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Mock CSMLS exam Flashcards

1
Q

The familial condition of Pelger-Huet anomaly is important to recognize because this disorder must be differentiated from:

A) Infectious mononucleosis

B) May-Hegglin anomaly

C) A shift-to-the-left increase in immature granulocytes

D) G6PD deficiency

A

C) A shift-to-the-left increase in immature granulocytes

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2
Q

Chocolate agar and modified ThayerMartin agar are used for the recovery of:

A) Haemophilus species and Neisseria species respectively

B) Haemophilus species and Neisseria gonorrhoeae respectively

C) Neisseria species and streptococcus species respectively

D) Streptococcus species and staphylococcus species respectively

A

B) Haemophilus species and Neisseria gonorrhoeae respectively

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3
Q

Which blood cell inclusion body is associated with multiple myeloma?

a) Dohle bodies
b) Maurier’s dots
c) Russell bodies
d) Heinz bodies

A

c) Russell bodies

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4
Q

Which disinfectant is best for use on a surface that may be contaminated with Hepatitis A?

a. hypochlorites
b. 70% alcohol
c. quaternary ammonium compound
d. soap

A

a. hypochlorites

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5
Q

What is the typical range of relative lymphocyte percentage in the peripheral blood smear of a 1 year old child?

A) 1%-6%
B) 27%-33%
C) 35%-58%
D) 50%-70%

A

D) 50%-70%

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6
Q

Which of the following is recommended for the detection of penicillin resistance in Streptococcus pneumoniae?

a) oxacillin 1 μg
b) nafcillin 10 μg
c) penicillin 10 units
d) beta-lactamase testing

A

a) oxacillin 1 μg

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7
Q

Which of the statements about serum urea is true?

A) Levels are independent of diet

B) Urea is not reabsorbed by the renal tubules

C) High BUN levels can result from necrotic liver disease

D) BUN is elevated in prerenal as well as renal failure

A

D) BUN is elevated in prerenal as well as renal failure

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8
Q

Which of the following contains only ferric iron?

a) sulfhemoglobin
b) methemoglobin
c) myoglobin
d) oxyhemoglobin

A

b) methemoglobin

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9
Q

What step of an FISH procedure is the primary determinant of assay specificity?

a) post-hybridization
b) detection
c) hybridization
d) pretreatment

A

a) post-hybridization

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10
Q

What is the percentage of HbA2 in a normal adult?

a) 95
b) 30
c) 3
d) 15

A

c) 3

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11
Q

Immunoassay techniques are widely used to quantify:

a. electrolytes
b. hormones
c. enzymes
d. lipids

A

b. hormones

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12
Q

Where would “dangerous if inhaled” be found on the supplier label?

a. risk phrases
b. first aid measures
c. MSDS reference statement
d. precautionary measures

A

a. risk phrases

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13
Q

Which statement regarding creatinine is true?

A) Serum levels are elevated in early renal disease

B) High serum levels result from reduced glomerular filtration

C) Serum creatine has the same diagnostic utility as serum creatinine

D) Serum creatinine is a more sensitive measure of renal function than creatinine clearance

A

B) High serum levels result from reduced glomerular filtration

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14
Q

Lab test used to monitor use of low molecular weight heparin

A

Anti-Xa

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15
Q

Which type of tissue cuts easier using a cryostat?

a. tissue w/ high water content
b. tissue w/ low carb content
c. tissue w/ high fat content
d. tissue w/ low water content

A

d. tissue w/ low water content

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16
Q

Aspirin blocks platelet plug formation by interfering with what process?

a) secretion
b) shape change
c) aggregation
d) adhesion

A

c) aggregation

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17
Q

Provides NADPH and reduced glutathione to prevent oxidation of hemoglobin

A

Hexose monophosphate shunt

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18
Q

Which of the following tissues should be cut at 2 to 3 microns?

a) kidney
b) liver
c) brain
d) lung

A

a) kidney

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19
Q

Which of the following tests will rapidly differentiate micrococci from staphylococci?

A) Catalase
B) Coagulase
C) Modified oxidase
D) Novobiocin susceptibility

A

C) Modified oxidase

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20
Q

Which reagent is used in the Jendrassik-Grof method to solubilize unconjugated bilirubin?

a. 50% methanol
b. N-butanol
c. Caffeine
d. Acetic acid

A

c. Caffeine

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21
Q

Refrigeration enhances the precipitation of these urine crystals and they dissolve when heated

A

Amorphous urates

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22
Q

Which of the following hormones promotes hyperglycemia?

a. Calcitonin
b. Growth hormone
c. Aldosterone
d. Renin

A

b. Growth hormone

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23
Q

Heparin antagonist that will remove heparin from blood samples collected from patients on heparin therapy

A

Protamine sulphate

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24
Q

Overheating of the paraffin used for embedding may cause:

a) air bubbles in the block
b) cracking of the block
c) adherence of tissue to the cassette
d) poor infiltration

A

b) cracking of the block

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25
Q

Cryoprecipitate may be used to treat all of the following except:

A) Von Willebrand’s disease

B) Hypofibrinogenemia

C) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

D) Factor XIII deficiency

A

C) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

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26
Q

Amplification specificity should be confirmed by post-amplification melting curve analysis when this is used

A

SYBR Green I for real-time PCR

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27
Q

Which of the following values is the threshold critical value for low plasma potassium?

A) 1.5mmol/L
B) 2.0mmol/L
C) 2.5mmol/L
D) 3.5mmol/L

A

C) 2.5mmol/L

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28
Q

PT/PTT should be done within __ hrs of collection

A

2

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29
Q

Which of the following automated cell counter parameters are NOT affected by gross lipemia?

a. MCV
b. HGB
c. MCH
d. MCHC

A

a. MCV

Lipemia falsely increases hgb due to turbidity. Andy indices that use hgb in their calculation will be affected.

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30
Q

The iodine-thiosulfate sequence alleviates which of the following problems?

a) formalin pigment
b) chromium pigment
c) picric acid discolouration
d) mercury pigment

A

d) mercury pigment

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31
Q

What is the percentage of serum calcium that is ionized?

a. 30%
b. 45%
c. 60%
d. 80%

A

b. 45%

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32
Q

What is defective glycoprotein Ib/IX associated with?

A

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

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33
Q

Fixing agent that counteracts shrinkage

A

Acetic acid

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34
Q

Which electrolyte measurement is least affected by hemolysis?

A) Potassium
B) Magnesium
C) Calcium
D) Phosphorus

A

C) Calcium

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35
Q

When a blue filter is placed in the light path of a white light source, the filter will.

A) Transmit wavelengths other than blue

B) Transmit the red wavelengths

C) Absorb only the blue wavelengths

D) Absorb the wavelengths other than blue

A

D) Absorb the wavelengths other than blue

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36
Q

Which organic acid is a suitable routine decalcifying agent?

a. EDTA
b. nitric acid
c. acetic acid
d. formic acid

A

d. formic acid

Formic = organic, nitric = mineral acid

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37
Q

Which statement regarding renal function is true?

A) Glomeruli are far more permeable to H2O and salt than other capillaries

B) The collecting tubule reabsorbs sodium and secretes potassium in response to antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

C) The collecting tubule is permeable to H2O only in the presence of aldosterone

D) The thick ascending limb is highly permeable to H2O and urea

A

A) Glomeruli are far more permeable to H2O and salt than other capillaries

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38
Q

What does staining leukemic cells for myeloperoxidase help to distinguish?

a) AML from ALL
b) CLL from CML
c) CLL from ALL
d) AML from CML

A

a) AML from ALL

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39
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for fibrinolysis in vivo?

a) coagulase
b) plasmin
c) fibrinolase
d) thrombin

A

b) plasmin

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40
Q

Which of the following statistical terms reflects the best index of precision when comparing two CBC parameters?

A) Mean
B) Median
C) Coefficient of variation
D) Standard deviation

A

C) Coefficient of variation

41
Q

The ONPG test allows organisms to be classified as LF by testing for which of the following?

a) phosphatase
b) beta-lactamase
c) beta-galactosidase
d) oxidase

A

c) beta-galactosidase

42
Q

How must biohazardous materials for shipping be packaged to comply with the transportation of Dangerous Goods (TDG) regulations?

a) waterproof primary container, absorbent material, and paper box must be used
b) commercial transport packaging material must be used
c) waterproof primary and secondary containers must be used
d) the package must be registered with the local HAZMAT team

A

c) waterproof primary and secondary containers must be used

43
Q

Levey-Jennings plots are prepared on a regular basis by calculating the mean, SD, and CV of which control values?

a) values for the previous month
b) values for today
c) the present values
d) values for the previous week

A

a) values for the previous month

44
Q

CBCs should be done within __ hrs of collection

A

4

45
Q

Which of the following is the primary mechanism for ADH release?

A) Hypovolemia
B) Hyperosmolar plasma
C) Renin release
D) Reduced renal blood flow

A

B) Hyperosmolar plasma

46
Q

To diagnose whooping cough, which type of specimen should be collected?

a. oropharyngeal
b. peritonsillar
c. nasal
d. nasopharyngeal

A

d. nasopharyngeal

Bordetella pertussis found in greatest numbers here

47
Q

Which of the following QC rules would be broken 1 out of 20 times by chance alone?

A) 1 2s
B) 2 2s
C) 1 3s
D) 1 4s

A

A) 1 2s

48
Q

Bence-Jones proteinuria can be seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

a. Amyloidosis
b. Nephrotic syndrome
c. Multiple myeloma
d. Macroglobulinemia

A

b. Nephrotic syndrome

49
Q

The PYR hydrolysis test is a presumptive test for which streptococci?

a. Group A and D (enterococcus) streptococci
b. Group A and B beta-hemolytic streptococci
c. Nongroup A or B beta-hemolytic streptococci
d. Streptococcus pneumonia and group D streptococci (nonenterococcus)

A

a. Group A and D (enterococcus) streptococci

50
Q

Which biochemical is most useful to differentiate typical Salmonella species from Citrobacter?

a) oxidase
b) citrate
c) lysine
d) hydrogen sulphide production

A

c) lysine

51
Q

Which of the following organisms might produce a false positive result in the coagulase test with plasma containing a citrated anticoagulant?

a) Enterobacter aerogenes
b) Morganella morganii
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Escherichia coli

A

a) Enterobacter aerogenes

52
Q

These are renal epithelial cells containing fat

A

Oval fat bodies

53
Q

What is defective glycoprotein IIb/IIIa associated with?

A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

54
Q

Ketone component measured by nitroprusside reaction

a. Acetoacetic acid
b. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid
c. Acetone
d. C-reactive protein

A

a. Acetoacetic acid

55
Q

What is TMPD used for

A

Oxidase test

56
Q

Which of the following stain is used for lipoprotein electrophoresis?

A) Oil Red O
B) Coomassie Brilliant Blue
C) Amido Black
D) Ponceau S

A

A) Oil Red O

57
Q

Which condition is associated with the lowest percent saturation of transferrin?

a. Hemochromatosis
b. Anemia of chronic infection
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Noniron deficiency anemia

A

c. Iron deficiency anemia

58
Q

Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a falsely high creatinine clearance result?

A) The patient uses the midstream void procedure when collecting his or her urine

B) The patient adds tap water to the urine container because he or she forgets to save one of the urine samples

C) The patient does not empty his or her bladder at the conclusion of the test

D) The patient empties his or her bladder at the start of the of the test and adds the urine to the collection

A

D) The patient empties his or her bladder at the start of the of the test and adds the urine to the collection

59
Q

What are the malignant cells in hairy cell leukemia?

a) promyelocytes
b) B-lymphocytes
c) T-lymphocytes
d) prolymphocytes

A

b) B-lymphocytes

60
Q

Creatinine is formed from the

A) Oxidation of creatine

B) Oxidation of protein

C) Deamination of dibasic amino acids

D) Metabolism of purines

A

A) Oxidation of creatine

61
Q

According to DAP, for how long must instrument printouts be retained?

a) 3 months
b) 3 weeks
c) 3 days
d) 3 years

A

a) 3 months

62
Q

What type of error is R4s?

A

Random error

63
Q

Why are quaternary ammonium compounds active as disinfection agents?

a) they are aldehydes
b) they are anionic detergents
c) they are cationic detergents
d) they are phenolic compounds

A

c) they are cationic detergents

64
Q

Arterial blood from a normal healthy donor is analyzed for blood gases. Due to improper collection there is a large bubble of room air. What results would be expected?

a) pH decreased / pCO2 increased / pO2 decreased
b) pH increased / pCO2 decreased / pO2 increased
c) pH decreased / pCO2 decreased / pO2 increased
d) pH increased / pCO2 increased / pO2 decreased

A

b) pH increased / pCO2 decreased / pO2 increased

65
Q

Which of the following dyes is the most specific for measurement of albumin?

A) Bromcresol green
B) Bromcresol purple
C) Tetrabromosulfophthalein
D) Tetrabromphenol blue

A

B) Bromcresol purple

66
Q

Urea concentration is calculated from the BUN by multiplying by a factor of:

A) 0.5
B) 2.14
C) 6.45
D) 14

A

B) 2.14

67
Q

Deoxycholate agar is useful for the isolation of

A) Enterobacteriaceae
B) Enterococcus species
C) Staphylococcus species
D) Neisseria species

A

A) Enterobacteriaceae

68
Q

Associated with abnormal 5M urea clot solubility test

A

Factor XIII (13) deficiency (fibrin stabilizing factor)

69
Q

What does successful staining of tissues depend upon?

a) reaction of the tissue functional groups with auxochromes of the dye molecules
b) reaction of the tissue functional groups with chromogens of the dye molecules
c) reaction of the tissue functional groups with chromotropes of the dye molecules
d) reaction of the tissue functional groups with chromophores of the dye molecules

A

a) reaction of the tissue functional groups with auxochromes of the dye molecules

70
Q

In most circumstances, when two controls within a run are both greater than + or 2s from the mean, what action should be taken first?

A) Recalibrate, then repeat controls followed by selected patient samples if quality control is acceptable

B) Repeat the controls before taking any corrective action

C) Change the reagent lot then recalibrate

D) Prepare fresh standards and recalibrate

A

A) Recalibrate, then repeat controls followed by selected patient samples if quality control is acceptable

71
Q

Two consecutive controls are both beyond 2s from the mean. How frequently would this occur on the basis of chance alone?

A) 1:100
B) 5:100
C) 1:400
D) 1:1,600

A

D) 1:1,600

72
Q

Holes are noted in a cryostat section of muscle. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A) improper adjustment of the antiroll plate.

B) Freezing the muscle in liquid nitrogen.

C) Too small a clearance angle.

D) Freezing the section in frozen isopentane in liquid nitrogen.

A

B) Freezing the muscle in liquid nitrogen.

73
Q

Which of the following fixatives requires post-fixation treatment with iodine and sodium thiosulfate on fixed tissues?

a) formalin-zinc
b) methacarn
c) B5
d) Bouin’s

A

c) B5

74
Q

Used to confirm diagnosis of Activated Protein C resistance

A

Favtor V Leiden mutation assay

75
Q

Which of the following is true of an immediate spin crossmatch?

a) detects all clinically significant antibodies
b) detects ABO incompatibilities only
c) can be used in all situations
d) is only used in emergency situations

A

b) detects ABO incompatibilities only

76
Q

Which statement regarding adrenal cortical dysfunction is true?

a. Patients with Cushing’s syndrome usually have hyperkalemia
b. Cushing’s syndrome is associated with glucose intolerance
c. Addison’s disease is associated with hypernatremia
d. Addison’s disease is caused by elevated levels of cortisol

A

b. Cushing’s syndrome is associated with glucose intolerance

Individuals with Cushing’s syndrome have increased cortisol, creating an elevated level of glucose, as cortisol counteracts insulin.

77
Q

Which chemicals can be stored together in the same area?

a) xylene and acetic acid
b) acetone and ethanol
c) acetone and potassium permanganate
d) acids and caustics

A

b) acetone and ethanol

78
Q

On what organism is beta-lactamase testing frequently performed?

a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Escherichia coli
c) Haemophilus influenzae
d) Streptococcus pyogenes

A

c) Haemophilus influenzae

79
Q

A decreased osmotic fragility test would be associated with which of the following conditions?

A) Hereditary spherocytosis, due to its decreased SA:V ratio (surface area to volume)

B) Hereditary spherocytosis, due to its increased SA:V ratio

C) Sickle cell anemia, due to its decreased SA:V ratio

D) Sickle cell anemia, due to its increased SA: V ratio

A

D) Sickle cell anemia, due to its increased SA: V ratio

Large SA to small V allows the red cells to be less fragile and more deformable

80
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for fibrin formation in vivo?

a) actin
b) thromboplastin
c) thrombin
d) plasmin

A

c) thrombin

81
Q

Electrophoretic movement of proteins toward the anode will decrease by increasing the

A) Buffer pH
B) Ionic strength of the buffer
C) Current
D) Voltage

A

B) Ionic strength of the buffer

82
Q

How long should glassware that has been correctly packed in a hot air oven remain at 160°C in order to be effectively sterilized?

a) 60 minutes
b) 120 minutes
c) 90 minutes
d) 30 minutes

A

a) 60 minutes

83
Q

In polycythemia vera, the platelet count is

a) elevated
b) decreased
c) normal
d) variable

A

a) elevated

84
Q

The presence of which of the following cells suggests a good prognosis in ALL patients?

a) “early” B cells
b) helper cells
c) T-cells
d) B-cells

A

a) “early” B cells

85
Q

By what method are Enterococcus sp. and group D non-enterococci best differentiated?

a) bacitracin susceptibility
b) porphyrin
c) bile esculin agar
d) growth in 6.5% NaCl

A

d) growth in 6.5% NaCl

86
Q

Semisolid transport media such as Amies, Stuart, CaryBlair are suitable for the transport of swabs for culture of most pathogens except:

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Enterobacteriaceae
C) Campylobacter fetus
D) Streptococcus pneumonia

A

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

87
Q

Which statement regarding urine pH is true?

A) High-protein diets promote an alkaline urine pH

B) pH tends to decrease as urine is stored

C) Contamination should be suspected if urine pH is less than 4.5

D) Bacteriuria is most often associated with a low urine pH

A

C) Contamination should be suspected if urine pH is less than 4.5

88
Q

Which of the following methods is the safest and most appropriate for disinfecting a cryostat where adequate ventilation is not available?

a) formaldehyde vapour
b) phenolic compound followed by absolute ethanol
c) glutaraldehyde solution
d) hypochlorite solution followed by water

A

b) phenolic compound followed by absolute ethanol

89
Q

The classic form of foodborne botulism is characterized by the ingestion of:

A) Spores in food
B) Preformed toxin in food
C) Toxin H
D) All of these options

A

B) Preformed toxin in food

90
Q

Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar is used for the recovery of

A) Yersinia enterocolitica
B) Yersinia intermedia
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) Clostridium difficile

A

D) Clostridium difficile

91
Q

How often are sterility checks using spores of Bacillus stearothermophilus usually performed on steam autoclaves?

a) every load
b) once per week
c) once per day
d) once per month

A

b) once per week

92
Q

The normal ratio of bicarbonate ion to carbonic acid in arterial blood is:

a. 0.03:1
b. 1:20
c. 20:1
d. 6.1:7.

A

c. 20:1

93
Q

Which of the following will provide a uniform dispersion of light?

a. Prism
b. Written filter
c. Interference filter
d. Diffraction grating

A

d. Diffraction grating

94
Q

What should be done when interpreting the zone size of a motile, swarming organism such as a Proteus species?

A) The swarming area should be ignored

B) The results of the disk diffusion method are invalid

C) The swarming area should be measured as the growth boundary

D) The isolate should be retested after diluting to a 0.05 McFarland standard

A

A) The swarming area should be ignored

95
Q

RhIg given for the treatment of Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is given to patients who

a. are Rh+ and have an intact and functional spleen
b. are Rh- and have an inact and functional spleen
c. are Rh+ and are post splenectomy
d. are Rh- and are post splenectomy

A

a. are Rh+ and have an intact and functional spleen

ITP occurs when the body produces antibodies against its own platelets. RhIg distracts the body’s immune system by attaching to the D antigens on the patient’s red cells, so that the body focuses on destroying the red cells (through the spleen) rather than the platelets.

96
Q

What solution would be used to remove protein from an ion selective electrode?

a) distilled water
b) 6N HCl
c) 0.1M HCl
d) valinomycin

A

c) 0.1M HCl

97
Q

A technologist is performing a nitrate reduction test. When dimethyl-α-naphthylamine and sulfanilic acid were added, the medium did not change colour. Zinc was added and the tube remained colourless, what does this indicate?

a. the result is positive
b. the result is negative
c. the result is invalid
d. reincubate the tube overnight before reading the result

A

a. the result is positive

98
Q

After primer design, what reagent component of a PCR reaction is most important for determining amplification specificity?

a) Taq DNA polymerase
b) magnesium
c) extension time
d) annealing temperature

A

b) magnesium

99
Q

Which of the following statements regarding proteins is true?

A) Total protein and albumin are about 10% higher in ambulatory patients

B) Plasma total protein is about 20% higher than serum levels

C) Albumin normally accounts for about one third of the cerebrospinal fluid total protein

D) Transudative serous fluid protein is about two thirds of the serum total protein

A

A) Total protein and albumin are about 10% higher in ambulatory patients

Exam (3 decks)

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