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MLPAO STUDY > mlpao > Flashcards

mlpao Flashcards

1
Q

basic bacterial shapes?

A

bacillus- rod shaped
coccus-spherical
vibrio-curved
spirillum-spiral

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2
Q

arrangements found among the cocci?

A 
diplococcus-in pairs
streptococcus-in chains
staphylococcus-irregular clusters
gaffkya-groups of four
sarcina-cube like packets
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3
Q

what type of microscopy is needed for viruses?

A

electron microscopy

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4
Q

what is gram-positive bacterium?

A

not decolourized by alcohol in the gram stain procedure and thus retains the color of the stain. the colour will be blue-violet

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5
Q

describe the acid-fast stain

A

hot carbolfuschsin is applied to a smear, then the material is decolorized with acid alcohol and counterstained with Methylene blue, this method is useful for the ID of mycobacteria

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6
Q

what is selective media?

A

one that interferes with the multiplication of certain bacteria while not inhibiting others. certain bacteria are selected

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7
Q

sterilization

A

implies destruction of all life

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8
Q

is boiling water a sterilizing agent?

A

spores have been known to withstand rapidly boiling water for several hours. boiling water is not a true means of sterilization.

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9
Q

how to achieve anaerobic conditions?

A
  1. gas pak method
    - uses an envelope containing reagents that will yield both hydrogen and carbon dioxide when exposed to air.
    - an aerobic indicator is used to confirm that anaerobioses is obtained in aerobic conditions, the indicator is colorless. a blue coloration appears on the indicator if oxygen is present
  2. anaerobic glove box method
    - uses gloves and sleeves sealed into walls of a chamber that allows evacuation of oxygen and fills with desire anaerobic gases.
  3. CO2 incubator
    - adjustable amt of CO2 with air is allowed to enter the chamber
  4. Candle jar
    - place culture plates in an airtight jar with a candle which is lit b4 lid is replaced
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10
Q

how to prepare laked clood?

A

prepared by heating the whole blood wherein the hemoglobin is released from the rbcs.

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11
Q

how to prepare peptic digest blood?

A

prepared by converting the blood into simple chemical product by the action of an acid solution.
-digest is added to nutrients agar after heating at 55 degrees celcius for 30 min.
digest is added to enrich media for growth of organism such as hemophilus and clostridium.

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12
Q

how to prepare eggs medium?

A

prepared from beaten eggs added to sterile broth, dispensed into suitable containers and inspissated.

  • inspissation is process of thickening by the evaporation of vaporizable fluid
  • contains growth of tubercle bacilli.
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13
Q

how to prepare carbohydrate broths?

A

prepared by mixing simple carb (sugar) in peptone water in the presence of an indicator

  • broth is autoclaved
  • 10% carb solution is sterilized by filtration. then added to sterile broth to obtain a concentration of 1%
  • used to demonstrate fermentation and oxidation
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14
Q

how to prepare buffer solution?

A

by mixing a solution of a weak acid (proton donor) or weak base (proton acceptor) and one of its sales

  • used to minimize chemical changes such as maintaining PH
  • can be prepared using phosphate, acetate and citrate solutions
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15
Q

kidney function tests (urinalysis) (11)

A

creatine, BUN, uric acid, creatinine clearance, electrolytes, Total protein and Albumin/ globulin ratio, cholesterol, bilirubin, aspartate transaminase (ast or sgot), alanin transaminase (alt or sgpt), alkaline phosphatase (alp)

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16
Q

Creatine

A
  • creatine is formed from amino acids for energy for muscles.
  • metabolism of creatine forms metabolic waste creatinine and accumulates in blood stream.
  • if creatine level is rising, it indicates the kidneys are not performing well enough to excrete harmful substances
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17
Q

Blood Urea Nitrogen

A
  • after liver deaminates amino acids, a metabolic waste called urea is formed.
  • normally should have low level of urea
  • excreted by the kidneys
  • if urea level rises, indicates kidney problem
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18
Q

Uric acid

A
  • end product breakdown of nucleotides
  • excreted by kidneys
  • causes gout
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19
Q

Creatinine clearance

A

a quantitative test measuring creatinine excreted in 24 hrs urine and serum creatinine to calculate creatinine clearance

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20
Q

electrolytes

A

kidneys can retain or excrete selective electrolytes

-if higher than normal range, indicates kidney not functioning well

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21
Q

total protein and albumin/globulin ration

A

albumin and globulins are main total plasma proteins in the blood
-most manufactured in liver
0maintain osmotic pressure of the blood, provides nutritive substance for tissues
-total protein= albumin+globulin
-a/g ratio done by performing total protein and albumin, then calculating globulin
-if albumin decreases it indicates organ’s decreased ability to produce it
-serum is required

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22
Q

cholesterol

A

most is manufactured by liver

  • abnormally low amount indicates liver problem
  • high cholesterol is associated with risk of heart disease
  • high hdl to ldl decreases risk of heart disease
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23
Q

bilirubin

A

formed from the brakdown of hemoglobin, then becomes part of the bile fluid that goes from liber to gall bladder to intestines and is excreted by bowels

  • used to distinguish different forms of liver disease( bile duct obstruction or liver cell disease)
  • serum is required
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24
Q

aspartate transaminase (AST or SGOT)

A

primarily located in liver and heart if there is liver damage. AST will be released from injured liver cells to blood stream
-serum is required

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25
Q

alanine transaminase (ALT OR SGPT)

A

levels are low in cardiac muscles and high in liver

  • rises higher than AST in liver disease, moderate cirrhosis, infections, tumors but up to 100x in viral or toxic hepatitis
  • serum is required
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26
Q

alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

A

widely distributed in the body, including bone and liver ducts

  • level increases in liver lesion or tumors and shows moderate increase in hepatitis
  • serum is required
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27
Q

the yellow pigment in urine is

A

urochrome

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28
Q

presence of bile pigment in urine can cause

A

yellow-brown or greenish urine

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29
Q

presence of poryphyrins in urine can cause

A

dark brownish-red urine

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30
Q

presence of haemoglobin in urine can cause

A

blackish-brown urine

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31
Q

presence of phosphates, carbonates and or bacteria growth in urine can cause

A

cloudiness

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32
Q

presence of excessive urates in urine can cause

A

pinkish turbidity

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33
Q

any abnormal turbidity in freshly voided may indicate

A

UTI, can also be due to increase in PH rather than number of bacterial growth

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34
Q

urine in diabetic patients

A

fruity odor ( due to presence of ketone in urine)

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35
Q

specific gravity

A

the ratio or comparison of the weight of urine to the weight of water of the same volume
normal range from 1.005 -1.030

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36
Q

in diabetes insipidus, specific gravity

A

will be lower than normal value because of lack of antidiuretic hormone

37
Q

three methods to test specific gravity

A

urinometer, refractometer, chemical reagent strip

38
Q

decrease in specific gravity can be

A

caused by glomerulonephritis, renal abnormalities, nephrosis, tubular damage, diabetes insipidus

39
Q

increase in specific gravity can be

A

caused by diabetes mellitus, adrenal insufficiency, hepatic disease, glomerular disease, excessive loss of water

40
Q

two methods can be used to test PH of urine

A

dip sticks and ph meter

ph of urine can be affected by many factors (consumption of dairy, citus fruits, vegetables

41
Q

protein in urine can be tested by two methods

A

dis stick and sulfosalycilic method (SSA)

42
Q

glucose in urine can be tested by

A

dip stix and clinitest tablet

43
Q

stool exam fecal occult blood tests for

A

the presence of blood or hemoglobin in feces, based on peroxidase activity of HB, which reduces hydrogen peroxide while chromogen is oxidized and changes color

44
Q

what are lymphatics

A

pertain to lymph, lymphatic vessels are one vessel of the system capillaries, collecting vessels and trunks that collect lymph from tissues anc carry it to blood

45
Q

immunoglobulin (Ig)

A

gamma globulins of the plasma protein

  • antibody particles of the body
  • react with, protect against and help destroy antigens which can be microorganisms, chemicals or toxins
  • specific
46
Q

IgG category

A

most abundant in the body responds to foreign body invsion
-can cross placents to provide fetus with protection against infection
functions:
-neutralizing toxins and viruses
-agglutinating antigens
-opsonizing antigens
-lysing bacteria with aid of complement

47
Q

igA category

A

responds to arthritis and infection

  • efficient agglutinator
  • antigen receptor
  • activates classic complement pathway
  • opsonization of antigens
48
Q

igD category

A

found on b-lymphocyte

-along with the igM, they serve as antibodies

49
Q

igE category

A

respond to allergy
-low concentration in normal individuals
mediates immediate hypersensitivity reaction
-binds with most cells and basophils and mediates antigen-triggered release of vasoactive amines responsible for allergic reaction

50
Q

immunoglobulin assay is done by which test

A

immunoelectrophoresis serum is required and plain red tube for collection is preferred

51
Q

Antinuclear Antibody (ana)

A

used ti detect SKE and rheumatoid arthritis
-the body’s immune system produces antibodies to parts of the patients own body. these antibodies are immunoglobulins and seem to affect all parts of body with have nucleoprotien specially muscles and skin
-serum is examined under microscope after dfluorescent dye is added
ANA appear to fluoresce if present
- plain red tube is preferred for collection

52
Q

mononucleosis tests

A

test for infectious mononucleiosis

  • heterophile antibody production is triggered by the present IM virus, epstien barr virus
  • test is based on agglutination of horse RBV by heterophile antibody present in IM
  • serum is required and a plain red tube preferred
53
Q

ABO group

A

-direct ABO typing
—> testing of A or b antigens on surface of RBC
—>antibodies (anti-a or anti-b used as reagents)
whole blood required, lavender tube

  • indirect type
  • -> testing of anti-a or anti-b antibodies in serum
  • blood cells with antigens will be used a reagents
54
Q

ABO group type A

A

direct typing
Anti-A- agglutination
Anti-b-no

Indirect typing
A cells-no agg
b cells-agglutination

55
Q

ABO group type B

A

direct typing
anti A- no agg
anti b- agg

indirect typing
a cells- agg
b cells no agg

56
Q

abo group o

A

direct typing
anti a-no agg
anti b- no agg

indirect typing
a cells- agg
b cells no agg

57
Q

ABO group AB

A

direct typing
anti a - agg
anti b- agg

indirect typing
a cells-no agg
b cells- no agg

58
Q

RH type

A

tests presence of Rh system antigen on surface of rbc.
-whole blood required
mixed with antibody on slide
-if agglutination is present, rh antigen is present (rh+)
-if agglutination not present, no agglutination (rh-ve)

59
Q

hemolytic disease of newborn

A

a pathological condition in which the newborn chaild due to rh incompatibility between blood of child and blood of mother

ie. rh + child with rh-ve mother
- th-ve mother may produce antibodies against rh+ system of fetus
- antibodies could enter fetus’ bloodstream and attack rbc.
- may cause mild jaundice to anemia or even brain damage
- HDH can be prevented by administering anti-D antibody so that it will prevent production of Anti-d antibody in mother.

60
Q

Tissue

A

a collection of cells or fibers of similar function, forming a structure

61
Q

fixative

A

a solution that contains several chemicals into which histological specimens a placed in to prevent autolysis and maintain the cells as closely as possible to their living state

62
Q

biopsy

A

surgical removal and examination of usually microscopic tissues, cells or fluids from the living

63
Q

impregnation

A

a staining procedure in which heavy metal (usually silver) salts are precipitated in cellular components as opposed to true staining in which organic dye is chemically bonded to some cellular substance

64
Q

dehydration

A

process of removing water from tissue specimens after they have been fixed and washed so that they can be embedded in paraffin or other medium

65
Q

autopsy

A

examination of the body after death

66
Q

hygroscopic

A

taking up and retaining water from the air or any medium-aka drying agent

67
Q

chelation

A

formation or presence of bonds from two or more atoms with the same aligned bond to a single central atom ie. EDTA can blind one or two calcium ions with a high binding affinity

68
Q

mordant

A

substance that aids in attaching a sue or stain to histological specimens. usually a metallic salt which intensified the reaction with tissue

69
Q

paraffin technique

A

fixation-

purpose: to preserve tissue as nearly as possible the natural state
- to preserve membrane, solution of salts, proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, enzymes and organic acids
- to preserve tissue as lifelike as possible

70
Q

routine fixative-formalin

A

saturated solution of formaldehyde gas in water (40% gas by weight)
-usually buffer with acetate buffer, methanol will also be added with a depolymerizing agent

71
Q

good fixative should:

A
  • be isotonic
  • penetrate fast
  • be cheap
  • be stable
  • have min. distortion
  • be safe
  • preserve cell volume
  • prevent autolysis
  • avoid excessive hardening of tissue
72
Q

advantages of formalin:

A
  • cheap
  • easy to prepare
  • relatively stable
  • penetrate well
  • does not cause excessive hardening
  • best for nervous tissue
  • restores natural color
73
Q

disadvantages of formalin

A
  • irritates nostril
  • cause determatitis
  • may cause asthma in some individuals
  • reduces pulmonary ventilation capacity after long exposure
  • inert toward lipids
  • unsuitable for E.M
74
Q

steps in tissue processing

A
  • fixing
  • decalcification
  • dehydrating
  • clearing
  • infiltration
  • embedding
  • cutting
  • staining
  • examination
75
Q

what is synovial fluid?

A
  • fluid found in the joint cavities and tendon sheaths, that is transparent, alkaline, and straw coloured.
  • -ph 7.3-7.4
  • protein concentration is about 1% with an A/G ration of about 4.0
  • fluid is examined for crystals which are present in conditions such as gout
76
Q

what is bone marrow?

A

a soft pulpy material that fills the cavity of the bones found in the ends of long bones and flat bones

77
Q

pleural fluid?

A

is the thin, serous fluid that covers the pulmonary and parietal pleura and provides lubrication for the lungs and thoracic wall during ventilation

78
Q

cervical and vaginal smears

A
  • taken by physician
  • will be fixed immediately in papanicolaou’s fixative (95% ethanol and ether)
  • breast and prostate secretion can be also fixed in-this way
  • fixing for 15 min in fixative
  • smears can be fixed by spray cans usually contain alcohol or ether-alcohol with polyethylene or propylene glycol as a coating agent
79
Q

sputum and bronchopulmonary specimen

A
  • fresh first morning specimen sputum required
  • smear made by applicator sticks or flattens on slides by crushing them between two slides using a rotary motion then remove the slide horizontally away
  • fix in 95% alcohol
  • stain by Papanicolaou’s stain
80
Q

spinal fluid and urines

A
  • filter technique is required
  • cells are filtered from fluid through porous membrane then subsequently fixed and stain
  • clear and mount
81
Q

pleural fluid and peritoneal fluids

A
  • fresh fluid is centrifuged
  • made smears as described in sputum by using the bottom material
  • 300 units of heparin can be added to 100 mL of fluid to prevent clotting
82
Q

WHMIS

A

workplace hazardous materials information system

  • to identify hazardous materials in the workplace
  • to improve the communication of health hazard information
  • to protect workers who use, handle or are exposed to
83
Q

controlled products?

A 
class a- compressed gas
class b- inflammable and combustible material
class c- oxidising materials
class d- poisonous and infectious
class e- corrosive material
class f- dangerously reactive material
84
Q

Radiation accidents not involving immediate personal injury

A 
warn personnel and evacuate the lab
decontaminate personnel
turn off all lab services except lighting and ventilation
close all doors and windows
inform departmental radiation supervisor
85
Q

duties of lab technician:

A

reagent preparation, media preparation, smear preparation, sample preparation for analysis, urinalysis, planning and streaking microbiology specimens, venipuncture, ecg, glass washing, transcripting filing records.

86
Q

med lab technicians should in regards to ethics:

A

hold in confidence all the information relating to patients

  • exhibit a congenial and cooperative manner with all personnel and patients
  • maintain a high degree of honesty and reliability in performance
  • b dedicated to service of humanity and possess the highest personal integrity and courtesy
  • continue to improve their knowledge and skill
87
Q

which of the following is the best example of homeostasis?

a. sexual reproduction
b) growth
c) regulation of body temperature
d) growth of hair under the arms
e) storage of food in the form of fat

A

c) regulation of body temperature

88
Q

2) the concentration of physiological saline is: 1
a) 5.0%
b) 7.0%
c) 8.5%
d) 0.85%
e) 0.7%

A

d) 0.85%

MLPAO STUDY (1 decks)

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