MMD Exam 1 Lecture Flashcards

1
Q

treatment threshold is determined by _____ probability and _____ ______

A

pretest, likelihood ratios

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2
Q

a ____ _____ is useful if it can distinguish between diagnoses that mimic each other which moves the clinician closer to the treatment threshold

A

diagnostic test

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3
Q

the following are stats for a ____ test
- pretest and posttest probability
- sensitivity and specificity
- positive and negative likelihood ratios

A

“good”

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4
Q

1st step in the decision-making process or creating your “hypothesis”
based on a combo of:
– Prevalence rates
– History & MOI
– Results of any prior work-up – Clinician’s experience

A

pretest probability

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5
Q

____ _____ is the “truth”; the diagnostic test that best identifies a specific condition (ex. arthroscopic findings for ACL tear)

A

reference standard

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6
Q

(ideal/poor) study: blind, prospective with a consecutive group of subjects subjected of having the target dx

A

ideal

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7
Q

sensitivity is the true ____ rate

A

positive - the tests ability to detect those who actually have a disorder as indicated by the reference standard
high sensitivity = few false negatives

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8
Q

sensitivity or specificity? negative result rules out condition

A

sensitivity (SnNOUT)

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9
Q

sensitivity or specificity? positive result rules in condition

A

specificity (SPIN)

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10
Q

specificity is the true ____ rate

A

negative - the tests ability to detect those who actually do NOT have a disorder as indicated by the reference standard
high specificity = few false positives

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11
Q

_____ _____ express the change in odds favoring the disorder given a positive or negative test

A

likelihood ratios

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12
Q

likelihood ratios: large positive LR (>5)
(increases/decreases) odds favoring diagnosis given positive test
helpful for ruling (in/out) condition

A

increases, in

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13
Q

likelihood ratios: small negative LR (<0.3)
(increases/decreases) odds favoring diagnosis given negative test
helpful for ruling (in/out) condition

A

decreases, out

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14
Q

_____ _____ _____ are tools used by clinicians to determine the likelihood a patient is presenting with a certain disease based on certain variables; and to identify patients most likely to benefit from specific treatment intervention

A

clinical prediction rules

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15
Q

T/F: most clinical prediction rules in PT practice are validated

A

false, NOT validated
must remain secondary to sound clinical judgement although they have the potential to improve outcomes, increase patient satisfaction, and decrease costs of care

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16
Q

what is the minimal critically important difference (MCID)?

A

the smallest change score associated with a patient’s perception of a change in health status; an important concept when looking at effect size and clinical relevance of research findings

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17
Q

interpreting “positive” trials:
if the lower boundary of the confidence interval (the end that suggests the smallest benefit from treatment) is greater than the MCID, you can conclude the trial is a ____ positive trial

A

definitive

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18
Q

interpreting “positive” trials:
if the lower boundary of the confidence interval (the end that suggests the smallest benefit from treatment) is less than the MCID, you can conclude the trial is a ____ positive trial

A

trivial

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19
Q

the practice of evidence-based medicine means integrating what 3 things?

A

best research evidence, clinical expertise, and patient values

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20
Q

name pitfalls in making clinical decisions based on “tradition and authority”

A

tradition: “that’s how they taught me to treat x in PT school”
authority: power of persuasion by flashy techniques/doctors

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21
Q

what is the chief virtue of the scientific method?

A

reduction of bias

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22
Q

____: justifications for treatment based on basic or applied work designed to answer the question of why something should work

A

theory

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23
Q

_____: justifications for treatment based on applied work (on patients) designed to answer the question of if something works

A

evidence

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24
Q

_____: the term that names the primary dysfunction which directs treatment

A

PT diagnosis

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25
Q

T/F: the PT diagnosis is all about probabilities and limiting uncertainty

A

true
pretest probability (baseline) and post-test probability (application of diagnostic test alters baseline probability a patient has a certain condition)

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26
Q

the instant realization that the patient conforms to a previously learned pattern of disease; usually reflexive not reflective (observing scoliosis)

A

pattern recognition

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27
Q

the formulation from the earliest clues of a “short list” of potential diagnoses
- subsequent tests are performed which will most likely reduce the length of the list
- requires an understanding of probability (zebras versus horses)

A

hypothetico-deductive method

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28
Q

match the following approaches: exhaustive or hypothesis-driven
A. bold hypotheses are proposed and then exposed to severe criticism; requires understanding of confirmatory/disconfirmatory tests
B. empty the mind of all preconveived notions; watch nature in action; draw conclusions after all facts are in

A

A. hypothesis-driven
B. exhaustive

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29
Q

the effectiveness of a hypothesis-driven approach hinges on:

A

appropriate selection and interpretation of diagnostic tests

remember - every element of the history and physical exam should be considered & clinicians must appraise the literature regarding diagnostic tests

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30
Q

name 4 prognostic factors

A

demographic, individual patient behaviors, disease-specific, co-morbidities

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31
Q

rank the 5 levels of evidence

A
  1. RCTs
  2. cohort studies
  3. case-control studies
  4. case-series
  5. expert opinion
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32
Q

strong/grade A evidence vs. moderate/grade B evidence

A

one or more level 1 systematic reviews = strong

one or more level 2 systematic reviews or a preponderance of level 3 systematic reviews = moderate

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33
Q

be familiar with the following terms regarding outcome measures:
MDC
Test-retest Reliability
Content Validity
Responsiveness to change

A

MDC - minimal detectable change outside of measurement error
Test-retest Reliability - consistency of results when repeated
Content Validity - testing what it intends to test
Responsiveness to change - detect change over time

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34
Q

biomedical approach to patient care assumes:

A

all pain has a distinct physiologic cause and clinicials should be able to find and treat that physiologic problem

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35
Q

the biomedical model is not supported with

A

chronic pain
pathology but no sxs

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36
Q

cognitive-behavioral factors and patient expectations are strongly associated with patient ____ and pain _____

A

prognosis, outcomes

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37
Q

the biopsychosocial model is particularly useful for treating patients with ___ pain

A

chronic

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38
Q

the biopsychosocial model begins with ___, second is ____, and followed by ___ and ___ ____

A

nocioception, pain, suffering, pain behavior

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39
Q

nocioception vs. pain

A

encoding of damaging or potentially harmful noxious stimuli vs. unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage

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40
Q

T/F: sensitivity of nociceptors to painful stimuli is modifiable

A

true, increases or decreases in response to peripherally applied mechanical, thermal, or chemical stimuli

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41
Q

the following are characteristics of ____ ______:
- increases in random firing of nociceptors, responseness, and receptive field size
- increased responsiveness of nociceptive neurons to normal input
- activation with subthreshold input and silent nociceptors
- occurs within nociceptors receptive field
- basis for primary hyperalgesia

A

peripheral sensitization

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42
Q

the following are characteristics of _____ ______:
- increased receptive field size; spreading sensitivity that can include the entire (even contralateral) limb
- increased response to innocuous or noxious stimuli
- decrease threshold for activation
- basis for allodynia

A

central sensitization

43
Q

goals for central sensitization

A

reduce input from sensitized peripheral nociceptors
if peripheral nociceptors not at play, focus on central mechanisms

44
Q

inability to see anything but worst possible outcome; characterized by rumination, exaggeration, and helplessness

A

pain catastrophizing

45
Q

distressing negative experience induced by perceived threat; belief that movement will lead to further tissue damage

A

pain related fear

46
Q

what is a better predictor of diability than physical examination and pain intensity?

A

fear

47
Q

persistent pain and disability are associated with increased ____

A

depresion

48
Q

which of the following statements is false?
a. cognitions impact pain
b. pain is objective
c. chronic pain affects cognitions, beliefs, emotions, and behaviors
d. changing cognitions must occur to allow movement-based approaches to be effective

A

b. pain is subjective

49
Q

if a patient answers “yes” on general health screen, PT may choose to ask more specific questions such as:

A

is there an explanation for it?
has the patient mentioned this to a MD?
if MD is aware, has it become worse?

50
Q

from a screening perspective, the purpose of the diagnosis is to:

A
  1. treat as specifically as possible
  2. recognize the need for a medial/other referral
51
Q

name 4 conditions or organs that refer pain to the shoulder

A

heart, lungs, gall bladder, upper GI (NSAIDS)

52
Q

name 4 conditions or organs that refer pain to the back

A

pancreas, kidneys, liver, gallbladder

53
Q

What are the constitutional signs?

A

weight loss/gain
fatigue
fever/chills
weakness
trouble sleeping
hx of cancer
recent infection
night pain
loss of bowel and bladder control

54
Q

VINDICATES mnemonic to remember types of diseases to consider in differential dx

A

vascular
inflammatory/infection
neoplasm
degenerative
intoxication
congenital
autoimmune/allergic
trauma
endocrine
pSychosocial

55
Q

the following are common symptoms of ___ ____:
throbbing, pulsating
cold, warmth
deep ache
symptoms worsen with activity
joints/bone affected causing “bone-type” symptoms

A

vascular patterns

56
Q

define the cardinal signs of inflammation

A

rubor - redness
calor - heat
dolor - pain
tumor - swelling

57
Q

the following are common symptoms of ____:
fatigue/malaise
fever/sweats/chills
nausea
temp over 100, elevated vital signs

A

infection

58
Q

manifestations of a malignancy as a secondary growth arising from the primary site in a new location

A

neoplasm

59
Q

bone metastasis: think P.T.B.L.K

A

prostate
thyroid
breast
lung
kidney

60
Q

the following are common symptoms of ____:
sxs consistent/cyclical, wake at night, warm/red
joint pain with previous history of infections, medications, and IBS

A

degenerative

61
Q

the following are common symptoms of ____:
signs similar to infection
mentation changes/memory difficulty
nervous system abnormalities
irritability

A

intoxication

62
Q

the following are common symptoms of _____:
heat or cold intolerance
excessive sweating
changes in glove or shoe size
polyphagia - excessive eating
polyuria - excessive urination
polydipsia - excessive thirst

A

endocrine

63
Q

what are risk factors for femoral head/neck fracture?

A

female (hormonal, menstrual irregularities)
heavy involvement in jumping, running, marching
change in training program/routine
nutritional deficiencies
LLD
diminished muscle strength

64
Q

what are risk factors for cauda equina syndrome?

A

low back surgery/disk herniation
spinal stenosis
spinal fracture
ankylosing spondylitis

65
Q

____ ____ _____ commonly manifests as:
urinary dysfunction (retention/incontinence)
bowel dysfunction
sexual dysfunction
sensory deficits (saddle anesthesia/ LE)
motor deficits (LE)
gait ataxia/balance problems

A

cauda equina syndrome

66
Q

what are common manifestations of cervical myelopathy?

A

impaired hand dexterity (clumsiness)
gait/balance deficits
numbness/paresthesia (extremities)
neck stiffness
urinary dysfunction (retention, urgency/freq)

67
Q

what are common findings upon physical exam indicating cervical myelopathy?

A

hand intrinsic atrophy
muscle weakness (triceps, hands)
muscle weakness (LE, proximal)
UMN signs (hyper DTRs, clonus, +babinski, +hoffman)

68
Q

what are risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A

age 70+
male
smoking hx
hypercholesterolemia
coronary heart dx
family history of AAA

69
Q

patient describes back or abdominal pain as hot, searing, ripping, tearing pain. you suspect?

A

vascular dissection (AAA)
clinical exam includes: abdominal palpation and auscultation

70
Q

what are risk factors for DVT?

A

previous hx of DVT
age 60+, hx of CA, CHF, lupus, chemo, major surgery, major trauma, immobility, limb paralysis, women (pregnant, oral contraceptives, hormone therapy)
50% asymptomatic in early stages
most occur in proximal veins, ~30% in calf

71
Q

DVT Wells score

A

+1 active cancer
+1 paralysis/immobilization
+1 bed-ridden >3 days, major surgery past 12 weeks
+1 TTP along deep venous system
+1 swelling entire LE
+1 calf swelling >3 vs asymptomatic side
+1 pitting edema confined to symptomatic side
+1 collateral superficial veins
-2 alternative diagnosis about as likely as DVT

72
Q

pulmonary embolisms can go undiagnosis ~50% of the time; however, a majority of PE’s are complications of a ___

A

DVT (LE)

73
Q

describe an atypical myocardial infarction?

A

MI presents wtihout chest pain; “silent MI”

74
Q

clinical manifestations of MI in women

A

SOB
fatigue
sleep disturbance
nausea
palpitations
dizziness
diaphoresis: excessive sweating
anxiety

75
Q

modifiable risk factors for MI

A

smoking
high cholesterol
HTN
DM
obesity
sedentary
excessive alcohol (ETOH)

76
Q

what are the top 5 cancers for men and women, respectively

A

men - prostate, lung, colorectal, bladder, skin
women - breast, lung, colorectal, uterine, non-hodgekin lymphoma

77
Q

when do you refer a patient to another appropriate profession?

A

no apparent movement dysfunction, causative factors, or syndrome identified
history, reported MOI, and/or findings are not consistent with MSK/neuro dysfunction

78
Q

describe red flags for weight changes

A

recent unexplained weight change (5-10% BW over 6 months)
• gain: CHF, hypothyroid, CA, liver or renal dz
• loss: CA, GI, hyperthyroid, DM, depression

79
Q

describe osteomyelitis

A

bone infection
cause: surgery, penetrating wound, chronic wounds, poor dental hygiene
sxs: fever, fatigue, edema, erythema, tenderness, decreased function

80
Q

what are 3 common benign bone tumors?

A

osteoblastoma (short/flat bones)
osteoid osteoma (long bones)
*pain is predominating symptom for all
osteochondroma (metaphysis of long bones, abnormal shape and interferes more with function)

81
Q

describe multiple myeloma

A

most common malignant bone tumor
sxs: back pain, recurrent infection, anemia, renal impairment
red flag: persistent back pain associated with loss of height and osteoporosis

82
Q

describe chordoma

A

uncommon malignant bone cancer found in the sacrum and/or from the spine to the skull
sxs: progressive weakness, pain, numbness (spinal cord)

83
Q

define osteosarcoma

A

malignant bone tumor affecting the metaphysis of long bones
sxs: fracture may be first sign

84
Q

define ewings sarcoma

A

malignant bone tumor known to frequently metastasize from long bones

85
Q

define chondrosarcoma

A

malignant cancer in which cartilage cells produce cartilage rather than bone

86
Q

describe lyme disease

A

systemic infection transmitted by ticks
sxs: rash and redness around bite, flu-like symptoms, joint pain, fatigue, myalgia, headache, mononeuritis multicomplex (including bells palsy)

87
Q

sxs of pneumonia

A

fever, headache, thoracic back pain, chest pain

88
Q

sxs of pyelonephritis (UTI affecting kidneys)

A

fever, chills, nausea, flank pain, LBP, dysuria, increased frequency, neck pain/stiffness

89
Q

medications affecting the MSK system

A

• corticosteriods– osteonecrosis
• epilepsy meds– osteonecrosis
• neurotin (Gabapentin, anticonvulsant)– myopathy
• statins (lipitor)– myopathy
• humira (adalimumab, RA)– neuropathy, general or focal (radial nerve)
• chemotherapy– distal neuropathy

90
Q

what is the goal of an electrophysiologic test (EPT)?

A

Classify/clarify/test function
– Nerve(s)
– Location
– Motor vs. sensory vs. both
– Axonal vs. demyelinating vs. both
– Timing (chronic, acute, etc)
– Re-innervation?
– What its not
– Recommendations

91
Q

Excellent for identifying demyelination
Entrapment neuropathies
Only technique for sensory study
+/- identifying axonal injury
Limited use for radiculopathies or myopathies
Not helpful for timing

A

nerve conduction studies

92
Q

Gold standard to identify axonal injury
Identifies radiculopathies and myopathies (muscle disease)
Helpful for classifying acuteness
Not helpful to identify demyelination
Only evaluates motor nerves or muscle

A

electromyography

93
Q

the amplitude on a motor/sensory nerve conduction study represents the total number of physiologically _____ axons

A

intact

94
Q

decreased amplitude proximal and distal are consistent with what nerve conduction abnormality?

A

axonal damage/dysfunction (axontomesis)

95
Q

increased latency, decreased conduction velocity, and decreased amplitude proximal to injury is consistent with what nerve conduction abnormality?

A

demyelination (neuropraxia)

96
Q

what are the differences between late EMG responses: F-wave and H-reflex

A

F-wave = motor only, polysynaptic
H-reflex = motor and sensory, monosynaptic

97
Q

1st neural defect is demyelination of sensory fibers
increased median DSL (more important)
decreased median SNAP amplitude (less important)
increased median DML (less sensitive, appears later)
decreased median CMAP amplitude (less sensitive, appears later)
normal NCV forearm segment (usually but not always)
EMG abnormalities in hand intrinsic Mm. supplied by median N. (thenar Mm. & lumbricals I-II)
- least sensitive, appear in advanced cases
- PSWs, Fibs, increased insertional activity, decreased recruitment

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

98
Q

classifications of carpal tunnel

A

Mild = prolonged DSL +/- decreased SNAP amplitude
Moderate = as above, plus prolonged DML
Severe = prolonged DSL, prolonged DML, decreased CMAP amplitude, EMG abnormalities (PSWs, Fibs, decreased recruitment, MUP changes)

99
Q

T/F: positive health assessment outcomes are synonymous with improved impairment measures

A

false, measures of function and impairment together indicate the effectiveness of an intervention

100
Q

phases of healing timelines from acute to chronic

A

acute: 0-6 (protection)
subacute: 3-20 (controlled motion)
chronic: +9, ~6 weeks (return to function)

101
Q

more _____ conditions need fewer bouts and repetitions; more painful conditions need more frequent _____ exercises and activities

A

irritable, pain-easing

102
Q

exercises and time of day:
____ and ____ exercises early in the day to improve range for ADL
______ exercises later in the day to prevent fatigue with ADL
_____-_____ exercises as needed throughout the day
_____ or ____ _____ exercises throughout the day

A

ROM and stretching exercises early in the day to improve range for ADL
Strengthening exercises later in the day to prevent fatigue with ADL
Symptoms-easing exercises as needed throughout the day
Stimulation or motor learning/re-learning exercises throughout the day

103
Q

keep total number of exercises to minimum (5 or less) by ____ exercises when the effect of the exercise is no longer a priority

A

replacing

104
Q

rule of 90% performance

A

do not sacrifice the effects of 90% of the program to get the additional 10%
-exercise not liked by patient
-performance of one exercise not perfect
-exercise invented by patient