Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boeing 747-400 type rating > mixed subjects cbt questions > Flashcards

mixed subjects cbt questions Flashcards

Q1-4 - Lighting fam // Q5-8 - Communications // Q9-21 - Elec system // Q22-26 - Emer equipment // Q27-34 - Fire protection // Q35-38 - APU // Q39-47 - Flight Instruments // Q48-55 - Air conditioning // Q56-58 - Fuel // Q59-65 - Hydraulics // Q66 - Ice and Rain protection // Q67-78 - Landing Gear // Q79-86 - Flight Controls // Q87-112 - Autoflight // Q113 - Bleed Air // Q114-131 - Warning Systems // Q132-164 - Navigation & FMS

1
Q

When the wing landing lights are on, what controls their intensity?

A

Landing gear lever position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When are the seatbelt signs extinguished? (Seatbelts Auto)

A

Gear and Flaps selected up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When are the seatbelt signs illuminated? (Seatbelts Auto)

A

Flaps selected down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When are the “NO SMOKING” signs illuminated?

A

Gear selected down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which radio receiver is being monitored?

A

Left VHF only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which Navigation receiver is being monitored?

A

Right ILS receiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What HF radio and mode have been selected?

A

Left HF AM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Normally, the right Radio Tuning Panel will have what radios selected?

A

Right VHF and Right HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does this condition indicate?

A

Generator Control Breaker 2 is open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What condition is indicated?

A

Bus Tie Breaker 2 is open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What will result if APU Generator 1 fails?

A

The SSB will close and power the entire synchronous bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does this indicate?

A

Left Utility Busses are not powered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which is indicated?

A

Generator 3 drive has low oil pressure or high oil pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is indicated?

A

At least 1 ELCU on the right side has disconnected its bus due to a fault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

With no AC power on the airplane and the battery switch ON, what is powered?

A

Main Bus Battery and APU Battery Bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What source normally powers the Main Battery Bus and APU Bus?

A

DC Bus 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which bus normally powers the Main Standby Bus?

A

AC Bus 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

With no AC Power sources connected, what source provides power to the Main Standby Bus?

A

Main Battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which bus cannot provide power to the Captains or First Officers Transfer Busses?

A

AC Bus 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When is the Ground Handling Bus powered?

A

When external power is available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When is the Main deck cargo handling bus powered?

A

When either external power 2 or APU generator 2 is available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the proper way to remove a flight deck oxygen mask from stowage?

A

Squeeze the red release levers with thumb and forefinger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the condition of the flight deck oxygen at this station?

A

Available to the regulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How can you restore oxygen flow to the mask/regulator?

A

Open the left door on the stowage box

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When does the supernumerary oxygen flow control valve open?

A

Cabin altitude reaches approximately fourteen thousand feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The Armed position of the Emergency switch allows automatic illumination of emergency lights when?

A

DC power fails or is turned off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pulling the APU Fire Switch will:

A

Arm the discharge squib and shut down the APU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What should you do if the APU Fire Switch cannot be pulled during an APU fire?

A

Push the fire override release while pulling the switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When is this message no longer displayed?

A

When the fire condition no longer exists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do these messages indicate?

A

Bottle A has been discharged and the fire condition still exists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Does engine 3 have fire extinguishing available if two bottles are discharged to exthinguish a fire on engine 4?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where will the cargo fire extinguishers discharge?

A

FWD compartment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In what order will the bottles discharge?

A

A and B immediately bottles, C and D after brief delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is beeing tested?

A

The Engine Fire/Overheat detection systems and The Cargo and APU Fire detection systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is needed to start the APU?

A

APU Battery and Main Battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the START position of the APU Selector?

A

Initiates an automatic APU start sequence

Momentary position, springg-loaded to ON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If securing the airplane:
How much time should be allowed for the APU to shutdown before turning the battery switch off?

A

2 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

An APU fault results in:

A

APU shuts down immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the current vertical velocity?

A

Descent at 700 feet per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the current heading?

A

120° Magnetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What can be displayed in the lower corners of the ND?

A

VOR or ADF information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the current Ground Speed?

A

453 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the active waypoint? A,B or C?

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the active waypoint?

A

GRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the current Groundspeed?

A

338 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The EIU source selector selects the EIU for the:

A

PFD and ND Displays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What happens if the “B” controller fails?

A

Pack controller “A” controls the pack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does TRIM AIR do?

A

Heats conditioned air to satisfy zone temperature requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does the RESET switch on the Cabin Temperature Panel do?

A

Cancels all adjustments in all zones it affects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If the active cabin altitude controller fails..

A

Control of the outflow valves switches automatically to the other controller, regardless of the selector position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

To set Landing Altitude when the EICAS landing altitude display is in AUTO:

A

Push Landing Altitude Switch and rotate Landing Altitude Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is indicated?

A

The left outflow valve is operating in Manual and the right outflow valve is operating in Automatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

on the ground

running an engine on each wing

A

The system is manually reconfigured for flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is indicated?

A

Aft Cargo Heat is OFF
and
Aft Cargo Heat has exceeded normal Limits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is indicated?

A

The pump output pressure is low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which fuel pumps are supplying fuel to engine number one when center wing tanks are empty

A

Main Tank Two Override / Jettison pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Prior to takeoff with fuel in all tanks and the flaps in the takeoff position which fuel tank will supply fuel to engine number four?

A

Center Wing Tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which hydraulic system is used by the center autopilot?

A

System One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What happens when an Engine Fire Switch is pulled? (Hydraulics)

A

The Hydraulic fluid shutoff valve closes and the engine pump depressurizes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When will the demand pumps operate?

A

To supplement the associated engine pump hydraulic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

With the airplane on the ground, which pump is supplying System 4 hydraulic pressure?

A

The electric auxiliary pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What airplane systems are lost?

A

Nose and body gear steering/center autopilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What conditions cause the system fault lights to illuminate?

A

Low system pressure, low fluid quantity, excessive fluid temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which hydraulic system requires maintenance action prior to departure?

A

System 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does this indicate?

A

Captains windshield heat not powered

67
Q
A
68
Q

What conditions are required to release the gear lever lock?

A

Wing and body gear tilted and body gear centered

69
Q

How long is the EICAS gear up indication displayed after all gear are retracted?

A

10 seconds

70
Q

What is the primary control for the airplane steering?

A

Tillers

71
Q

When is Body Gear Steering armed?

A

Speed decreasing through 15kts

72
Q

What does this indicate?

A

Either body gear is not centered and thrust lever two or three is advanced for takeoff

73
Q

What causes the gear to extend when using alternate gear extension?

A

Gravity and airload forces

74
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the normal brake system?

A

System four

75
Q

What is indicated?

A

Parking brakes set and throttles 2 or 3 are advanced for takeoff

76
Q

When is automatic braking activated with the selector in RTO?

A

Retarding all throttles and wheel speed greater than 85 kts

77
Q

Can a new autobrake decceleration rate be selected after landing?

A

Yes

78
Q

When are the autobrakes available?

A

With normal brakes only

79
Q

What effect do the ratio changers have as airspeed increases?

A

Reduce rudder surface deflection in response to pedal inputs

80
Q

What is indicated?

A

Stabilizer trim indicator is inoperative

81
Q

When does automatic stabilizer trim cutout occur?

A

When the stabilizer trim cutout switches are in the AUTO position and uncommanded stabilizer trim is detected

82
Q

What does this EICAS message indicate?

A

The outboard ailerons may be locked out at low speed or the outboard ailerons may be unlocked at high speed

83
Q

Which spoiler panels function as ground spoilers?

A

ALL spoiler panels

84
Q

What flap power sources are used when the FCUs are in the primary mode?

A

Bleed air for leading edge and hydraulic for trailing edge

85
Q

What are the leading edge flap positions with the flap lever in the flaps one detent?

A

Midspan and inboard groups are extended

86
Q

What is the maximum extended position the trailing edge flaps will reach using the alternate mode?

A

25

87
Q

Where are the autopilot modes displayed?

A

PFD

88
Q

How would you engage the left autopilot?

A

Disengage the autopilot then push the L CMD switch

89
Q

Where is the Command Speed displayed?

A

PFDs and IAS/Mach window

90
Q

During FLCH climb or descent, what is the PDF pitch annunciation?

A

FLCH SPD

91
Q

What is the bank angle limit?

A

15° to 25° depending on TAS, Flap position and V2

92
Q

This bank angle limit applies to which Mode of operation?

A

HDG SEL

93
Q

When does the Go-Around function of the TO/GA mode arm?

A

At G/S capture or flaps out of up

94
Q

Which of the following precents TO/GA Mode engagement?

A

Airplane below 5 ft RA for 2 secs

95
Q

How do you terminate the TO/GA Mode below 400ft RA?

A

Push either A/P disengage switch and turn off both FD’s

96
Q

With TO/GA mode engaged, A/P roll control maintains:

A

Ground Track

97
Q

What does this indicate?

A

Altitude deviation

98
Q

Which action cancels and resets all the above indications and aural warnings?

A

B

99
Q

Which Flight control computer is driving the FO’s FD?

A

Right

100
Q

What roll attitude is commanded after takeoff in TO/GA mode?

A

Takeoff Ground Track

101
Q

In FLCH, VNAV, or TO/GA the THRUST Switch will:

A

Change the thrust limit to the selected climb limit

Not change the current autothrottle mode

102
Q

Which indication confirms the autothrottle is engaged?

A

PFD flight mode display

103
Q

The Autothrottle can be operated without the autopilot and/or flight director

A

True

104
Q

When does Throttle HOLD activate?

A

Airspeed increases above 65 KIAS (take off)

Thrust levers are repositioned manually in Flight Level Change

Thrust levers reach idle in Flight Level Change and VNAV

105
Q

How is this message reset?

A

Re-engage Autothrottle mode or push an Autothrottle disconnect switch

106
Q

What is the maximum Thrust the Autothrottle will use to hold speed?

A

CLB

107
Q

Which of the following indicates LNAV is engaged?

A

C

108
Q

During LNAV operation, what happens if the airplane passes over the last route waypoint?

A

LNAV maintains last Heading

109
Q

What is indicated?

A

FMC is controlling speed

110
Q

What is the command airspeed?

A

220 kts

111
Q

What pitch mode is normally maintained by the autopilot during a VNAV climb?

A

VNAV SPD

112
Q

Which PFD display indicates a VNAV descent?

A

B

(Thrust levers reach idle in Flight Level Change and VNAV activates HOLD mode)

113
Q

When is the HP Bleed valve open?

A

When IP Bleed is insufficient to meet Bleed Air requirements

114
Q

What happens if the left EIU fails?

A

EICAS control switches automatically to the center EIU

115
Q

True or False?

Warning messages are displayed in RED at the top of the EICAS message area.

A

True

116
Q

What occurs when a Master Warning/Caution reset switch is pushed?

A

Master Warning Lights extinguish and reset

117
Q

What action is required to view page two?

A

Push the cancel switch

118
Q

What action is required to view page 2?

A

Push the cancel switch

119
Q

What EICAS messages, aural alerts, or lights are inhibited during a takeoff, at 80knots?

A

Beeper and Master Caution Lights

120
Q

What EICAS messages, aural alerts, or lights are inhibited for 25s after V1 or until reaching 400’ RA?

A

Only Fire Bell and Master Warning Lights

121
Q

Which of the following flight control positions are shown on the status display?

A

Rudder, elevators, airlerons and spoilers

122
Q

What is indicated by the STATUS cue?

A

New status message exists

123
Q

What action is required to display the status messages on page 2?

A

Push the status switch

124
Q

A controlling EIU is unreliable if:

A

Any vertical or digital indicator is not displayed

125
Q

Will the ground proximity warning system provide a warning of flight towards vertically sheer terrain?

A

NO!

126
Q

Which GPWS voice annunciation alerts the crew to an attitde loss after initial takeoff or go-around?

A

“Don’t sink”

127
Q

What is inhibited when this switch is pushed?

A

The GPWS voice annunciation “TOO LOW FLAP”

128
Q

What inhibits the GPWS voice annunciation GLIDESLOPE?

A

Pushing the glideslope inhibit switch

129
Q

With the gear not down and locked and the flaps in a landing position, what action silences the warning siren?

A

Extending the gear

130
Q

TFC must be displayed on the EFIS control panel to:

A

Display TCAS symbols and data on the ND

131
Q

With TFC selected, a RA provides which of the following?

A

Voice annunciation and PFD pitch guidance

A display of symbols and data on the ND

132
Q

What inputs are required by the IRS before they can enter the NAV mode from the ALIGN mode?

A

Airplane longitude and latitude

133
Q

Can the IRSs complete alignment during taxi out?

A

No

134
Q

Why are the IRS units turned OFF prior to deactivating the AC buses?

A

To prevent automatic transfer of IRS to battery power and the resultant battery discharge

135
Q

What color indicates the area of heaviest precipitation?

A

Red

136
Q

True or False?

The Weather and Turbulence mode can be used as the sole means of detecting and avoiding turbulence

A

False

137
Q

When does VOR/DME and ILS radio control revert to FMS Autotuning?

A

When detecting a frequency

138
Q

True or False?

The FMS automatically tunes the ADFs.

A

False

139
Q

Which FMS-CDU tunes the ILS radios if both FMC’s fail?

A

Left, Right and Center

140
Q

When does the FMC combine the three IRS positions?

A

At all times, except polar navigation

141
Q

True or False?

The Left and Right FMC’s are identical.

A

True

142
Q

Which FMS CDUs can be used to enter information into the FMCs?

A

Left and Right only

143
Q

What page begins the FMS - CDU preflight?

A

Identification

144
Q

Which page displays the FMC time?

A

POS INIT

145
Q

Which key is pushed to display the KBFI departures page?

A

DEP/ARR

146
Q

Which key is pushed to incorporate the runway and departure into the active route?

A

EXEC

147
Q

What value will the FMC automatically display after the ZFW is entered?

A

Gross Weight

148
Q

True or False?

The preflight is complete when PRE-FLT is displayed at the bottom of the TAKEOFF REF Page

A

False

149
Q

Which key is pushed to select and ILS APP to runway 32R?

A

1 R Key

150
Q

What is the correct NDB waypoint identifier?

A

NOLLA

151
Q

Which of the follwing waypoints is identified with a DME ARC procedure?

SEA/20
WPT10
D252X

A

D252X

152
Q

Which one of the following is a latitude/longitude waypoint identifier?

SEA01
N4738.1W12228.6
N47W122

A

N47W122

153
Q

What will be displayed in the scratch pad?

A

Latitude/Longitude

154
Q

Which page is used to make airway modifications?

A

ROUTE Page

155
Q

What is the maximum allowable route offset distance?

A

99 NM

156
Q

What action will remove a route offset?

A

Enter zero on the offset line and execute

157
Q

Which action is used to intercept the 043 leg to EPH?

A

Push the intercept course line select key and execute

158
Q

What is the direction and distance from VAMPS to RUMOR?

A

Mag Course 085° and 46 NM

159
Q

What action would bypass QUINT?

A

Enter EPH over QUINT

160
Q

When will the airplane cross the Holding Fix?

A

1607z

161
Q

Which indiates an altitude restriciton of at or below 17,000 feet?

A

C

162
Q

Which indicates a Block Altitude between 12,000 and 17,000 feet?

A

A

163
Q

The UNABLE NEXT ALT message indicates?

A

The climb rate is not great enough

164
Q

Which stations are beeing inhibited from autotuning for FMC position updating?

A

ELN and ALL VOR stations

Boeing 747-400 type rating (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions