MLS Flashcards
analytes
substance or constituent in which the laboratory conducts testing?
chelation of calcium in the EDTA tube?
Prevents coagulation by inhibiting coagulation
common application of the polarized light microscope in the clinical laboratory do?
Study crystals in urine and in cells
The rate at which a glucose molecule attaches to hemoglobin to form a ketoamine is **directly/indirectly **proportional to the glucose concentration in the plasma.
Directly proportional
What characteristics/functions do calibrators have?
Contains a known amount of analyte being tested
Calibrators are used to establish a correlation between the measurement response and the concentration or amount of the substance that is being measured by the test procedure.
Contains a known amount of analyte being tested
Chemiluminescence
immunoassay methodology is **the emission of light by molecules **in an excited state with a limited amount of heat as the result of a chemical reaction?
Biosafety level of 2+ or 3
serious or potentially lethal dz with respiratory transmission
Biosafety level laboratory operate to handle TB sputum and TM materials?
Absorbance can be calculated easily from percent transmission using which calculation?
2 – log10 %T
What refers to the reproducibility of test results?
Precision
Class B fire extinguishers used for?
.
Flammable liquid
formula is used to convert Celsius to Kelvin?
.
Celsius plus 273
organization requires training in chemical hazards and infectious materials for new testing personnel?
OSHA
nearest degree, what is 40° Fahrenheit converted to Celsius?
4° C
Why do laboratories record temperature and humidity levels daily?
Out-of-control conditions could be caused by changes in temperature and humidity
the name of the substance in which solute is dissolved in?
Solvent
Which type of microscope objective should never be used with oil?
40x objective
How many milliliters (mL) of 0.25 M NaOH are needed to make 100 mL of a 0.05 M solution of NaOH?
20 mL
What process helps monitor the accuracy and reproducibility of results using controlled specimens?
Quality control
In the calculation of MCV = HCT x 10/___?
RBC
Category B,
Bioterorism agents category: moderate
(suffering from the disease) with low mortality (death) rates.
How do you convert Celsius to Fahrenheit?
F=(Celsius degrees number x 9/5) + 32
Lipemic
milky-white plasma or serum may interfere with chemical determinations, such as triglyceride or nephelometric assays?
A microscope should never be left with the __________ in place.
oil-immersion objective
Which three veins are most frequently used for a venipuncture?
Cephalic, basilic, and median cubita
Which substance is employed to produce a chemical reaction?
Reagent
How many grams of sulfosalicylic acid (MW = 254) are required to prepare 1 L of a 3% (w/v) solution?
30
3 * 1000/100 = 3*10 = 30 grams
What can result from failing to apply sufficient pressure to a venipuncture site?
Hematoma
disorders requires the observation of oligoclonal immunoglobulin bands on cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein electrophoresis?
Multiple sclerosis
Which analyte rises first in response to inflammation?
C-reactive protein
Which of the following is the most widely used tumor marker for colorectal cancer?
Carcinoembryonic antigen
determinations is used to assess the total body lead poisoning burden?
Whole blood lead
Which of the following associations of creatine kinase and disease condition is correct?
CK-MB and cardiac disorders
Which of the following levels do parathyroid glands either increase or decrease PTH secretion in response to changes?
Calcium
What does a biuret reaction for total protein analysis depend on?
Peptide bonds
Which of the following is primarily evaluated in an ALT assessment?
Hepatic disorders
Which of the following diseases or conditions results from an incompatibility between maternal and fetal blood?
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
How is the formation of HbA1c related to plasma glucose concentration?
Directly proportional
Which of the following is prolonged in tourniquet use cause?
Hyperkalemia
What is the function of the pituitary gland?
Stimulates the other glands to produce hormones as needed
In which organ are most plasma proteins synthesized?
Liver
Which tumor marker is an abundant serum protein and is normally synthesized by the fetal liver?
Alpha-fetoprotein
Which condition would most likely be the cause of an increased ALP level in an adult?
Liver disease
What is secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas and is the major hormone that opposes the action of insulin, therefore increasing blood glucose by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen in the liver
Glucagon
Which of the following is one of the most common clinical applications of GC-MS analysis?
Drug testing
Which two hormones are produced by the thyroid gland from the trace mineral iodine and are responsible for the regulation of metabolic activities in all body cells?
Thyroxine and triiodothyronine
Which class does the enzyme, aspartate aminotransferase (AST), belong to?
Transferases
What are the two main groups of plasma proteins?
Albumin and globulin
What is a glycoprotein hormone that is secreted by the kidney and functions to increase the production of red blood cells?
Erythropoietin
Which is a condition involving the deposition of plaques in the blood vessels that has been proven to lead to coronary artery disease?
Atherosclerosis
What are the two most common aminotransferases measured in the clinical laboratory?
AST and ALT
The measurement of the decrease in intensity of an incident light beam as it passes through a solution of particles defines which of the following methods?
Turbidimetry
In what manner is the dye uptake by a sample following electrophoresis and staining related to the sample concentration?
Directly proportional
Which of the following are the two methods used to characterize monoclonal proteins?
- Immunoelectrophoresis
- immunofixation electrophoresis
Which of the following indicates a borderline triglyceride range?
150 – 199 mg/dL
Which tissue is richest in acid phosphatase?
Prostate
The nephrons of the kidneys have five basic parts. Which part is also referred to as the Bowman’s capsule?
Glomerulus
Which of the following is a non-insulin dependent diabetes, is characterized by insulin resistance and progressive hyperglycemia, and is called “adult-onset diabetes”?
Type 2
What is an inflammation-sensitive protein that can be measured by immunoassays?
C-reactive protein (CRP)
Brain isoenzyme
Creatinine kinase can be separated into three distinct molecular forms. CK-BB is mainly indicated by which tissue?
Which of the following gives serum its characteristic milky appearance (lipemia) when blood is drawn after a meal?
Chylomicrons
What is the term for the mathematical modeling of drug concentration in circulation, which helps assist in establishing a dosage regimen?
Pharmacokinetics
What tumor marker is most useful in the diagnosis of ovarian and endometrial carcinomas?
CA 125
Elevation of which enzymes are found in hepatocellular disorders?
AST, ALT
What is the yellow discoloration of the plasma, skin, and mucous membranes that is caused by the abnormal metabolism, accumulation, or retention of bilirubin called?
Jaundice
What is derived from the iron-containing heme portion of hemoglobin, which is released from the breakdown of RBCs?
Bilirubin
Which is the key membrane component for a potassium selective electrode?
Valinomycin
Which term refers to the mathematical difference between the anions (CL- and HCO3-) and the cations (Na+ and K+)?
Anion gap
Which enzyme may be elevated for up to 48 hours after mild to strenuous activity or exercise?
CK
What does a manual reticulocyte count do?
d.
Uses a vital stain which can be a biological hazard
What is indicated by a large red cell distribution curve on an automated blood count?
Abnormal red cell size variation
What causes patients on radiation and chemotherapy to develop bleeding problems?
Decrease in thrombocytes
Which leukocyte responds to bacterial infections?
Neutrophil
What hematological disease/disorder has an increased number of immature cells?
Acute leukemia
Formalin
is used as a fixative to fix bone marrow particles from core biopsy specimen?
What is a Hematology stain that is used to make white blood cell differential smears?
Wright stain
Which of the following is an immature granulocyte with a non-segmented nucleus?
Band neutrophil
Which cellular constituent of blood contains the vital protein hemoglobin?
Erythrocytes
Which term refers to an abnormal distribution pattern of red blood cells, in which cells stick together or are aligned in aggregates resembling stacks of coins?
Rouleaux
In most infections, there is some increase in the ESR. What are two exceptions?
Chorea and undulant fever
Who developed the rule that is used in quality control to evaluate results when two or more levels of control material are used?
Westgard
As the neutrophil matures, which neutrophil has reddish-purple primary granules that help to identify the cell?
Promyelocyte
When performing a bone marrow differential count, which cell is NOT included?
Megakaryocytes
What type of cell does the monocyte transition into once it leaves the blood and enters the tissue?
Macrophage
What cells differentiate further in the bone marrow while encountering an antigen?
B lymphocytes
What is used to evaluate size distribution curve of leukocyte data and allows visualization of subpopulation of cells based on their relative sizes?
Histogram
graph that display continous numeric values
What color top can the additive EDTA be found in?
Lavender top
Which macrocytic anemias are the results of vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency, or a combination of both?
Megaloblastic anemias
What is the name of nucleated red blood cells or reticulocytes in the peripheral blood?
Shift cells
Shift cells are nucleated red blood cells or polychromatic macrocytes
Which erythrocyte index indicates whether the red blood cells will appear microcytic, normocytic, or macrocytic?
MCV
What are erythrocytes referred to that are larger in size?
Macrocytes
What is the rate at which red blood cells settle to the bottom of a test tube?
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Which automated blood cell counting principle is based on increased resistance that occurs when a blood cell with poor conductivity passes through an electrical field?
Impedance
When performing the Westergren method, fresh anticoagulated blood collected in sodium citrate is the preferred anticoagulant. What is the ratio of blood to sodium citrate?
4 vol of blood to 1 vol of sodium citrate
4:1
What is the process in which a cell engulfs and digests foreign material?
Phagocytosis
What is a white blood cell known as in human blood?
Leukocyte
What is the hematology orderable test that consists of analytes such as hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood cell count with morphology, white blood cell count with differential, and platelet estimate?
counting everything
Complete blood count
Morphologically, what are anemias generally classified as?
Normochromic-normocytic,
macrocytic,
hypochromic-microcytic
Which term is used to describe a red blood cell with a normal shape?
Discocyte
When evaluating an* erythrocyte histogram, a shift to the left* of the erythrocyte series should correspond to which type of erythrocytes?
Microcytes
Which stain helps precipitate residual ribosomal RNA within reticulocytes?
New methylene blue
After the PM check, you run quality control (QC) for prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The QC for the aPTT is within 2 SD but the PT control is outside of 6 SD. In troubleshooting, what might the problem be?
The ISI value that is currently in the instrument was set back to zero after maintenance and needs to be re-entered before patient testing is resumed.
What is the process of stopping blood loss through ruptured blood veins, arteries, and capillaries called?
Hemostasis
What is the appropriate ratio of blood to anticoagulant in a sodium citrate tube drawn for routine coagulation studies?
9:1
You are running at prothrombin time (PT)….The specimen was in a 3.2% sodium citrate tube that was received into the lab 20 minutes after it was collected and spun immediately upon arrival. What may be the cause of the failure to clot?
The specimen had a clot in it that was not detected upon arrival in the lab.
The physician suspects a chronically malnourished patient has scurvy because of bleeding gums. The physician would order tests for
vitamin C.
The activity of Factor V in plasma deteriorates even when the plasma is frozen. Factor V is also known as
a labile coagulation factor.
What is synthesized by the liver through the action of vitamin K?
Prothrombin
Which test is not beneficial for evaluating a patient with suspected von Willebrand disease?
Platelet count
The activated partial thromboplastin time is used to monitor which drug therapy?
Heparin
Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)
test for?
nontreponemal serological test?
SLE Latex Test
polystyrene latex particles coated with deoxyribonucleoprotein (DNP)?
another antibody enhancement medium
polyethylene glycol
Rabbit erythrocyte stroma
function
one method to remove reactivity from a cold antibody?
anti A/B pos group
AB
type
What is the most significant indicator when you are working with a cold agglutin?
Panel cells react at room temperature
One unit of transfused red blood cells (RBCs) is
3%
zero anti A & pos anti B =
B
type
Which immunohematology test is used to detect antibody bound to red cells in-vivo and uses the* AHG reagent?*
Direct antiglobulin test
What is the source of antibody when performing a reverse grouping to detect ABO antibodies?
Patient’s serum or plasma
What is the immunodominant sugar for the B antigen?
D-galactose
Approved anticoagulants
ACD, CPD, CP2D, and CPDA-1
anticoagulant citrate dextrose solution (ACD), anticoagulant citrate pho
What is the leading cause of transfusion-related death reported to the FDA?
TACO (Transfusion-associated circulatory overload)
Red cells from donors are
stability?
stable up to 42 days in additive solution.
blood is removed from the donor and separated into components and one or more components is retained and the other is returned to the patient.
process?
Apheresis
Cryoprecipitated AHF is stable for one year frozen and can be use to
treat hypofibrinogenemia.
Which blood product is the cold insoluble precipitate that forms when a unit of FFP is thawed between 1 °C and 6 °C?
Cryoprecipitated AHF
Between 1 °C and 6 °C
storage for
Red blood cells
Pre-storage leukocyte reduction has been shown to reduce the transmission risk of _________.
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
ABO-incompatible transfusion reactions
will lead to a severe or fatal reaction
streptococcal group test?
Particle agglutination
The isolate is swarming over the blood plate, produces hydrogen sulfide on TSIA, and hydrolyzes urea, indole negative and ornithine positive.
Proteus mirabilis
What is a disadvantage of the zinc sulfate flotation method for separating protozoan cysts and helminth eggs in fecal specimens?
Some helminth eggs do not concentrate well with this method
Which four groups can most bacteria be divided into based on gram stain results?
Gram pos bacilli,
gram neg bacilli,
gram pos cocci, and
gram neg cocci
identified with an optochin (P disk)?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
fungi can generally be divided into two broad groups based
Yeast and mold
screen feces for fat
what test?
Sudan III stain
what cells do not have a nucleus, or any membrane bound organelles
Prokaryotes
Why are systemic mycoses historically grouped together?
They are shared characteristics, such as mode of transmission, dimorphism, and dissemination
using thick and thin blood smears that are made to allow for better detection of parasites found in blood
Plasmodium spp
What do specimens for parasitic identification include?
Stool, urine, blood, sputum, and tissue biopsies
hich specific bacteria, parasitic cysts and rare fungal forms contain mycolic acid in their cell wall and retain the basic dye despite acid alcohol rinsing?
Acid-fast positive organisms
Which of the following results for an analysis of synovial fluid would you expect to find for inflammatory joint disease?
Cloudy yellow fluid, low viscosity, moderately high WBC count, neutrophils > 50%, normal glucose and high protein
Diazo reaction
reagent strip test is associated with a screening test for bilirubin?
what crystals are also seen with leucine crystals. Both are associated with severe liver disease.
tyrosine
urine bilirubin
what can be handled
At Biosafety level 2+/3
TB sputum
TM materials
What is a substance or constituent in which the laboratory conducts testing?
An analyte
ca++ in EDTA tube function
prevents coagulation by inhibiting coagulation
what contains a kwown amount of analyte being tested
calibrators
common application of polarized light microscope is
study crystals in urin and in cells
Absorbance can be calculated easily from percent transmission using which calculation?
2 -log10 %T
measurement of electromagnetic radiation, either absorbed or emitted, at different wavelengths?
Spectrophotometry
To the nearest degree, what is 40° Fahrenheit converted to Celsius
4 C
How is quality control between laboratories maintained?
Proficiency testing
what category are agents anthrax, botulism, plague, smallpox, tularemia, filoviruses, and arenaviruses classified as
rare in the U.S.
Cat A
rare in the U.S.
Used _________________flammable liquids
extinguishers
class B
category of bioterrorism agents include pathogens that are moderately easy to disseminate, result in moderate and low morbidity rates, and require specific enhancements of the CDC’s diagnostic capacity and enhanced disease surveillance?
CAT B
Which three veins are most frequently used for a venipuncture?
Cephalic, basilic, and median cubital
A microscope should never be left with the __________ in place.
oil-immersion objective
What process documents a specimen the moment it is collected, transported to the laboratory, analyzed, and reports the results?
Chain of custody
microscopic evaluation (i.e., wet mount, Potassium hydroxide preparation, fern test, etc.) by a physician in the office for their own patient?
Provider-Performed Microscopy (PPM)
How many milliliters can a 3% solution make if 6 grams of solute are available?
200 ml
1 g of solute = (100/3) mL
So, in 6 g of solute = (100/3) x 6 =200 mL
A 200-mg/dL solution was diluted 1:10. This diluted solution was then additionally diluted 1:5. What is the concentration of the final solution?
4mg/dL
200 mg/dL x 1/10 x1/5 = 200/50 = 4 mg/dL
Infectious waste are
blood and blood products, contaminated sharps, pathology waste products, and microbiological waste?
What is the order of draw for multiple evacuated tubes?
Blood culture (aerobic),
blood culture (anaerobic),
blue,
red,
green stopper,
lavender, and
gray
Class A fire extinguishers used for
Ordinary combustibles
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How many grams of sulfosalicylic acid (MW = 254) are required to prepare 1 L of a 3% (w/v) solution?
30g
3 * 1000/100 = 3*10 = 30 grams
determinations total body lead poisoning burden?
Whole blood lead
Which of the following may prolonged tourniquet use cause?
Hyperkalemia
associations of creatine kinase and disease condition is correct?
CK-MB and cardiac disorders
Peptide bonds
What does a biuret reaction for total protein analysis depend on?
Peptide bonds
How is the formation of HbA1c related to plasma glucose concentration?
Directly proportional
observation of oligoclonal immunoglobulin bands on cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein electrophoresis?
MS
PTH response to
Ca++
detect myocardial infarction
Troponin
lipoprotein is produced by the liver and transports excess cholesterol from the tissues to the liver?
HDL
two hormones are produced by the thyroid gland from the trace mineral iodine and are responsible for the regulation of metabolic activities in all body cells?
d.
Thyroxine and triiodothyronine
What are the two main groups of plasma proteins
Albumin and globulin
What do the Jendrassik-Grof or Evelyn-Malloy methods measure
Bilirubin
Which is the key membrane component for a potassium selective electrode
Valinomycin
… increasing blood glucose by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen in the liver?
Glucagon
The degree of wavelength isolation is a function of the monochromator type and
width of entrance and exit slits.
regulate the growth, development, and functions for both the ovary and testis?
LH and FSH
What additional information is typically required to measure enzymatic activity in a 24-hour urine test?
Weight, height, and total volume of 24-hour collection
What tumor marker is most useful in the diagnosis of ovarian and endometrial carcinomas?
CA 125
instruments ionizes the target molecule then separates and measures the mass-to-charge ratio?
Mass spectrometer
following indicates a borderline triglyceride range?
150 – 199 mg/dL
Which part is also referred to as the Bowman’s capsule?
Glomerulus
What is the most common symptom of coronary artery disease?
Angina
stain that is used to make white blood cell differential smears
Wright stain
fixative to fix bone marrow particles from core biopsy specimen?
Formalin
What does a manual reticulocyte count do?
Uses a vital stain which can be a biological hazard
indicated by a large red cell distribution curve on an automated blood count?
Abnormal red cell size variation
patients on radiation and chemotherapy to develop bleeding problems?
Decrease in thrombocytes
Morphologically, what are anemias generally classified as?
Normochromic-normocytic, macrocytic, and hypochromic-microcytic
presence of structurally abnormal hemoglobin is considered to play an important role pathologically?
Hemoglobinopathies
Microcytes seen with
shift?
left of the erythrocyte series
In most infections, there is some increase in the ESR. What are two exceptions?
Chorea and undulant fever
decrease in the competence of blood to carry oxygen to tissues?
Anemia
where do you count platelets using the Unopette System
Large center square
increase in red color when cells progress through stages is due to?
Hemoglobin concentration
Evaluate the overall quality of the blood film, estimate the leukocyte count, and scan the blood film for abnormal cells and clumps of platelets.
at what power setting of the microscope
low power examination
Auer rods
causes DIC
Acute myelocytic leukemia
distinct layers of blood speciment
plasma, buffy coat,RBC
Shapes
Poikilocytosis
stain helps precipitate residual ribosomal RNA within reticulocytes
New methylene blue
microcytosis, hypochromasia, and basophilic stippling?
HB disorders
Thalassemias
supravital stains bind, neutralize, and cross-link RNA?
New methylene blue method
evaluate **size distribution curve **of leukocyte data and allows visualization of subpopulation of cells based on their relative sizes?
Histogram
test monitors unfractionated heparin therapy
PTT
. The QC for the aPTT is within 2 SD but the PT control is outside of 6 SD.
problem?
The ISI value that is currently in the instrument was set back to zero after maintenance and needs to be re-entered before patient testing is resumed.
appropriate ratio of blood to anticoagulant in a sodium citrate tube
9:1
Hemostasis
stopping blood loss through ruptured blood veins, arteries, and capillaries
group contains factors II, VII, IX, and X?
Prothrombin group
not beneficial for evaluating a patient with suspected von Willebrand disease?
platelet count
activation of factor 10
X to Xa
activity of fibrinogen in stage II and monitors coumarin therapy?
PT
specimen collection resulting in half tubes
Call and have the specimen recollected to obtain one full tube.
clot dissolution is termed
fibrinolysis
The activated partial thromboplastin time is used to monitor which drug therapy?
Heparin
pre-op testing speciment showing endpoint clotting time
problem?
The specimen had a clot in it that was not detected upon arrival in the lab
The aPTT measures factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, V, II, and
fibrinogen
immunogens
Antigens that can induce antibody production
What is the study of molecules, cells, organs, and systems?
Immunology
-0
What antibodies are heterogeneous and lack the specificity of mAbs?
Polyclonal antibodies
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Solid-phase immunosorbent assay (SPIA)
passive immunization
hepatitis exposure, RhIG
What is used for testing during a major crossmatch for packed red blood cells?
Patient serum with donor cells
reverse grouping to detect ABO antibodies, what is the source of the antigen during the procedure?
A1 and B cells
Se allele and is considered a secretor?
H
if Anti-A is Pos
A type
immunoglobulin constitutes 80% of total immunoglobulin in serum and is bivalent?
IgG
if Anti-A/B are pos
AB type
Most antigens of the A group are of which subgroup?
A1
one method to remove reactivity from a cold antibody
Rabbit erythrocyte stroma
source of antibody when performing a reverse grouping to detect ABO antibodies?
Patient’s serum or plasma
source of antigen for performing the forward group ABO/D typing?
Patient cells
Elution
process
IgG antibody complexes on red blood cells can be dissociated and placed in a solution to test specificity
Frozen plasma must be stored at what temperature?
-18 °C or colder
immune-mediated, acute adverse complications of blood transfusion?
Febrile non-hemolytic
Per the FDA, which of the following are approved anticoagulants for donor blood collection?
ACD, CPD, CP2D, and CPDA-1
leading cause of transfusion-related death reported to the FDA?
TACO (Transfusion-associated circulatory overload)
Red cells from donors are
stable up to 42 days in additive solution.
donor deferral time for incarceration in a correctional facility for more than 72 hours?
12 months
Cryoprecipitated AHF is stable for one year frozen and can be used
to treat hypofibrinogenemia
Red blood cells must be stored at what temperature?
Between 1 °C and 6 °C
35 days for whole bld in CPDA-1
streptococcal group test?
Particle agglutination
most common format for viral isolation?
Tube monolayer cell culture
an analysis of synovial fluid would you expect to find for inflammatory joint disease?
Cloudy yellow fluid, low viscosity, moderately high WBC count, neutrophils > 50%, normal glucose and high protein
