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MKSAP > MKSAP > Flashcards

MKSAP Flashcards

1
Q

treatment of typical aflutter

A

catheter ablation

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2
Q

Next step following cardiopulmonary arrest in young patient

A

ICD placement

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3
Q

indications for ASD closure

A

symptoms, RA enlargement without pHTN

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4
Q

medication cause of erythrodemic psoriasis

A

glucocorticoids

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5
Q

first line for chronic insomnia

A

CBT-i

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6
Q

treatment of intermittent claudication

A

exercise training

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7
Q

adjunctive treatment for breast cancer with bony mets

A

zoledronic acid or denusomab

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8
Q

low risk for malignancy and 6-8mm nodule, repeat CT in….

A

6-12 months

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9
Q

when to give albumin for SBP

A

w/ renal dysfunction and/bili above 4

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10
Q

prevention of travelers diarrhea in high risk patient

A

rifaximin

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11
Q

treatment of Raynuads in systemic sclerosis

A

CCB

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12
Q

treatment of DMII w/ known cardiovascular risk

A

should add SGLT2 or GLP1

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13
Q

3 tests for gastroparesis

A

scintigraphy, wireless motility capsule, and breath testing

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14
Q

one of the most common cause of aseptic meningitis

A

enteroviruses

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15
Q

indications for ICD in HOCM

A

sustained VT or arrest, or major risk (close 1st degree relative, LV hypertrophy >30mm, syncope, aneurysm, or EF <50%)

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16
Q

indication for cilostazol

A

claudication symptoms, no benefit on mortality

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17
Q

first test after suspected infertility

A

midluteal serum progesterone level

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18
Q

indications for treatment in heterozygous hemochronatosis

A

ferritin >300 in men and 200 in women, transferrin > 45%

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19
Q

treatment of toxic alcohol injestion

A

ethanol and isopropyl alcohol = supportive care
- methanol/ethylene glycol = fomepizole

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20
Q

treatment of severe acute chest

A

exchange transfusion

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21
Q

adjunctive treatment of binge eating disorder

A

lisdexafetamine

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22
Q

treatment for women with high risk of breast cancer

A

tamoxifen, raloxifene or aromatase inhibitors

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23
Q

treatment if high risk for breast cancer with clotting risk

A

aromatase inhibitor - exemestane or anastrozole

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24
Q

stages for surgery in cervical cancer

A

only I and II, not III (too advanced)

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25
Q

tolerable doubling time in men with active prostate cancer surveillance

A

3 years

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26
Q

Best modality for evaluating for osteo in DM

A

MRI

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27
Q

Repair of aorta should be performed if also doing heart surgery based on aorta of what size

A

Greater than 4.5cm

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28
Q

preferred weight loss surgeries

A

sleeve gastrectomy (less weight loss, fewer complications) or Roux en Y

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29
Q

hyperviscocity is treated with…

A

plasmapheresis

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30
Q

thyroid testing options

A

ultrasound for high TSH
radioactive iodine uptake for low TSH

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31
Q

preferred anticoagulant in high risk APLS

A

warfarin

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32
Q

GI disease associated with ankylosing spodylitis

A

IBD

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33
Q

opioid level for severe risk of overdose

A

50 MME

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34
Q

HINTS exam suggests…

A

central vestibular stroke if any are positive

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35
Q

Initial management for structural heart disease

A

cMRI

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36
Q

treatment of metastatic non-small cell lung cancer

A

alectinib

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37
Q

viral cause of cryoglobulemic glomerulonephritis

A

hepatitis c

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38
Q

viruses and nephritic/nephrotic syndrom

A

hep B = nephrotic
hep C = nephritic

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39
Q

when to treat subclinical hyperthyroidism

A

with TSH < 0.1 or older age

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40
Q

morphea

A

type of localized scleroderma with sclerotic plaques

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41
Q

lewy body vs parkinsons disease

A

in parkinsons, movement problems precede dementia

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42
Q

subacute chorea is indicative of…

A

acquired cause, think pregnancy in a younger woman

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43
Q

disease associated with poorly controlled ankylosing spondylitis

A

AA amyloidosis

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44
Q

follow up for fundic gland polyps

A

none needed, most common benign polyp

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45
Q

first line treatment for cluster headache

A

subq sumatriptan and supplemental O2

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46
Q

Testing recommended in patient with spenlic venous thrombus

A

JAK2 testing

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47
Q

when to stop cervical cancer screening

A

at 65, assuming screening to date has been normal

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48
Q

recommended therapy for autoimmune hepatitis

A

azathioprine and prednisone for 2-3 years due to high rate of recurrence

49
Q

treatment of severe malaria

A

artesunate

50
Q

treatment of stress incontinence

A

first line: PT
second line: topical estrogen

51
Q

pap testing recs in patients with IBD

A

should be done yearly

52
Q

bone testing recs in smoldering myleoma

A

low dose CT vs PET and if negative, whole body MRI (more sensitive)

53
Q

cessation in chronic pancreatitis

A

both alcohol and smoking

54
Q

treatment of tobacco cessation after ACS

A

combination NRT or varenicline

55
Q

treatment of hot tub folliculitis

A

does not require antibiotics unless not improving, usually self limited

56
Q

treatment of gestational diabetes in women unable to meet glycemic goals

A

insulin

57
Q

all people diagnosed with PSC should also recieve

A

a colonoscopy

58
Q

secondary treatment for inclusion body myositis

A

PT (patients often have little improvement)

59
Q

next test with growing pulmonary nodule

A

PET/CT

60
Q

First step after diagnosis of dermatomyositis

A

age related cancer screenings

61
Q

Response time for treatment of FSGS

A

12-16 weeks

62
Q

treatment of campylobacter

A

azithromycin

63
Q

Initial evaluation of constipation in elderly patient

A

colonoscopy

64
Q

Support for heart block following MI

A

Temp pacing, permanent is rarely needed

65
Q

Treatment of hypomotlity disorder

A

lifestyle changes

66
Q

Testing for TB in HIV patients

A

Re test for TB following recovery od CD4 count

67
Q

Timeline to delay surgery following stroke

A

At least 6 months, preferably 9

68
Q

Common associated with brucella

A

HSM, depression, arthrligia

69
Q

BP goal following ischemic stroke w/ cerebral vessel narrowing

A

220/110, lowing associated with worse outcomes

70
Q

Image testing in stage 0-II breast cancer

A

None needed

71
Q

Electrolyte issues caused by PPI

A

Hypomagnesiumia, can also cause hypokalemia

72
Q

Treatment of UE DVT related to PICC line

A

3 months of treatment with AC

73
Q

Test for patient with high pre-test probability for PAD but normal ABI

A

exercise ABI

74
Q

Treatment of epididymitis in MSM patient

A

ceftriaxone + levofloxacin (covers GI pathogens)

75
Q

SLE therapies to avoid in pregnancy

A

mycophenolate mofetil, belimumab, and methotrexate

76
Q

Fluid collection around breast implant is associated with….

A

T-cell lymphoma

77
Q

Treatment of FMF

A

Colchicine

78
Q

Screening for sphalnic vein thrombosis

A

JAK2 mutation for MPN

79
Q

Blood test monitoring for transgender care w/ testosterone

A

hematocrit

80
Q

Treatment of superficial DVT

A

6 weeks when clot is > 5cm, close to deep vein system or if clot risk factors present

81
Q

Progression free survival means…

A

a longer time without cancer growth

82
Q

Best test for west nile encephalitis

A

IgM because viral load is usually quickly cleared

83
Q

Treatment of hypertension in intracranial bleed

A

treat BP to 140 or lower

84
Q

INR level which vitamin K should be given

A

greater than 10 and asympatomatic

85
Q

Treatment of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

amiloride

86
Q

treatment of aplastic anemia

A

< 50 = stem cell transplant
>50 = immunosuppresion

87
Q

treatment of cryptococcal meningitis besides abx

A

LP to reduce intracranial pressure

88
Q

dermatitis herptiformis is associated with what disease

A

celiac

89
Q

Low risk melanoma cut off

A

<0.8cm by depth

90
Q

treament following SAH

A

nimodipine (improves outcomes)

91
Q

Test used to stage B cell lymphoma

A

LDH

92
Q

Treatment of MALT

A

rituximab

93
Q

Ideal COPD for lung reduction surgery

A

upper-lobe-predominant emphysema, FEV1 and DLCO of 20% of predicted or higher, and low exercise tolerance after completion of pulmonary rehabilitation

94
Q

Treatment size for gallbladder polyps

A

> 1cm

95
Q

Mental health association with montelukast

A

depression (black box warning)

96
Q

Treatment for refractory essential tremor

A

surgery

97
Q

Adjuvant treatment for GIST tumors

A

imatinib

98
Q

Screening for patient with menigitis and disseninated GC disease

A

CH50 level (complement)

99
Q

When to remove gall bladder for acute chole

A

During hospitalization

100
Q

Qualification for high dose flu vaccine

A

Above 65

101
Q

When to return to play after concussion

A

7 days after having no symptoms

102
Q

Treatment for Lewy body dementia

A

anticholinesterase inhibitors

103
Q

Anti-phosphlipase 2 receptor is test for

A

Membranous nephropathy

104
Q

Treatment of autoimmune encephalitis

A

Immunosuppresion

105
Q

Important lab marker in pleural effusion

A

pH, less than 7.2 requires drainage

106
Q

Medication causes of microscopic colitis

A

NSAIDs, proton pump inhibitors, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

107
Q

Keratoacanthoma

A

Type of rapidly growing squamous cell carcinoma

108
Q

Modality for HCC sureveillene in cirrhosis

A

ultrasound q6months

109
Q

Association with vitiligo

A

Other autoimmune diseases, check TSH

110
Q

Blood test to check prior to statin therapy

A

AST

111
Q

Treatment for infectious related GN

A

continue antibiotics

112
Q

How to avoid nitrate tolerance

A

Decrease dosing to once daily, allows for nitrate free period

113
Q

Treatment for epididymitis in older men (low STI risk)

A

lovefloxacin

114
Q

Diagnostic test for Pagets disease

A

Radionucleotide bone scan

115
Q

PPIs and CKD

A

avoid if able, use H2 blockers

116
Q

Treatment of lupus nephritis

A

prednisone and mycophenolate

117
Q

Asymptomatic gallstones

A

only observation, prophlyactic surgery not indicated

118
Q

Glucocorticoid sparing agent for GCA

A

tociluzumab

MKSAP (2 decks)

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