Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NURS 2514 > MOBILITY MEDS > Flashcards

MOBILITY MEDS Flashcards

1
Q

What is the MOA of NSAIDs

A

blocks prostaglandin via Cox 1 and Cox 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the first generation of NSAIDs

A

Ibuprofen (Advil) and Naproxen (Aleve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the 2nd generation of NSAIDs

A

Celecoxib (Celebrex) —> slightly more GI protection (related to Sulfa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is another 1st generation of NSAIDs

A

ASA (Aspirin) —> prevention of MI/stroke inhibiting platelet aggregation (CI: <18yrs can develop Reye’s Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does NSAIDs affect RA?

A

treat symptoms, rapid onset, often used with DMARDS (does not slow disease progression), higher doses than OTC recommendations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the adverse effects when Cox 1 is in inhibited?

A

gastric erosion/ulcertion
bleeding tendecies
renal impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the adverse effects when inhibiting Cox 2?

A

ONLY IN CELEBREX
- renal impairment
- promotion of MI and stroke (secondary to suppressing vasodilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a rare adverse effect with Ibuprofen?

A

Steven Johnson Syndrome —> blistering of the skin and mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the nursing considerations of NSAIDs?

A
  • best administered with food
  • monitor kidney function
  • monitor for adverse effects of HTN
  • monitor for signs of bleeding
  • CI: ALL NSAIDs —> PREGNANCY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the MOA of Prednisone (Deltasone —> Corticosteroids)?

A

mimics cortisol, potent anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant, works rapidly (short term)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the indications for Prednisone?

A

treat autoimmune disorders —> eg. RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the therapeutic effet of Prednisone?

A

suppression of the inflammatory and immune responses in autoimmune disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does cortisol do to the body?

A

hormone produced by adrenal glands
- reduces inflammation
- increases blood sugar
- increases blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the adverse effects of Prednisone?

A
  • fluid retention
  • hypokalemia
  • mood swings, pyschological and behavioural changes
  • weight gain
  • hyperglycemia
  • increased risk of infection
  • slow wound healing, bruising
  • peptic ulcers
  • osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the contraindications and precautions of Prednisone?

A

active infection, existing peptic ulcer, hypersensitivity
NOTE: should not be taken for long term (can cause adrenal suppression) —> taper dose overtime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the nursing considerations and assessments of prednisone?

A

monitor I/Os
monitor serum electrolytes and glucose
monitor for improvement of disorder symptoms
assess for edema, daily weight, auscultate lungs, skin lungs
administer with meals —> prevent GI irritation
pts should increase foods with calcium and potassium

NOTE: adrenal insufficiency —> anorexia, N/V, weakness, fatigue, dyspnea, low blood pressure, hypoglycemia, Pts should not skip doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the MOA of Methotrexate (Rhematrex)

A
  • interferes w/ folic acid metabolism –> inhibiting DNA synthesis and cells reproduction
  • immunosuppressive –> suppresses T/B lymphocyte activity
  • kills rapidly dividing cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the classification of Methotrexate (Rhematrex)?

A

Disease modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What cells rapidly divide?

A

skin, nails, hair, GI mucosa, bone marrow, reproductive cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the indication for Methotrexate (Rhematrex)?

A

RA, psoriasis, diff. types of cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the therapeutic effect of Methotrexate (Rhematrex)?

A

slows the disease progression of RA
- fast-acting –> therapeutic effects seen within 3-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the adverse effects of Methotrexate (Rhematrex)?

A
  • hepatic fibrosis
  • bone marrow suppression –> risk for bleeding, infection, anemia
  • GI ulceration
  • pneumonitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the CI and precautions of Methotrexate (Rhematrex)?

A
  • hypersensitivity
  • immunosuppression
  • hepatic impairment
  • pregnancy/breast feeding

Precautions: renal impairment, active infection

24
Q

What are the nursing considerations and assessments for Methotrexate (Rhematrex)?

A

assess:
- vital signs
- GI –> monitor for diarrhea, pain, stomatitis
- signs of pulmonary toxicity (dry cough - early sign !!)

monitor:
- signs of bone marrow suppression (bleeding gums, bruising, petechiae, melena, hematuria, hematemesis, fatigue, SOB)
- I/Os, weight
- liver enzymes, CBC

Nursing consideration: administer antiemetic prophylactically

25
Q

What are the classifications of Infliximab (Remicade)?

A

DMARD, tumor necrosis factor antagonist (TNF)

26
Q

What is the role of TNF in RA?

A

promotes infiltration of neutrophils and macrophages –> resulting in inflammation and joint destruction

27
Q

What is the MOA of Infliximab (Remicade)?

A

neutralizes TNF (immune mediator in RA) –> suppresses inflammation

28
Q

What are the indications for Infliximab (Remicade)?

A

active RA, active crohn’s disease, psoriasis, ankylosing spondylitis

29
Q

What is the therapeutic effect of Infliximab (Remicade)?

A

decreased pain/swelling, decreased rate of joint destruction, and improved physical function

30
Q

What are the adverse effects of Infliximab (Remicade)?

A
  • increased risk of serious infections –> M. tuberculosis, fungal infection, opportunistic infections
    • usage of diabetes, HIV, concurrent immunosuppressant drug will increase the risk of developing an infection while being on this drug
  • heart failure
31
Q

What are the CI of Infliximab (Remicade)?

A
  • hypersensitivity to Infliximab
  • active infection

Precautions:
- pts with a history of tuberculosis, or recurrent infections

32
Q

What are the nursing considerations and assessments for Infliximab (Remicade)?

A

Assess:
- infusion reaction (continuous monitoring of IV site)
- monitor CBC frequently –> neutropenia
- s/s of infection (fever chills)
- edema, weight gain, SOB, crackles –> heart failure

Nursing consideration: often used in combo w/ Methotrexate, IV administered

33
Q

What is the classification of Allopurinol (Zyloprim)?

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

34
Q

What is the MOA of Allopurinol (Zyloprim)?

A

inhibits the enzyme, Xanthine oxidase (needed for uric acid formation) –> reduces uric acid production in the body

35
Q

What is the indication for Allopurinol (Zyloprim)?

A

gout

36
Q

What is the therapeutic effect of Allopurinol (Zyloprim)?

A
  • dissolve urate crystals
  • prevent new crystal formation
  • prevent disease progression
  • reduce the frequency of attacks
  • improve quality of life
37
Q

What are the adverse effects of Allopurinol (Zyloprim)?

A

well tolerated
- hypersensitivity (rash, fever, liver/kidney dysfunction)
- mild GI upset
- may initially worsen gout attack
- kidney stones (increase risk)

38
Q

What are the CI of Allopurinol (Zyloprim)?

A

caution in pts w/ kidney dysfunction

39
Q

What are nursing considerations and assessments of Allopurinol (Zyloprim)?

A

discontinue immediately if signs of hypersensitivity, encourage fluid intake

40
Q

What is the normal function of calcium?

A

nervous system, msk system, cardiovascular system

bone: structural integrity of bone

41
Q

Where is calcium usually found in diet?

A

dairy, non dairy vegetables, calcium fortified processed foods

42
Q

Which group do not get enough of calcium to meet their DRI?

A

postmenopausal women –> put on supplements

43
Q

Where is calcium stored?

A

98% in bone
- bones are continuously remodeling (resorption and new bone formation)

44
Q

How is calcium absorbed and excreted?

A

small intestine (vit. D increases absorption), kidneys excrete left over calcium

45
Q

What are the adverse effects of too much calcium?

A

Hypercalcemia –> 3-4g over a long of periods of time, mostly in those receiving large amounts of vitamin D
- GI disturbances (N/V, constipation)
- renal dysfunction (polyuria, nephrolithiasis)
- CNS effects (lethargy, depression)
- change in skeletal muscle tone
- cardiac dysrhythmias
- risk of vascular calcification, MI, stroke

46
Q

What are the nursing considerations of calcium?

A

variety of supplements –> consider the amount of elemental calcium and the pts dietary intake
- administration

47
Q

What is the function of vitamin D?

A

increases plasma calcium levels
- increase calcium resorption from bone
- decrease calcium excretion by the kidneys
- increase calcium absorption from the intestine

48
Q

How do we get vitamin D?

A

sunlight (produced naturally), vitamin D2 (found in plants) used in medicine, supplements, and fortification of foods

49
Q

What is the adverse effect of vitamin D?

A

hypercalcemia

50
Q

What is the classification of Alendronate (Fosamax)?

A

Bisphosphonate

51
Q

What is the MOA of Alendronate (Fosamax)?

A

reduces the number and activity of osteoclasts

52
Q

What are the indications for Alendronate (Fosamax)?

A

osteoporosis in postmenopausal women, glucocorticosteroids induced OP, OP in men

53
Q

What are the therapeutic effect of Alendronate (Fosamax)?

A

reversal of the progression of OP with decreased fractures
NOTE: often used for less than 5yrs –> effects can last 10 yrs

54
Q

What are the adverse effects of Alendronate (Fosamax)?

A
  • esophagitis (occurs with prolonged contact w/ esophageal mucosa if the drug fails to pass completely into the esophagus)
  • MSK pain (can occur with initial dose/month after –> not a reason to stop) – notify the prescriber to manage time
  • RARE: ocular inflammation, atypical femur fractures (increase with long term use
55
Q

What are the nursing considerations of Alendronate (Fosamax)?

A
  • administration: morning, empty stomach, before breakfast, with only water, no food or drinks for 30 mins after (maximize bioavailability)
  • minimize risk of esophageal injury: full glass of water, remain upright (sitting/standing) at least 30 mins, avoid chewing or sucking on alendronate tablets

NURS 2514 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions