Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AMT MLS > MLS > Flashcards

MLS Flashcards

1
Q

analytes

A

substance or constituent in which the laboratory conducts testing?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

chelation of calcium in the EDTA tube?

A

Prevents coagulation by inhibiting coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

common application of the polarized light microscope in the clinical laboratory do?

A

Study crystals in urine and in cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The rate at which a glucose molecule attaches to hemoglobin to form a ketoamine is **directly/indirectly **proportional to the glucose concentration in the plasma.

A

Directly proportional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What characteristics/functions do calibrators have?

A

Contains a known amount of analyte being tested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Calibrators are used to establish a correlation between the measurement response and the concentration or amount of the substance that is being measured by the test procedure.

A

Contains a known amount of analyte being tested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Chemiluminescence

A

immunoassay methodology is **the emission of light by molecules **in an excited state with a limited amount of heat as the result of a chemical reaction?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Biosafety level of 2+ or 3

serious or potentially lethal dz with respiratory transmission

A

Biosafety level laboratory operate to handle TB sputum and TM materials?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Absorbance can be calculated easily from percent transmission using which calculation?

A

2 – log10 %T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What refers to the reproducibility of test results?

A

Precision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Class B fire extinguishers used for?

A

.
Flammable liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

formula is used to convert Celsius to Kelvin?

A

.
Celsius plus 273

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

organization requires training in chemical hazards and infectious materials for new testing personnel?

A

OSHA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

nearest degree, what is 40° Fahrenheit converted to Celsius?

A

4° C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why do laboratories record temperature and humidity levels daily?

A

Out-of-control conditions could be caused by changes in temperature and humidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the name of the substance in which solute is dissolved in?

A

Solvent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which type of microscope objective should never be used with oil?

A

40x objective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many milliliters (mL) of 0.25 M NaOH are needed to make 100 mL of a 0.05 M solution of NaOH?

A

20 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What process helps monitor the accuracy and reproducibility of results using controlled specimens?

A

Quality control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In the calculation of MCV = HCT x 10/___?

A

RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Category B,

Bioterorism agents category: moderate

A

(suffering from the disease) with low mortality (death) rates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do you convert Celsius to Fahrenheit?

A

F=(Celsius degrees number x 9/5) + 32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Lipemic

A

milky-white plasma or serum may interfere with chemical determinations, such as triglyceride or nephelometric assays?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A microscope should never be left with the __________ in place.

A

oil-immersion objective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which three veins are most frequently used for a venipuncture?

A

Cephalic, basilic, and median cubita

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which substance is employed to produce a chemical reaction?

A

Reagent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How many grams of sulfosalicylic acid (MW = 254) are required to prepare 1 L of a 3% (w/v) solution?

A

30

3 * 1000/100 = 3*10 = 30 grams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What can result from failing to apply sufficient pressure to a venipuncture site?

A

Hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

disorders requires the observation of oligoclonal immunoglobulin bands on cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein electrophoresis?

A

Multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which analyte rises first in response to inflammation?

A

C-reactive protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following is the most widely used tumor marker for colorectal cancer?

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

determinations is used to assess the total body lead poisoning burden?

A

Whole blood lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following associations of creatine kinase and disease condition is correct?

A

CK-MB and cardiac disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following levels do parathyroid glands either increase or decrease PTH secretion in response to changes?

A

Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does a biuret reaction for total protein analysis depend on?

A

Peptide bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following is primarily evaluated in an ALT assessment?

A

Hepatic disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following diseases or conditions results from an incompatibility between maternal and fetal blood?

A

Hemolytic disease of the newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How is the formation of HbA1c related to plasma glucose concentration?

A

Directly proportional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following is prolonged in tourniquet use cause?

A

Hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the function of the pituitary gland?

A

Stimulates the other glands to produce hormones as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In which organ are most plasma proteins synthesized?

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which tumor marker is an abundant serum protein and is normally synthesized by the fetal liver?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which condition would most likely be the cause of an increased ALP level in an adult?

A

Liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas and is the major hormone that opposes the action of insulin, therefore increasing blood glucose by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen in the liver

A

Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following is one of the most common clinical applications of GC-MS analysis?

A

Drug testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which two hormones are produced by the thyroid gland from the trace mineral iodine and are responsible for the regulation of metabolic activities in all body cells?

A

Thyroxine and triiodothyronine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which class does the enzyme, aspartate aminotransferase (AST), belong to?

A

Transferases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the two main groups of plasma proteins?

A

Albumin and globulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a glycoprotein hormone that is secreted by the kidney and functions to increase the production of red blood cells?

A

Erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which is a condition involving the deposition of plaques in the blood vessels that has been proven to lead to coronary artery disease?

A

Atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the two most common aminotransferases measured in the clinical laboratory?

A

AST and ALT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The measurement of the decrease in intensity of an incident light beam as it passes through a solution of particles defines which of the following methods?

A

Turbidimetry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In what manner is the dye uptake by a sample following electrophoresis and staining related to the sample concentration?

A

Directly proportional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the following are the two methods used to characterize monoclonal proteins?

A
  1. Immunoelectrophoresis
  2. immunofixation electrophoresis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following indicates a borderline triglyceride range?

A

150 – 199 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which tissue is richest in acid phosphatase?

A

Prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The nephrons of the kidneys have five basic parts. Which part is also referred to as the Bowman’s capsule?

A

Glomerulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which of the following is a non-insulin dependent diabetes, is characterized by insulin resistance and progressive hyperglycemia, and is called “adult-onset diabetes”?

A

Type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is an inflammation-sensitive protein that can be measured by immunoassays?

A

C-reactive protein (CRP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Brain isoenzyme

A

Creatinine kinase can be separated into three distinct molecular forms. CK-BB is mainly indicated by which tissue?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which of the following gives serum its characteristic milky appearance (lipemia) when blood is drawn after a meal?

A

Chylomicrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the term for the mathematical modeling of drug concentration in circulation, which helps assist in establishing a dosage regimen?

A

Pharmacokinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What tumor marker is most useful in the diagnosis of ovarian and endometrial carcinomas?

A

CA 125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Elevation of which enzymes are found in hepatocellular disorders?

A

AST, ALT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the yellow discoloration of the plasma, skin, and mucous membranes that is caused by the abnormal metabolism, accumulation, or retention of bilirubin called?

A

Jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is derived from the iron-containing heme portion of hemoglobin, which is released from the breakdown of RBCs?

A

Bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which is the key membrane component for a potassium selective electrode?

A

Valinomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which term refers to the mathematical difference between the anions (CL- and HCO3-) and the cations (Na+ and K+)?

A

Anion gap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which enzyme may be elevated for up to 48 hours after mild to strenuous activity or exercise?

A

CK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does a manual reticulocyte count do?

A

d.
Uses a vital stain which can be a biological hazard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is indicated by a large red cell distribution curve on an automated blood count?

A

Abnormal red cell size variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What causes patients on radiation and chemotherapy to develop bleeding problems?

A

Decrease in thrombocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which leukocyte responds to bacterial infections?

A

Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What hematological disease/disorder has an increased number of immature cells?

A

Acute leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Formalin

A

is used as a fixative to fix bone marrow particles from core biopsy specimen?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is a Hematology stain that is used to make white blood cell differential smears?

A

Wright stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which of the following is an immature granulocyte with a non-segmented nucleus?

A

Band neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which cellular constituent of blood contains the vital protein hemoglobin?

A

Erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which term refers to an abnormal distribution pattern of red blood cells, in which cells stick together or are aligned in aggregates resembling stacks of coins?

A

Rouleaux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

In most infections, there is some increase in the ESR. What are two exceptions?

A

Chorea and undulant fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Who developed the rule that is used in quality control to evaluate results when two or more levels of control material are used?

A

Westgard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

As the neutrophil matures, which neutrophil has reddish-purple primary granules that help to identify the cell?

A

Promyelocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When performing a bone marrow differential count, which cell is NOT included?

A

Megakaryocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What type of cell does the monocyte transition into once it leaves the blood and enters the tissue?

A

Macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What cells differentiate further in the bone marrow while encountering an antigen?

A

B lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is used to evaluate size distribution curve of leukocyte data and allows visualization of subpopulation of cells based on their relative sizes?

A

Histogram

graph that display continous numeric values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What color top can the additive EDTA be found in?

A

Lavender top

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which macrocytic anemias are the results of vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency, or a combination of both?

A

Megaloblastic anemias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the name of nucleated red blood cells or reticulocytes in the peripheral blood?

A

Shift cells

Shift cells are nucleated red blood cells or polychromatic macrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which erythrocyte index indicates whether the red blood cells will appear microcytic, normocytic, or macrocytic?

A

MCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are erythrocytes referred to that are larger in size?

A

Macrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the rate at which red blood cells settle to the bottom of a test tube?

A

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which automated blood cell counting principle is based on increased resistance that occurs when a blood cell with poor conductivity passes through an electrical field?

A

Impedance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

When performing the Westergren method, fresh anticoagulated blood collected in sodium citrate is the preferred anticoagulant. What is the ratio of blood to sodium citrate?

A

4 vol of blood to 1 vol of sodium citrate

4:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the process in which a cell engulfs and digests foreign material?

A

Phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is a white blood cell known as in human blood?

A

Leukocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the hematology orderable test that consists of analytes such as hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood cell count with morphology, white blood cell count with differential, and platelet estimate?

counting everything

A

Complete blood count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Morphologically, what are anemias generally classified as?

A

Normochromic-normocytic,
macrocytic,
hypochromic-microcytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Which term is used to describe a red blood cell with a normal shape?

A

Discocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

When evaluating an* erythrocyte histogram, a shift to the left* of the erythrocyte series should correspond to which type of erythrocytes?

A

Microcytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Which stain helps precipitate residual ribosomal RNA within reticulocytes?

A

New methylene blue

94
Q

After the PM check, you run quality control (QC) for prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The QC for the aPTT is within 2 SD but the PT control is outside of 6 SD. In troubleshooting, what might the problem be?

A

The ISI value that is currently in the instrument was set back to zero after maintenance and needs to be re-entered before patient testing is resumed.

95
Q

What is the process of stopping blood loss through ruptured blood veins, arteries, and capillaries called?

A

Hemostasis

96
Q

What is the appropriate ratio of blood to anticoagulant in a sodium citrate tube drawn for routine coagulation studies?

A

9:1

97
Q

You are running at prothrombin time (PT)….The specimen was in a 3.2% sodium citrate tube that was received into the lab 20 minutes after it was collected and spun immediately upon arrival. What may be the cause of the failure to clot?

A

The specimen had a clot in it that was not detected upon arrival in the lab.

97
Q

The physician suspects a chronically malnourished patient has scurvy because of bleeding gums. The physician would order tests for

A

vitamin C.

98
Q

The activity of Factor V in plasma deteriorates even when the plasma is frozen. Factor V is also known as

A

a labile coagulation factor.

99
Q

What is synthesized by the liver through the action of vitamin K?

A

Prothrombin

100
Q

Which test is not beneficial for evaluating a patient with suspected von Willebrand disease?

A

Platelet count

100
Q

The activated partial thromboplastin time is used to monitor which drug therapy?

A

Heparin

101
Q

Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)

test for?

A

nontreponemal serological test?

102
Q

SLE Latex Test

A

polystyrene latex particles coated with deoxyribonucleoprotein (DNP)?

103
Q

another antibody enhancement medium

A

polyethylene glycol

104
Q

Rabbit erythrocyte stroma

function

A

one method to remove reactivity from a cold antibody?

105
Q

anti A/B pos group

A

AB

type

106
Q

What is the most significant indicator when you are working with a cold agglutin?

A

Panel cells react at room temperature

107
Q

One unit of transfused red blood cells (RBCs) is

A

3%

108
Q

zero anti A & pos anti B =

A

B

type

109
Q

Which immunohematology test is used to detect antibody bound to red cells in-vivo and uses the* AHG reagent?*

A

Direct antiglobulin test

110
Q

What is the source of antibody when performing a reverse grouping to detect ABO antibodies?

A

Patient’s serum or plasma

111
Q

What is the immunodominant sugar for the B antigen?

A

D-galactose

112
Q

Approved anticoagulants

A

ACD, CPD, CP2D, and CPDA-1

anticoagulant citrate dextrose solution (ACD), anticoagulant citrate pho

113
Q

What is the leading cause of transfusion-related death reported to the FDA?

A

TACO (Transfusion-associated circulatory overload)

114
Q

Red cells from donors are

stability?

A

stable up to 42 days in additive solution.

115
Q

blood is removed from the donor and separated into components and one or more components is retained and the other is returned to the patient.

process?

A

Apheresis

116
Q

Cryoprecipitated AHF is stable for one year frozen and can be use to

A

treat hypofibrinogenemia.

117
Q

Which blood product is the cold insoluble precipitate that forms when a unit of FFP is thawed between 1 °C and 6 °C?

A

Cryoprecipitated AHF

118
Q

Between 1 °C and 6 °C

storage for

A

Red blood cells

119
Q

Pre-storage leukocyte reduction has been shown to reduce the transmission risk of _________.

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

119
Q

ABO-incompatible transfusion reactions

A

will lead to a severe or fatal reaction

120
Q

streptococcal group test?

A

Particle agglutination

121
Q

The isolate is swarming over the blood plate, produces hydrogen sulfide on TSIA, and hydrolyzes urea, indole negative and ornithine positive.

A

Proteus mirabilis

122
Q

What is a disadvantage of the zinc sulfate flotation method for separating protozoan cysts and helminth eggs in fecal specimens?

A

Some helminth eggs do not concentrate well with this method

123
Q

Which four groups can most bacteria be divided into based on gram stain results?

A

Gram pos bacilli,
gram neg bacilli,
gram pos cocci, and
gram neg cocci

124
Q

identified with an optochin (P disk)?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

125
Q

fungi can generally be divided into two broad groups based

A

Yeast and mold

126
Q

screen feces for fat

what test?

A

Sudan III stain

127
Q

what cells do not have a nucleus, or any membrane bound organelles

A

Prokaryotes

128
Q

Why are systemic mycoses historically grouped together?

A

They are shared characteristics, such as mode of transmission, dimorphism, and dissemination

129
Q

using thick and thin blood smears that are made to allow for better detection of parasites found in blood

A

Plasmodium spp

129
Q

What do specimens for parasitic identification include?

A

Stool, urine, blood, sputum, and tissue biopsies

130
Q

hich specific bacteria, parasitic cysts and rare fungal forms contain mycolic acid in their cell wall and retain the basic dye despite acid alcohol rinsing?

A

Acid-fast positive organisms

131
Q

Which of the following results for an analysis of synovial fluid would you expect to find for inflammatory joint disease?

A

Cloudy yellow fluid, low viscosity, moderately high WBC count, neutrophils > 50%, normal glucose and high protein

132
Q

Diazo reaction

A

reagent strip test is associated with a screening test for bilirubin?

133
Q

what crystals are also seen with leucine crystals. Both are associated with severe liver disease.

A

tyrosine

urine bilirubin

134
Q

what can be handled

At Biosafety level 2+/3

A

TB sputum
TM materials

135
Q

What is a substance or constituent in which the laboratory conducts testing?

A

An analyte

136
Q

ca++ in EDTA tube function

A

prevents coagulation by inhibiting coagulation

137
Q

what contains a kwown amount of analyte being tested

A

calibrators

138
Q

common application of polarized light microscope is

A

study crystals in urin and in cells

139
Q

Absorbance can be calculated easily from percent transmission using which calculation?

A

2 -log10 %T

140
Q

measurement of electromagnetic radiation, either absorbed or emitted, at different wavelengths?

A

Spectrophotometry

141
Q

To the nearest degree, what is 40° Fahrenheit converted to Celsius

A

4 C

142
Q

How is quality control between laboratories maintained?

A

Proficiency testing

143
Q

what category are agents anthrax, botulism, plague, smallpox, tularemia, filoviruses, and arenaviruses classified as

rare in the U.S.

A

Cat A

rare in the U.S.

144
Q

Used _________________flammable liquids

extinguishers

A

class B

145
Q

category of bioterrorism agents include pathogens that are moderately easy to disseminate, result in moderate and low morbidity rates, and require specific enhancements of the CDC’s diagnostic capacity and enhanced disease surveillance?

A

CAT B

146
Q

Which three veins are most frequently used for a venipuncture?

A

Cephalic, basilic, and median cubital

147
Q

A microscope should never be left with the __________ in place.

A

oil-immersion objective

148
Q

What process documents a specimen the moment it is collected, transported to the laboratory, analyzed, and reports the results?

A

Chain of custody

149
Q

microscopic evaluation (i.e., wet mount, Potassium hydroxide preparation, fern test, etc.) by a physician in the office for their own patient?

A

Provider-Performed Microscopy (PPM)

149
Q

How many milliliters can a 3% solution make if 6 grams of solute are available?

A

200 ml

1 g of solute = (100/3) mL
So, in 6 g of solute = (100/3) x 6 =200 mL

150
Q

A 200-mg/dL solution was diluted 1:10. This diluted solution was then additionally diluted 1:5. What is the concentration of the final solution?

A

4mg/dL

200 mg/dL x 1/10 x1/5 = 200/50 = 4 mg/dL

151
Q

Infectious waste are

A

blood and blood products, contaminated sharps, pathology waste products, and microbiological waste?

152
Q
A
153
Q

What is the order of draw for multiple evacuated tubes?

A

Blood culture (aerobic),
blood culture (anaerobic),
blue,
red,
green stopper,
lavender, and
gray

154
Q

Class A fire extinguishers used for

A

Ordinary combustibles

155
Q

```

~~~

How many grams of sulfosalicylic acid (MW = 254) are required to prepare 1 L of a 3% (w/v) solution?

A

30g

3 * 1000/100 = 3*10 = 30 grams

156
Q

determinations total body lead poisoning burden?

A

Whole blood lead

157
Q

Which of the following may prolonged tourniquet use cause?

A

Hyperkalemia

158
Q

associations of creatine kinase and disease condition is correct?

A

CK-MB and cardiac disorders

159
Q

Peptide bonds

What does a biuret reaction for total protein analysis depend on?

A

Peptide bonds

160
Q

How is the formation of HbA1c related to plasma glucose concentration?

A

Directly proportional

161
Q

observation of oligoclonal immunoglobulin bands on cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein electrophoresis?

A

MS

162
Q

PTH response to

A

Ca++

163
Q

detect myocardial infarction

A

Troponin

163
Q

lipoprotein is produced by the liver and transports excess cholesterol from the tissues to the liver?

A

HDL

164
Q

two hormones are produced by the thyroid gland from the trace mineral iodine and are responsible for the regulation of metabolic activities in all body cells?

A

d.
Thyroxine and triiodothyronine

165
Q

What are the two main groups of plasma proteins

A

Albumin and globulin

166
Q

What do the Jendrassik-Grof or Evelyn-Malloy methods measure

A

Bilirubin

167
Q

Which is the key membrane component for a potassium selective electrode

A

Valinomycin

168
Q

… increasing blood glucose by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen in the liver?

A

Glucagon

169
Q

The degree of wavelength isolation is a function of the monochromator type and

A

width of entrance and exit slits.

170
Q

regulate the growth, development, and functions for both the ovary and testis?

A

LH and FSH

171
Q

What additional information is typically required to measure enzymatic activity in a 24-hour urine test?

A

Weight, height, and total volume of 24-hour collection

172
Q

What tumor marker is most useful in the diagnosis of ovarian and endometrial carcinomas?

A

CA 125

173
Q

instruments ionizes the target molecule then separates and measures the mass-to-charge ratio?

A

Mass spectrometer

174
Q

following indicates a borderline triglyceride range?

A

150 – 199 mg/dL

175
Q

Which part is also referred to as the Bowman’s capsule?

A

Glomerulus

176
Q

What is the most common symptom of coronary artery disease?

A

Angina

177
Q

stain that is used to make white blood cell differential smears

A

Wright stain

178
Q

fixative to fix bone marrow particles from core biopsy specimen?

A

Formalin

179
Q

What does a manual reticulocyte count do?

A

Uses a vital stain which can be a biological hazard

180
Q

indicated by a large red cell distribution curve on an automated blood count?

A

Abnormal red cell size variation

181
Q

patients on radiation and chemotherapy to develop bleeding problems?

A

Decrease in thrombocytes

182
Q

Morphologically, what are anemias generally classified as?

A

Normochromic-normocytic, macrocytic, and hypochromic-microcytic

183
Q

presence of structurally abnormal hemoglobin is considered to play an important role pathologically?

A

Hemoglobinopathies

184
Q

Microcytes seen with

shift?

A

left of the erythrocyte series

185
Q

increase iron storage in macrophages

mononuclear phagocytic system

A

sideroblastic anemias

186
Q

In most infections, there is some increase in the ESR. What are two exceptions?

A

Chorea and undulant fever

187
Q

decrease in the competence of blood to carry oxygen to tissues?

A

Anemia

188
Q

where do you count platelets using the Unopette System

A

Large center square

189
Q

increase in red color when cells progress through stages is due to?

A

Hemoglobin concentration

190
Q

Evaluate the overall quality of the blood film, estimate the leukocyte count, and scan the blood film for abnormal cells and clumps of platelets.

at what power setting of the microscope

A

low power examination

191
Q

Auer rods

causes DIC

A

Acute myelocytic leukemia

192
Q

distinct layers of blood speciment

A

plasma, buffy coat,RBC

193
Q

Shapes

A

Poikilocytosis

194
Q

stain helps precipitate residual ribosomal RNA within reticulocytes

A

New methylene blue

195
Q

microcytosis, hypochromasia, and basophilic stippling?

HB disorders

A

Thalassemias

196
Q

supravital stains bind, neutralize, and cross-link RNA?

A

New methylene blue method

197
Q

evaluate **size distribution curve **of leukocyte data and allows visualization of subpopulation of cells based on their relative sizes?

A

Histogram

198
Q

test monitors unfractionated heparin therapy

A

PTT

199
Q

. The QC for the aPTT is within 2 SD but the PT control is outside of 6 SD.

problem?

A

The ISI value that is currently in the instrument was set back to zero after maintenance and needs to be re-entered before patient testing is resumed.

200
Q

appropriate ratio of blood to anticoagulant in a sodium citrate tube

A

9:1

201
Q

Hemostasis

A

stopping blood loss through ruptured blood veins, arteries, and capillaries

202
Q

group contains factors II, VII, IX, and X?

A

Prothrombin group

203
Q

not beneficial for evaluating a patient with suspected von Willebrand disease?

A

platelet count

204
Q

activation of factor 10

A

X to Xa

205
Q

activity of fibrinogen in stage II and monitors coumarin therapy?

A

PT

206
Q

specimen collection resulting in half tubes

A

Call and have the specimen recollected to obtain one full tube.

207
Q

clot dissolution is termed

A

fibrinolysis

208
Q

The activated partial thromboplastin time is used to monitor which drug therapy?

A

Heparin

209
Q

pre-op testing speciment showing endpoint clotting time

problem?

A

The specimen had a clot in it that was not detected upon arrival in the lab

210
Q

The aPTT measures factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, V, II, and

A

fibrinogen

211
Q

immunogens

A

Antigens that can induce antibody production

212
Q

What is the study of molecules, cells, organs, and systems?

A

Immunology

213
Q

-0

What antibodies are heterogeneous and lack the specificity of mAbs?

A

Polyclonal antibodies

214
Q

```

~~~

A

Solid-phase immunosorbent assay (SPIA)

215
Q

passive immunization

A

hepatitis exposure, RhIG

216
Q

What is used for testing during a major crossmatch for packed red blood cells?

A

Patient serum with donor cells

217
Q

reverse grouping to detect ABO antibodies, what is the source of the antigen during the procedure?

A

A1 and B cells

218
Q

Se allele and is considered a secretor?

A

H

219
Q

if Anti-A is Pos

A

A type

220
Q

immunoglobulin constitutes 80% of total immunoglobulin in serum and is bivalent?

A

IgG

221
Q

if Anti-A/B are pos

A

AB type

222
Q

Most antigens of the A group are of which subgroup?

A

A1

223
Q

one method to remove reactivity from a cold antibody

A

Rabbit erythrocyte stroma

224
Q

source of antibody when performing a reverse grouping to detect ABO antibodies?

A

Patient’s serum or plasma

225
Q

source of antigen for performing the forward group ABO/D typing?

A

Patient cells

226
Q

Elution

process

A

IgG antibody complexes on red blood cells can be dissociated and placed in a solution to test specificity

227
Q

Frozen plasma must be stored at what temperature?

A

-18 °C or colder

228
Q

immune-mediated, acute adverse complications of blood transfusion?

A

Febrile non-hemolytic

229
Q

Per the FDA, which of the following are approved anticoagulants for donor blood collection?

A

ACD, CPD, CP2D, and CPDA-1

230
Q

leading cause of transfusion-related death reported to the FDA?

A

TACO (Transfusion-associated circulatory overload)

231
Q

Red cells from donors are

A

stable up to 42 days in additive solution.

232
Q

donor deferral time for incarceration in a correctional facility for more than 72 hours?

A

12 months

233
Q

Cryoprecipitated AHF is stable for one year frozen and can be used

A

to treat hypofibrinogenemia

234
Q

Red blood cells must be stored at what temperature?

A

Between 1 °C and 6 °C

35 days for whole bld in CPDA-1

235
Q

streptococcal group test?

A

Particle agglutination

236
Q

most common format for viral isolation?

A

Tube monolayer cell culture

237
Q

an analysis of synovial fluid would you expect to find for inflammatory joint disease?

A

Cloudy yellow fluid, low viscosity, moderately high WBC count, neutrophils > 50%, normal glucose and high protein

AMT MLS (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions