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Equipment And Devices; Therapeutic Modalities > Mobility > Flashcards

Mobility Flashcards

1
Q

How far away should a patient place their lead hand away from the sliding board?

A

4-6 inches

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2
Q

Patients with unilateral weight-bearing restrictions or hemiplegia may utilize what transfer and lead with what foot?

A

Stand pivot transfer leading with their
Uninvolved side

This transfer may also be used therapeutically, leading with the involved side for a patient post CVA

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3
Q

What w/c frame - pt is able to self propel using LE

A

Hemi frame

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4
Q

What w/c frame - pt is able to self propel using one UE

A

One hand drive frame

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5
Q

What w/c frame - pt is unable to self propel or safely operate a power w/c

A

Geri chair

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6
Q

A back insert for a patient requiring no postural support and has no neuromuscular deficits; not typically intended for long-term use

A

Sling back

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7
Q

The back insert for a patient requiring mild to moderate trunk support due to Tone strength or deformity related postural concerns

A

Planar ( flat) back insert

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8
Q

A back insert for patients requiring moderate trunk support due to tone strength or deformity related postural concerns

A

Curved back insert

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9
Q

Seat insert for a pt with no seated deformity

A

Planar flat seat

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10
Q

A seat insert for a patient requiring mild to aggressive supportive curvature to provide increased contact between the lower body and the seat

A

Curved seat

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11
Q

A seat insert for a patient requiring correction of pelvic obliquity or fixed asymmetrical deformity

A

Custom molded seat

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12
Q

A seat insert for patient whom self propels using LEs

A

Bevel ( undercut) front edge of seat

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13
Q

Trunk support for a pt requiring mild to mod lateral support due to listing or scoliosis

A

Planar lateral supports

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14
Q

Trunk support for a pt requiring total constant lateral support due to significant listing or scoliosis

A

Contoured or curved lateral supports

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15
Q

Trunk support for a pt requiring support to correct for anterior listing

A

Chest strap

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16
Q

Trunk support for pt requiring both trunk and shoulder support to correct for anterior listing

A

Chest harness

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17
Q

What are full length armrest good for

A

Pt perform sts transfers, additional support, pt need for lap board

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18
Q

Pt needs minimal support for the UE; pt requires easy access to wheels for propulsion, pt requires easy removal of arms

A

Tubular or single posted arms

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19
Q

Large diameter handrims for?

A

Some degree of weakness

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20
Q

Pt has grip deficits or hand deformities which limits the ability to functionally grip rims

A

Rim projections

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21
Q

Pt requires assistance with adequate grasp or friction when hands are in contact with wheel rims

A

Covered rims

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22
Q

Footrest required for a pt with a lower extremity that is not aligned with body midline as with a windswept deformity

A

Custom foot box

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23
Q

Light weight cushions but can produce high shear forces

A

Soiled foam cushions

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24
Q

Cushions which are heavier but serve to limited shear forces

A

Liquid cushions

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25
Q

Proper height of parallel bars and walker

A

Allows for 20-25 degrees of elbow flexion - grasp the parallel bars approximately 4-6 inches in front of the body

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26
Q

Crutches parameters

A

6 inches in front
2 inches lateral
Crutch height no more than 3 finger width from the axilla
Handgrip adjusted to ulnar styloid process

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27
Q

What AD requires the highest level of coordination

A

Loftstrand crutches

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28
Q

What AD shouldn’t be utilized for pt’s that are partial wb

A

Straight cane

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29
Q

The pt ambulates moving the left crutch forward while simultaneously advancing the right LE

A

Two point gait

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30
Q

The AD, following by involved LE, and lastly the uninvolved LE

A

Three point LE

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31
Q

What gait pattern is prescribed when a pt exhibits impaired coordination

A

Four point gait

Similar to the two point gait but the pt does not move the LE simultaneously with the device, but rather waits and advances the opposite leg once the crutch or cane has been advanced

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32
Q

Descending stairs stairs with crutches sequence

A

Involved leg and crutch to the lower step; followed by uninvolved leg

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33
Q

A device is commonly used for a short term liquid feeding, medication administration, or to remove gas from the stomach

A

nasogastric tube

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34
Q

A tube used for pt’s with diff with swallowing due to an anatomic or neurologic disorder or to avoid the risk of aspiration

A

Gastric tube or jejunostomy tube

Used for long term feeding

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35
Q

If a a line is displaced what should PT do

A

Apply direct pressure and call for assistance

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36
Q

What monitoring device is used for measuring BP or to obtain blood samples

A

Arterial line

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37
Q

What monitoring device is used to evaluate the right ventricle function, right atrial filling pressure, and circulating blood volume.

A

Central venous pressure catheter

Measures pressure in the r atrium or superior vena cava

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38
Q

What monitoring device is used for long term administration of substances into the venous system such as chemotherapeutic agents, total parenteral nutrition, and antibiotics

A

Indwelling right atrial catheter (Hickman)

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39
Q

What device is used to determine oxygen saturation of blood

A

Oximeter

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40
Q

What monitoring device is used to provide continuous measurements of pulmonary artery pressure.

A

Swan ganz Cather aka pulmonary artery Catheter

Pt should avoid excessive movement of the head neck and extremities to avoid disrupting the line at the insertion site

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41
Q

Applying a traction force using an externally applied weight most commonly used for femur fractures

A

Balanced suspension

Requires prolonged immobilization

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42
Q

What type of skeletal fixation allows for earlier mobility while maintaining the desired alignment

A

External fixation

Internal too

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43
Q

Ostomy device

A

Poop bag attached to small intestine with stoma exit

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44
Q

Diagnostic test used to identify arteriosclerosis, rumors, or blockages

A

Arteriography

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45
Q

Invasive test providing visualization of joint structures through radiographs

A

Arthrography

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46
Q

A test which relies on the transmission and reflection of high-frequency sound waves to produce cross-sectional images in a variety of planes. It can evaluate blood flow in the major veins arteries and cerebrovascular system

A

Doppler ultrasonography

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47
Q

What diagnostic test is used to assess seizure activity metabolic disorders and cerebral lesions

A

Electroencephalography

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48
Q

Which diagnostic test is used to identify bone displacement, disk herniation. Spinal cord compression or tumors

A

Myelography

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49
Q

Which diagnostic test produced planar images

A

X-ray

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50
Q

The gain or loss of heat resulting form direct contact between two materials at different temperatures ie cold pack, paraffin, ice massage

A

Conduction

Metal has an extremely high thermal conductivity thus all Jewelry must be removed prior to initiating treatment

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51
Q

Gain or loss of heat resulting from air or water moving in constant motion across the body ie hot whirlpool

A

Convection

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52
Q

Hearing that occurs when non thermal energy is absorbed into the tissue and transformed into heat. Heat transfer does not require direct contact but does need a median that allows transmission
I e ultrasound or diathermy

A

Conversion

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53
Q

Refers to the transfer of heat that occurs as a liquid absorbs energy and changes into a vapor

A

Evaporation

Vapocoolant spray

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54
Q

Refers to the direct transfer of heat from a radiation energy source of higher temperature to one cooler temperature

A

Radiation

Infrared lamp

Laser
Uv light

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55
Q

5 contraindications to cryotherapy

A 
Cold intolerance 
Infection
Decrease circulation 
Over regenerating nerves 
Raynaud's phenomena
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56
Q

When should one stop ice massage?

A

Ice massage should continue until the pt reports analgesia aka inability to feel pain

Intense cold > burning > aching > analgesia

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57
Q

Following ice massage what is the normal skin response ?

A

Dark Pink or red

Abnormal is wheals

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58
Q

What strategy should be used to inc the initial cooling heating effects of hot/cold pack?

A

Moist towel to minimize the influence of air as a poor conductor of temperature

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59
Q

Parameters for ice pack application

A

Applied for 20-30 mins

30 mins is for spasticity reduction

Reapplied 1 to 2 hours for reduction of inflammation and pain control

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60
Q

Spray and stretch technique for trigger points

A

Make three to four sweeps with the spray in the direction of the muscle fibers
Applied at a 30 degree angel at a distance of 12-18 inches from the skin
Stretched during the spraying and after
Reapplication during same treatment is saga as long as the skin is rewarmed

61
Q

Vapocoolant spray for non-trigger point application

A

From proximal to distal

Torticollis, neck, or low back pain caused by muscle spasm, acute bursitis, and hamstring tightness

62
Q

How many layers of towels should be between the skin and the hot pack?

A

6-8

Commercial hot pack is equivalent to 2-3 towel layers

63
Q

If pt can’t tolerate from for hot pack treatment ?

A

Pt should be positioned in SL with the HP strapped to body

64
Q

Skin checks for hot pack how often

A

After first 5 min

After 6-8 minutes max surface temp is reached, making it critical to perform frequent skin checks during the first ten mins

65
Q

How long do hot packs require to achieve the desired effects?

A

15-20 min

66
Q

If the hot pack is not hot enough what should the PT do?

A

Towels should be removed the next treatment session

67
Q

A container circulating warm air and small cellulose particles, creating superficial heating thought forced convection

A

Fluidotherapy

68
Q

What is the main therapeutic effect of infrared lamp

A

Enhancement of soft tissue healing

69
Q

Benefits of paraffin

A

Low melting point- more even distribution of heat

Low specific heat- enhances a pt’s ability to tolerate heat

70
Q

A paraffin technique where the pt maintains a static position as the distal extremity is dipped into the paraffin bath and is removed. After it hardens it is dipped back in for 6-10 times then placed into a plastic bag and towel wrapped

A

Dip- wrap

71
Q

What are non-thermal effects of ultrasound

A

Increased cell and skin membrane permeability, increased intracellular calcium levels, facilitation of tissue repairs, and promotion of normal cell function

72
Q

What decreases the acoustic impedance by eliminating as much air as possible between the transducer and the target area.

A

Coupling agents

73
Q

When using indirect coupling agents such as water immersion the transducer should be moved parallel to the treatment surface at a distance of

A

0.5-3.0 centimeters away from the skin

74
Q

What is the beam non uniformity ratio (BNR)

A

The ratio between the special peak intensity and the spatial averaged intensity

Usually is 5:1 or 6:1

The Lower the BNR the better since less hotspots

75
Q

What frequency of ultrasound is absorbed more rapidly?

A

Higher frequency is absorbed more rapidly than ultrasound delivered at a lower frequency.

76
Q

A setting of 3 MHz is used for?

A

More superficial tissues (1 to 2 cm) since it’s a higher frequency which is absorbed more rapidly

77
Q

A frequency of 1MHz is for

A

Deeper tissues (up to 5 cm)

78
Q

Pulsed ultrasound is primarily used for generating ?

A

Non thermal effects and should be done at 20% or lower duty cycle

79
Q

An area of _______ times the size of the transducer typically requires a duration of _____ minutes.

A

2-3 times

5 minutes

Ultrasound should not be used to treat Areas larger than 4 times the effective radiating area of the transducer

80
Q

Ultrasound using thermal effects usually is applied when in the healing process?

A

Later

2-3 x a week

Vs for nonthermal effects is usually applied earlier in the healing process, as frequently as once a day

81
Q

Benefits of diathermy over ultrasound

A

Can heat surfaces effectively of up to 25x the size of a typical ultrasound transducer

Heat is applied to the target area In a more uniform fashion with diathermy since the application is performed statically

The rate of tissue cooling is slower with diathermy thus the PT has additional time to perform interventions that are enhanced by the increased tissue temp

82
Q

A tank used for full body immersion

A

Hubbard tank- temp should not exceed 100 degrees Fahrenheit

83
Q

Contraindications for full body immersion

A

Unstable BP and incontinence

84
Q

Treatment temperature guidelines - acute inflammation of distal extremities

A

32-79 degrees

85
Q

Treatment temperature guidelines - exercise

A

79-92

86
Q

Treatment temperature guidelines - wound care, spasticity

A

92-96

87
Q

Treatment temperature guidelines - cardiopulmonary compromise, treatment of burns

A

96-98

88
Q

Treatment temperature guidelines - pain management

A

99-104

89
Q

Treatment temperature guidelines- chronic rheumatoid arthritis, inc ROM

A

104-110

90
Q

A contrast utilizes alternating heat and cold in order to?

A

Dec edema in distal extremity

Treatment should begin with extremity immersed in hot bath with a temp between 104-106 for 3-4 minutes&raquo_space;» the pt should then place the distal extremity into the cold bath with temp between 50-60 for one min»> pt should repeat this hot cold process for 25-30 min

91
Q

How much force is indicated for cervical traction to treat muscle spasm or disk protrusion ?

A

7–10 percent of body weight or 11-15 lbs

Should not exceed 10 lbs the initial treatment session

92
Q

How much force is indicated for cervical traction to create joint distraction?

A

13-20% of a pt’s body weight or 20-30 lbs

Should not exceed 30 lbs

93
Q

What compression bandages should be applied for pt’s who are immobile?

A

Long-term bandages

94
Q

Which compression bandages we most commonly used during exercise?

A

Short-stretch bandages

Pt’s must have functional calf muscle and gait pattern

95
Q

Which compression bandages are most often used for venous stasis ulcers?

A

Multi-layered bandages

Provide protection absorption and and compression

96
Q

Unna boot is a example of what kind of compression bandage

A

Semirigid made of zinc oxide impregnated gauze

97
Q

Off shelf compression garments used to prevent DVT

A

16-18 mm Hg

98
Q

Compression garments offering 20-30 mmhg for?

A

Scar tissue control

99
Q

Compression garments providing 30-40 mm Hg is typically required for

A

Edema control

100
Q

Intermittent pneumatic compression pump pressure should not exceed the pt’s diastolic pressure

A

Ranges from 30-80 mmhg

Inflation pressure greater than the pt’s systolic blood pressure may restrict arterial blood flow and create a medical emergency

101
Q

Primary indication of the CPM is to ?

A

Improve ROM that may have been impaired secondary to a surgical procedure.

102
Q

A direct current is most often used with ?

A

Iontophoresis and is characterized by a constant flow of electrons from the anode to the cathode

103
Q

The amount of time it takes for one phase of a pulse. It begins at when the current departs from the zero line and ends as the current returns to the zero line

A

Phase duration

104
Q

The phase duration and pulse duration are the same in?

A

Monophasic current

105
Q

Alignment of electrodes for NMES

A

Parallel and a minimum of 2 inches apart

106
Q

Shorter pulse duration are more comfortable when targeting ?

A

Smaller muscles

107
Q

Frequency for NMES

A

Should be sufficient to produce a tetanic contraction. Usually produced at a frequency of 35-50 pulses per second. Higher frequency will not produce a stronger contraction but will instead rapidly fatigue the muscle

108
Q

The ON and OFF time for NMES

A

On time should be 6-10 seconds

Off time should be 5x longer

Pt should complete 10-20 contractions

Min of 3x per week

109
Q

Conventional TENS- amplitude, pulse frequency, pulse duration, treatment time

A

Amp- Sufficient for a sensory response
Frequency- high 30-150 pulse per second
Pulse duration- short 50-10 msec
Treatment time- varied based of the duration of ADL

110
Q

Acupuncture-like TENS- amplitude, pulse frequency, pulse duration, treatment time

A

Amp- Sufficient for muscle twitch
Frequency- low 2-4 pulse per second
Pulse duration- long 100-300 msec
Treatment time- 20-45 minutes

111
Q

Brief intense TENS- amplitude, pulse frequency, pulse duration, treatment time

A

Amp- Sufficient for a strong paresthesias or a motor response
Frequency- low 60-200 pulse per second
Pulse duration- long 150-500 msec
Treatment time- 15 min

112
Q

Noxious TENS- amplitude, pulse frequency, pulse duration, treatment time

A

Amp- Highest tolerated stim
Frequency- low or high
Pulse duration- long 250 msec up to 1 sec
Treatment time- 30-60 secs for each point

113
Q

The rate of ion delivery is determined by what four factors

A

The rate of ion delivery, he pH of the solution, the current density, and the duration of treatment

114
Q

Negatively charged ions are carried into the body’s tissue from the ?

A

Negative pole (cathode)

115
Q

The amount of electricity used when performing iontophoresis

A

Dosage- determined by multiplying current amplitude and time

A current of 40 mA-min could be delivered in 10 mins with a current of 4.0 mA

A longer duration and a lower current amplitude will be less likely to cause skin irritation or burns.

Ranges from 40-80 mA-min

116
Q

What is the recommended spacing between the active and dispersive electrode for iontophoresis?

A

Minimally equivalent to the diameter of the active electrode

117
Q

One way to decrease the risk of iontophoresis burns?

A

As the spacing btw the electrodes inc, the current density in the superficial tissues decreases, resulting in a diminished risk for burns

Also decreasing the current density and inc the size of the cathode relative to the anode

118
Q

Smaller electrodes have a higher _____ and are used to treat a specific lesion

A

Current density

119
Q

Additional treatment time may be required if the intensity is less than ______?

A

Four milliamperes

120
Q

What results from sodium hydroxide forming under the negative electrode (cathode)

A

Alkaline reaction

121
Q

What results from iontophoresis treatment as hydrochloride acid forms under positive electrode (anode)

A

Acidic reaction

122
Q

Acetic acid- indications and polarity

A

Calcification deposits and myositis ossificans

Negative

123
Q

Calcium chloride - indications and polarity

A

Scar tissue, keloids, muscle spasm

Negative

124
Q

Copper sulfate - indications and polarity

A

Fungal infection

Positive

125
Q

Dexamethasone - indications and polarity

A

Inflammation

Negative

126
Q

Iodine- indications and polarity

A

Scars and adhesive capsulitis

Negative

127
Q

Lidocaine- indications and polarity

A

Analgesia and inflammation

Positive

128
Q

Magnesium sulfate- indications and polarity

A

Muscle spasms and ischemia

POSITIVE

129
Q

Salicylates - indications and polarity

A

Muscle and joint pain and plantar warts

Negative

130
Q

Zinc oxide - indications and polarity

A

Healing and dermal ulcers and wounds

Positive

131
Q

Spontaneous potentials during _____ are abnormal findings and may indicate nerve or muscle damage

A

Rest

Fibrillation potentials, positive sharp wave, fasciculations, repetitive discharges

132
Q

Biofeedback for muscle relaxation requires a _______ sensitivity setting with the active electrodes initially placed _______

A

Muscle relaxation required a high sensitivity setting with the active electrodes initially placed close to each other. As the pt improves with relaxation, the electrodes should be placed further apart and the sensitivity setting should be increased

133
Q

The treatment for biofeedback for muscle reeducation should begin with?

A

Pt performing a max muscle contraction, the sensitivity of the biofeedback unit should be set to a low sensitivity setting and adjusted so pt can perform reps at a ration of 2/3 of max muscle contraction. Isometric holds should last 6-10 secs. An inc in audio or visual feedback is a positive sign

134
Q

Technique performed in the beginning and end of a massage treatment characterized by light stokes directed towards the heart

A

Effleurage

135
Q

Massage technique that incorporates small circular motions over a trigger point or muscle spasm. Used frequently with chronic inflammation or with overuse injuries. Primary exception to using lub

A

Friction massage

136
Q

Massage characterized by kneading where the muscle is squeezed and rolled under the therapist’s hands. The goal is to loose. Adhesions, improve lymphatic return, and facilitate removal of metabolic waste

A

Petrissage

137
Q

Massage technique used to enhance circulation and stimulate peripheral nerve endings by tapping, hacking, cupping, and slapping motions.

A

Tapotement

138
Q

Technique used primarily for relaxation

A

Vibration

139
Q

What is the final arm rest height measurement which is 7 inches from the seat of the chair to the olecranon process with the elbow flexed to 90 degrees

A

8

140
Q

What is the final seat depth measurement that is 18 inches from the posterior butt along the lateral thigh to the popliteal fold

A

16

141
Q

What are the measurements of a standard W/C?

A

18” width, 16” depth, and 20” height

142
Q

Cold urticaria and Raynaud’s phenomenon are contraindications for what

A

Cryotherapy

143
Q

Arterial disease, pvd, thrombophlebitis are contraindications for what ?

A

Superficial thermotherapy

144
Q

What temp should be maintained for paraffin bath?

A

113-122

145
Q

What is the primary therapeutic effect of of an infrared lamp

A

Enhances superficial tissue healing

146
Q

How deep does the healing occur for ultraviolet light?

A

1-2 mm into the skin

147
Q

A measure of the electromotive force or the electrical potential difference

A

Voltage

148
Q

The directed flow of charge from one place to another

A

Current

149
Q

A pt that is dependent should be repositioned in bed at least every ____ hours

A

Two

Equipment And Devices; Therapeutic Modalities (1 decks)

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