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Phase 3a > Mock 3 > Flashcards

Mock 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are some complications of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Hypercholesterolaemia (cholesterol correlates inversely with the serum albumin level)
Thrombosis
Risk of infection (particularly capsulated bacteria such as Pneumococcus)
Hypovolaemia

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2
Q

Where is the rash in HSP?

A

Buttocks, extensor surfaces of the arms and legs and ankles
Trunk usually spared!

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3
Q

At what point on the FeverPAIN score would you consider an immediate antibiotic prescription?

A

4 or 5

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4
Q

What does a Naevus flammeus birth mark look like?

A

Port-wine stain

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5
Q

What is the difference between Naevus flammeus and cavernous haemangioma (strawberry naevus)?

A

Naevus flammeus is present from birth and grows with the infant, whereas cavernous haemangioma is not present at birth but appears in the first month of life.

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6
Q

What is erythema toxicum?

A

Neonatal urticaria. Common, appearing at 2-3 days of age, white pinpoint papule at the centre of an erythematous base, concentrated on trunk

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7
Q

What do Mongolian blue spots look like and where are they?

A

Blue bruise-like macular discolouration at the base of the spine and on the buttocks

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8
Q

What is first line for faecal impaction in children?

A

Macrogol laxative e.g. movicol

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9
Q

What is Sandifer syndrome?

A

GI symptoms and neuro features
Linked with GORD
Prevalence 18-36 months
Spasmodic torticollis and dystonia
Treat GORD or other underlying cause

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10
Q

Is GORD associated with non-bilious vomiting or bilious vomiting?

A

Non-bilious

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11
Q

What is the prognosis and management of ITP?

A

Can reassure parents that ITP will spontaneously resolve within 6-8 weeks
If specialist thinks the platelet count needs to be raised - can give prednisolone.
Splenectomy should only be considered if there is a case of life-threatening bleeding, or if a child has severe, chronic and unremitting IP for 12-24 months with severe symptoms

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12
Q

What is the first line treatment for a patient under 2 years of age with bilateral acute otitis media?

A

5 day course of amoxicillin

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13
Q

What is the procedure to treat Hirschsprung’s called?

A

Swenson

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14
Q

What is the wedge excision used for treatment of?

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

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15
Q

Is Tetralogy of Fallot cyanotic or acyanotic?

A

Cyanotic

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16
Q

Pansystolic mumur heard loudest at the lower left sternal edge is associated with what defect?

A

VSD

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17
Q

Continuous machinery murmur typically heard at the upper-left sternal border is associated with what defect?

A

PDA

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18
Q

Ejectionm systolic murmur heard loudest tat the upper-left sternal border is associated with what defect?

A

ASD

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19
Q

Harsh ejection systolic murmur heard loudest over the upper-left sternal angle is associated with what defect?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

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20
Q

Murmur heard on the back between the scapula is associated with what defect?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

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21
Q

Polydactyly is associated with which Trisomy?

A

Trisomy 13 (Patau’s)

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22
Q

Does Prader Willi syndrome have hypotonia or hypertonia?

A

Hypotonia

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23
Q

Macrocephaly is a feature of which genetic syndrome?

A

Fragile X

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24
Q

Macrognathia (undersized lower jaw) is a feature of which trisomy?

A

Edwards’ (trisomy 18)

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25
Q

Pectus excavatum is a feature of which genetic syndrome?

A

Noonan

26
Q

What is the first line treatment in Alzheimer’s

A

Donepezil

27
Q

What is the mechanism of Donepezil?

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

28
Q

What is the second line treatment for Alzheimers?

A

Memantine

29
Q

What is the mechanism of Memantine?

A

NMDA receptor antagonist

30
Q

How long is N-acetylcysteine given over?

A

Over 1 hour. Given it a total dose that is divided into three consecutive intravenous infusions

31
Q

What is given in paracetamol overdose within 1 hour of indigestion?

A

Activated charcoal

32
Q

Do people have increased hunger or decreased hunger in cocaine withdrawal?

A

Increased hunger

33
Q

How long is the first phase of cocaine withdrawal?

A

24 hrs

34
Q

How long is the second phase of cocaine withdrawal?

A

up to 10 weeks

35
Q

How long is the final phase of cocaine withdrawal?

A

up to 6 months

36
Q

When are women offered a blood test to check for anaemia?

A

Booking visit and 28 week appointment

37
Q

What is the name of the test which determines how much anti-D is required?

A

Kleinhauer

38
Q

What is the range for a normal foetal baseline heart rate?

A

110-160

39
Q

What is a normal baseline variability on CTG?

A

Vary between 5 and 25 beats per minute

40
Q

Are decelerations normal or abnormal

A

Abnormal

41
Q

What is the first line treatment for pre-eclampsia and hypertension in pregnancy?

A

Labetalol
BUT Nifedipine if asthmatic!!

42
Q

Do you still have to use contraception if you are on HRT?

A

For up to 2 years after your last period if under 50 and 1 year after if over 50

43
Q

Is alpha or beta thalassaemia a major cause of foetal hydrops?

A

Alpha

44
Q

What are non immune causes of foetal hydrops?

A

Severe anaemia - congenital parvovirus B19 infection, alpha thalassaemia major, massive materno-feto haemorrhage
Cardiac abnormalities
Chromosomal - trisomy 13, 18, 21, or Turners
Infection - toxoplasmosis, rubella, CMV, varicella
Twin-Twin transfusion syndrome

45
Q

What are non immune causes of foetal hydrops?

A

Severe anaemia - congenital parvovirus B19 infection, alpha thalassaemia major, massive materno-feto haemorrhage
Cardiac abnormalities
Chromosomal - trisomy 13, 18, 21, or Turners
Infection - toxoplasmosis, rubella, CMV, varicella
Twin-Twin transfusion syndrome
Chorioangioma

46
Q

What is the most common cause of anaemia in pregnancy?

A

Iron deficiency

47
Q

What is first line management for heavy menstrual bleeding?

A

Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system

48
Q

What is the preferred method of induction?

A

Vaginal PGE2

49
Q

Is previous multiple pregnancy a risk factor for placenta accreta?

A

No

50
Q

What is the management for obstetric cholestasis?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

51
Q

Is placenta praaevia a risk factor for abnormal lie?

A

Yes

52
Q

What is the blood pressure cut off for stage 1 hypertension to be treated pharmacologically in people under 60?

A

135/85

53
Q

What is the holding time of a Section 5(4)?

A

6 hours by a nurse

54
Q

AWhen do you consider giving anti-D?

A

Rhesus neg mother and Rhesus pos father and after 10 weeks

55
Q

What does the QRISK score calculate?

A

A person’s risk of developing a heart attack or stroke over the next 10 years. If greater than 10%, prescribe statin

56
Q

What do you do if a patient’s BP is over 180/120?

A

Refer immediately for specialist same day assessment. Or if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage and or Papiloedema or life-threatening symptoms or suspected pheochromocytoma

57
Q

What does hypermetropia mean?

A

Long sightedness. Can cause a convergent squint

58
Q

What is the first line management of COPD?

A

SABA and SAMA (Salbutamol and Ipratropium bromide).

59
Q

What is the second line management of COPD?

A

Consider an ICS too if steroid responsive or has asthmatic features.
OR LAMA (Tiotropium) and LABA (Salmeterol)
Theophylline only in severe

60
Q

What is heparin contraindicated in?

A

Bacterial endocarditis

61
Q

How does Salmetarol work?

A

LABA - stimulation of G protein-coupled receptors causing smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

62
Q

How does gastric cancer present?

A

Palpable mass in the abdomen, with ascites and dysphagia

Phase 3a (12 decks)

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