MKSAP Flashcards

1
Q

SGLT2 inhibitor assoc with risk of lower extremity amputation

A

Canagliflozin

Most common toe and mid foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Top 5 modifiable risk factors for acute MI, in order

A
HLD
Smoking
Psychosocial
DM
HTN

Also: obesity, alcohol, physical activity, diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What population is cilastazol ( PDE 3 inhibitor for claudication) contraindicated?

A

LVEF <40%

Because similar MOA to milrinone- increased mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What underlying conditions make exercise stress tests indeterminate?

A

ST segment analysis limited with LBBB, LVH, ventricular pacing, WPW

Can use Sgarbossa criteria to identify MI with LBBB or V pacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When to screen for other family members for HOCM?

If < 12 yr

If 12 to 18-21

If >21

A

<12 : only if symptoms, competitive athlete, clinical early LVH, family hx of VTach

12-18/21: every 12-18 mo

> 21: symptoms or every 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which malignancy is most strongly assoc with pruritus?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Symptoms of DRESS

A

Drug reactions with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms

Onset 2-6 days after drug
Skin eruption
Hematologic abnormalities (eosinophilia, atypical lymphocytosis
LAD
Organ involvement (elevated liver enzymes, kidney, lungs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Sweet syndrome signs and treatment

A

Aka acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis

Juicy red papules / plaques/ nodules with sharp borders on upper trunk and prox extremities

Fever

Treat with steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does hypoMg cause hypoCa?

A

Activates G proteins that stimulate Ca-sensing receptors and decrease PTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HRS diagnostic criteria

A

Cr increase >1.5 (acute or subacute)

Lack of response to albumin challenge 1 g/kg/day for 2 days

Absence of shock, nephrotoxicity, active sediment, proteinuria >500, US evidence of kidney issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Alarm features for abd pain

A
Anemia
Dysphagia
Odynophagia
Weight loss
Fam hx of GI cancer
Hx PUD / surgery / cancer
Mass or LAD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What size gallbladder polyp is indication for cholecystectomy?

A

Over 1 cm, even if asymptomatic because risk of neoplasia

If less than 1 cm and no stones or symptoms, follow with serial US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dx for endoscopy showing rings, longitudinal furrows I’m setting of solid food dysphagia

A

Eosinophilic esophagitis

May also have structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MOA of lorcaserin (appetite suppressant)

A

Serotonin 2C agonist

Caution with other serotonin meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Phentermine- topiramate combo is effective in weight loss. Who is it contraindicated for?

A

Glaucoma

Phentermine is a sympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Risk factors for statin adverse effects

A

Age >75
CKD
Liver disease
Medication interactions

Use moderate intensity instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What med prevents progression of dry macular degeneration?

A

High dose antioxidant vitamins (C, E, beta carotene, Zn, Cu)

Use AREDS (age related eye disease study) formulation instead of beta carotene if increased risk of lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Treatment for wet macular degeneration

A

VEGF - inhibits neovascularization

Use antioxidants for dry MD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who to offer BRCA 1/2 testing

A

Breast cancer <45 yr

Breast cancer any age plus family hx breast or ovarian

Triple negative diagnosed before age 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Health maintenance for women who received chest wall radiation between ages 10 and 30

A

High risk for breast cancer

Annual mammograms AND breast MRIs starting age 30 or 8 years after radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
Sudden high fever
Frontal/ retro orbital headache
Myalgias
Arthalgias
Severe low back pain
Rash
Thrombocytopenia
A

Dengue fever signs/symptoms

Rash appears as fever abates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

S/s of dengue

A
Sudden high fever
Frontal/ retro orbital headache
Myalgias
Arthalgias
Severe low back pain
Rash as fever abates
Thrombocytopenia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Difference between dengue and chikungunya

A

Chik has more severe arthralgias, involving small joints
Also less thrombocytopenia

Both have low back pain, fever, arthralgias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When to give PCV 13 and PPSV 23?

Incl immunocompromised, cochlear implant, CSF leak

A

PCV 13:
- >65, at least one year if got PPSV23

PPSV23:

  • 19-64 if comorbidities
  • 65+ one year after PCV13

HIV/ immunocompromised (CKD, asplenia):
- PCV 13 then 8 weeks later PPSV23 then 5yrs later PPSV23

Cochlear implant or CSF leak:

  • PCV13 then one year PPSV23
  • if already got both, one additional PPSV23
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Features of Anaplasma

A

Co infects with Lyme
Ixodes tick

Fever
Leukopenia
Thrombocytopenia
Increase LFTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Features of Babesia

A

Coinfects with Lyme
Ixodes tick

Fever
Hemolysis / jaundice
Splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Balkin nephropathy increases risk of what malignancy?

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Treat Uric acid stones

A

Hydration for UOP > 2 liters per day

Urine alkalinization with Kcitrate or Kbicarb (increased urate solubility)

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor If refractory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Treatment for calcium renal stones

A

Thiazides and K citrate, maybe pyridoxine if primary hyperoxaluria

Increase proximal sodium reabsorption and passive Ca reabsorption

Citrate binds Ca in tubule preventing precipitation with oxalate. Kcitrate decreases uptake of citrate from tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Treatment of choice for resistant HTN with CKD

A

Use loop over thiazide with CKD4 or worse

Thiazides lose potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Treatment for struvite stones

A

Remove them when confirmed - hard to treat

Urine acidification decreases risk of formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How can bowel resection cause kidney stones?

How to treat it?

A

Excess fatty acids bind Ca - Ca Not available to bind oxalate - increased oxalate absorption (enteric hyperoxaluria)

Treat with adequate Ca intake, hydration, and cholestyramine to bind oxalate

Pyridoxine only works for primary hyperoxaluria not enteric (improves glyoxylate metabolism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Confusion
Aphasia
Ataxia
High anion gap

A

D lactic acidosis

Occurs in short bowel syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Management for ischemic stroke on aspirin mono therapy

A

Add dipyridimole

Clopidogrel DAPT increases mortality without benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Personality change, psychosis, and seizures over weeks. What type of encephalitis?

A

Antibody mediated like paraneoplastic antibody syndrome

Assoc with SCLC, breast, thymoma, germ cell, Hodgkin

Can also be primary autoimmune like anti-LG1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Course of HHV1 encephalitis

A

Cognitive problems, psych disturbance, bitemporal seizures

Progresses acutely over days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is water restriction test for and how does it work?

A

Evaluate for DI (absence or resistance to ADH)

May not have hypernatremia if access to water

Restricting water will increase plasma osmolality But urine osm doesn’t increase with DI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Management for Barrett esophagus with low grade dysplasia

A

Confirm with two pathologists

Endoscopic ablation or yearly endoscopic surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Supplement for MS treatment, superior to disease modifying therapy along

A

Vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Best imaging to detect insulinoma

A

Endoscopic ultrasound

Often too small for CT or abdominal US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Clinical manifestations of eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

Churg Strauss

Autoimmune small vessel vasculitis

Peripheral eosinophilia
Asthma
Purpura on hands and legs
Neuropathies (sensory or motor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

Population?
Clinical picture?
Treatment?

A

Commonly in ppl with atopic asthma or CF

Severe asthma
Cough with production of mucous plugs
Fever/fatigue
CXR normal or infiltrates
Peripheral eosinophilia 

Treat with steroids and maybe anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Diagnose PCOS

A

2 of 3:

  • oligo ovulation
  • evidence of hyperandrogenism
  • polycystic morphology in ovaries on US
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which antiplatelet agent if giving tPA for STEMI (no cath lab available)?

A

Clopidogrel

Ticagrelor isn’t well studied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Treatment for cancer of rectum vs other parts of colon

A

Can irradiate rectum because it’s retroperitoneal and stationary

46
Q

Timing of colonoscopy screens after colorectal cancer

A

1 year, 3 years then every 5 yrs if those are normal

47
Q

For kidney transplants, is it better to get HLA incompatible or stay on dialysis and wait for compatible ?

A

Survival benefit to get earlier incompatible kidney than to wait

48
Q

Claudication symptoms with ABI between 0.91 and 0.99. What next?

A

Get exercise ABI if borderline resting results
Exercise ABI significant if <0.90 and decreases 20% from resting

Get CT angiography for surgical planning only after official diagnosis

49
Q

White atrophic patches with itching around vagina. Diagnose and treat.

A

Lichen sclerosis

Treat with topical high potency steroids

50
Q

1st line medication for ALS

A

Riluzole

Increases survival by 3 mo

Also edaravone is FDA approved

51
Q

Goal transferrin sats and ferritin level for CKD?

A

Transferrin >30%

Ferritin >500

52
Q

Sulfonylurea plus DPP4 inhibitor. What to think about?

A

Hypoglycemia

Decrease sulfonylurea (glipizide) when adding a DPP4 (gliptins)

53
Q

Imaging to diagnose MS?

A

Need dissemination in space and time

If only one lesion on MR brain , need to get MR spine too (cervical and thoracic)

LP with oligoclonal bands not necessary to diagnose if imaging confirms

54
Q

How to diagnose Zika

A

PCR of blood and urine

ELISA has cross reactivity with dengue and yellow fever

Should also suspect dengue and chikungunya

55
Q

When to place chest tube for parapneumonic effusion?

A

pH <7.20 with suspected infection

Or presence of pus or positive gram stain/culture

56
Q

First line management for cryptogenic stroke and PFO?

A

Aspirin

Closure of PFO not proven unless recurrent stroke on warfarin, thrombus trapped, or shunting

57
Q

Treatment for Crohn’s disease in pregnancy?

A

Anti-TNF agents

Certolizumab is preferred over infliximab and adalimumab because it’s pegylated which limits placental transfer

58
Q

Who to screen for DM if asymptomatic?

A

Age 40-70 if overweight or obese, every 3 years

59
Q

Expected compensation for metabolic acidosis?

A

Acute:
pCO2 is 1.5 x bicarb + 8

Chronic:
pCO2 is bicarb + 15

OR pCO2 is last two digits of pH

60
Q

Expected compensation for metabolic alkalosis?

A

1 increase in bicarb = 0.7 increase in CO2

61
Q

Expected compensation for respiratory acidosis?

A

Acute:
10 increase in CO2 = 1 increase in bicarb

Chronic:
10 increase in CO2 = 3.5 increase in bicarb

62
Q

Expected compensation for respiratory alkalosis?

A

Acute:
10 decrease in CO2 = 2 decrease in bicarb

Chronic:
10 decrease in CO2 = 4-5 decrease in bicarb

63
Q

What is delta delta ratio and what does it mean?

A

Use to determine if mixed or simple AGMA

Ratio of change in AG to change in bicarb

<0.8 means concurrent non AGMA

0.8-2.0 is pure AGMA

> 2 means concurrent metabolic alkalosis

64
Q

What pretest to get before starting treatment for HepC?

A

Test for prior HepB

HepC antivirals can reactivate; keep monitoring if evidence of past

65
Q

Diagnose bulla in setting of alcoholic liver disease?

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

Assoc with extensive alcohol use, hemochromatosis, HepC infection

Fragile easily ruptured vesicles on sun exposed areas, darkened skin, hypertrichosis

66
Q

Risk factors for progression from acute to chronic pancreatitis?

A

Male, alcohol, tobacco

Not hyperTG or pseudo cysts

67
Q

Management of PMR?

A

Low dose prednisone (15 mg) plus methotrexate if high risk for relapse (ESR>40, peripheral arthritis, women, can’t tolerate steroids)

68
Q

Treatment for SCD with frequent vaso-occlusive crises despite optimal medical therapy?

A

Stem cell transplant

Best with young age

69
Q

Treatment for actinic keratoses?

A

Cryosurgical destruction if <10-15 lesions

If more, use topical fluorouracil

70
Q

What to screen for in patients with polymyositis/dermatomyositis?

A

ILD

Strong association with presence of antiJo1

71
Q

What agent to prevent GVHD in recent stem cell transplant?

A

Anti-T lymphocyte immune globulin

GVHD is T cell mediated

72
Q

First line for active seizures

A

Ativan, phenytoin, fosphenytoin (prodrug, works faster than phenytoin)

Keppra is not abortive

73
Q

Treatment for psoriatic arthritis that has failed conventional DMARDs and TNFalpha inhibitors?

A

Secukinumab (anti IL17A) if no axial disease

74
Q

What to work up if iron deficiency is resistant to supplements?

A

Malabsorption: celiac, achlorhydria, H pylori

75
Q

Pt in 2nd trimester of preg has gallstone pancreatitis. What next?

A

Take it out,safest in 2nd trimester.

Worse to wait until after delivery. Bile acid dissolution is expensive, frequent dosing, close follow up

76
Q

With liver failure, what happens to factors 5, 7, 8?

A

All factors low except for 8, which is high

Factor 8 is synthesized by all endothelial cells, not just hepatic. Also is cleared by the liver.

77
Q

How to tell between liver disease and vit K deficiency from clotting factors?

A

5 isn’t vit K dependent so will be normal with deficiency

5 will be low with liver disease

78
Q

Work up for fasting hypoglycemic episodes in non-diabetic

A

72 hour fast with hypoglycemic studies

beta hydroxybutyrate is suppressed by endogenous and exogenous insulin

If hypoglycemia <5 hours after meal, do mixed meal testing to assess metabolic response to glucose

79
Q

Degludec vs glargine in type 1 diabetes

A

Degludec preferred

Glargine more likely to cause hypoglycemia

80
Q

MOA of febuxostat

What are some drug interactions?

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

It’s an alternative first line urate lowering drug

Don’t use with drugs metabolized by it: azathioprine or 6-mercatopurine

81
Q

What to work up if iron deficiency is resistant to supplements?

A

Malabsorption: celiac, achlorhydria, H pylori

82
Q

Treatment for unexplained chronic cough

A

Gabapentin - reassess at 6 months

83
Q

Obesity with proteinuria, normal serum albumin, and no edema - diagnosis and treatment?

A

Secondary FSGS, from glomerular hypertrophy (enlarged glomeruli with mild foot process effacement

Lose weight and start ACEi or ARB

84
Q

When to use anastrazole vs tamoxifen for ER/PR+ DCIS

A

After lumpectomy and radiation:

Use anastrozole for post menopausal women
- Has longer cancer free intervals and less VTEs

85
Q

Polymyositis with new fatigue and dyspnea - what to do next?

A

Rule out ACS

Poly/dermatomyositis have 4x increase of ischemic events

can have ILD too but more chronic onset

86
Q

Treatment for acromegaly

A

If evidence of mass effect (optic chiasm/vision changes), do transsphenoidal surgery

If no mass effect or contraindications to surgery, give somatostatin analogues (octreotide) to inhibit GH

87
Q

When to take drug holiday for osteoporosis

A

If taking for 3-5 years with no disease progression AND minimal risk factors for fractures

Continue if high risk

88
Q

What to use if bisphosphonate therapy fails to prevent progression with osteoporosis

A

Teriparatide (it’s also first line if T<3.0)

Denosumab, a RANK ligand inhibitor, if high risk and intolerant of bisphos

89
Q

When is TIPS contraindicated?

A

MELD over 15 or 18

Bili over 4

Existing HE

90
Q

Treatment for Sjogren keratoconjunctivitis if artificial tears doesn’t help

A

Topical cyclosporine

If that doesn’t work, topical glucocorticoids pulse therapy (can cause high IOP)

Hydroxychloroquine is reserved for systemic/extraglandular disease or failure of all topicals

91
Q

Most common cause of reduced EF in heart transplant after one year

A

Allograft vasculopathy (evaluate with LHC)

92
Q

How to diagnose gastroparesis

A

> 10% retention on gastric emptying at 4 hours

93
Q

How to give flu vaccine to solid organ transplant

A

Inactivated vaccine, two doses five weeks apart

Live vaccine is contraindicated

94
Q

How to treat hepatic adenomas assoc with OCPs

A

Resect if >5 cm or beta catenin nuclear reactivity positive or hemorrhage

OCP is reversible cause - if <5 cm surveillance CTs every 6-12 mo

95
Q

When to use epo for CKD?

A

CKD 3-5 for Hgb less than 9.5

96
Q

Things that can cause refractoriness to platelet transfusion

A

Nonimmune: sepsis, fever, DIC, splenomegaly, meds

Immune

97
Q

When to transfuse HLA matched platelets?

A

For alloimmunized patients

When platelet counts are refractory to transfusion (measured 10-60 min after) and not due to sepsis , fever, splenomeg, DIC

Washed platelets are for severe allergic reactions or IgA deficiency

98
Q

What level of coronary stenosis and fractional flow reserve (FFR) do we revascularize, if asymptomatic and no ischemia on MIBI?

A

Stenosis 50-70% and FFR <0.80

Normal is 1.0

99
Q

Dosing schedule for zoledronic acid for bone metastases

A

Every 3 mo is just as effective as monthly

Alendronate is too low potency

100
Q

What’s the risk of sub clinical hyperthyroidism?

A

Hip and other fractures

Esp with TSH <0.1

101
Q

Increased risk of what with cyclophosphamide

A

Bladder cancer

Lower risk with IV administration

102
Q

What supplement lowers the risk of nonmelanoma cancer in high risk patient?

A

Vitamin B3 - nicotinamide

High risk is two or more prior cancers

103
Q

When to refer to nephrologist for transplant evaluation

A

GFR <20

104
Q

When not to treat Shigella with cipro

A

When MIC >/= 0.12

General rule is sensitive when MIC < 1.0

105
Q

Therapy for MG without thymoma

A

Thymectomy has significant clinical benefits

106
Q

MEN 1

A

Parathyroid, pancreatic, pituitary tumors

DIAMOND

107
Q

MEN 2A

A

Medullary thyroid, pheochromocytoma, parathyroid

SQUARE

108
Q

MEN 2B

A

Medullary thyroid, pheo, neuromas (mucosal)

Marfanoid

TRIANGLE

109
Q

Measures to prevent surgical site infection

A

Perioperative hyperoxia (80% fio2 during surgery and 2-6 hr after) and 24 h abx pox

110
Q

When to use coronary artery calcium scoring?

A

To define CVD risk with moderate risk ASCVD 5-7.5%

111
Q

Relative contraindications for cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil)

A
Sick sinus
LBBB
Uncontrolled asthma
Close angle glaucoma
Ulcers