon interacts directly with the:

A

DNA of the cell

82
Q

Which would cause excessive image receptor exposure while using automatic exposure control?

A

Incorrect radiation detector selection

83
Q

The superoinferior tangential projection, Gaynor-Hart method, is used to visualize what upper extremity anatomy?

A

Carpal canal

84
Q

When is it acceptable for a radiographer to stand in the path of the primary beam?

A

A radiographer should never stand in the path of the primary beam

85
Q

The image information stored in a CR imaging plate prior to processing is called:

A

Latent image

DMI 128: Special Procedures (2 decks)

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