mixed subjects cbt questions Flashcards
Q1-4 - Lighting fam // Q5-8 - Communications // Q9-21 - Elec system // Q22-26 - Emer equipment // Q27-34 - Fire protection // Q35-38 - APU // Q39-47 - Flight Instruments // Q48-55 - Air conditioning // Q56-58 - Fuel // Q59-65 - Hydraulics // Q66 - Ice and Rain protection // Q67-78 - Landing Gear // Q79-86 - Flight Controls // Q87-112 - Autoflight // Q113 - Bleed Air // Q114-131 - Warning Systems // Q132-164 - Navigation & FMS
When the wing landing lights are on, what controls their intensity?
Landing gear lever position
When are the seatbelt signs extinguished? (Seatbelts Auto)
Gear and Flaps selected up
When are the seatbelt signs illuminated? (Seatbelts Auto)
Flaps selected down
When are the “NO SMOKING” signs illuminated?
Gear selected down
Which radio receiver is being monitored?
Left VHF only
Which Navigation receiver is being monitored?
Right ILS receiver
What HF radio and mode have been selected?
Left HF AM
Normally, the right Radio Tuning Panel will have what radios selected?
Right VHF and Right HF
What does this condition indicate?
Generator Control Breaker 2 is open
What condition is indicated?
Bus Tie Breaker 2 is open
What will result if APU Generator 1 fails?
The SSB will close and power the entire synchronous bus
What does this indicate?
Left Utility Busses are not powered
Which is indicated?
Generator 3 drive has low oil pressure or high oil pressure
What is indicated?
At least 1 ELCU on the right side has disconnected its bus due to a fault
With no AC power on the airplane and the battery switch ON, what is powered?
Main Bus Battery and APU Battery Bus
What source normally powers the Main Battery Bus and APU Bus?
DC Bus 3
Which bus normally powers the Main Standby Bus?
AC Bus 3
With no AC Power sources connected, what source provides power to the Main Standby Bus?
Main Battery
Which bus cannot provide power to the Captains or First Officers Transfer Busses?
AC Bus 4
When is the Ground Handling Bus powered?
When external power is available
When is the Main deck cargo handling bus powered?
When either external power 2 or APU generator 2 is available
What is the proper way to remove a flight deck oxygen mask from stowage?
Squeeze the red release levers with thumb and forefinger
What is the condition of the flight deck oxygen at this station?
Available to the regulator
How can you restore oxygen flow to the mask/regulator?
Open the left door on the stowage box
When does the supernumerary oxygen flow control valve open?
Cabin altitude reaches approximately fourteen thousand feet
The Armed position of the Emergency switch allows automatic illumination of emergency lights when?
DC power fails or is turned off
Pulling the APU Fire Switch will:
Arm the discharge squib and shut down the APU
What should you do if the APU Fire Switch cannot be pulled during an APU fire?
Push the fire override release while pulling the switch
When is this message no longer displayed?
When the fire condition no longer exists
What do these messages indicate?
Bottle A has been discharged and the fire condition still exists
Does engine 3 have fire extinguishing available if two bottles are discharged to exthinguish a fire on engine 4?
NO
Where will the cargo fire extinguishers discharge?
FWD compartment
In what order will the bottles discharge?
A and B immediately bottles, C and D after brief delay
What is beeing tested?
The Engine Fire/Overheat detection systems and The Cargo and APU Fire detection systems
What is needed to start the APU?
APU Battery and Main Battery
Which of the following correctly describes the START position of the APU Selector?
Initiates an automatic APU start sequence
Momentary position, springg-loaded to ON
If securing the airplane:
How much time should be allowed for the APU to shutdown before turning the battery switch off?
2 minutes
An APU fault results in:
APU shuts down immediately
What is the current vertical velocity?
Descent at 700 feet per minute
What is the current heading?
120° Magnetic
What can be displayed in the lower corners of the ND?
VOR or ADF information
What is the current Ground Speed?
453 kts
What is the active waypoint? A,B or C?
B
What is the active waypoint?
GRH
What is the current Groundspeed?
338 kts
The EIU source selector selects the EIU for the:
PFD and ND Displays
What happens if the “B” controller fails?
Pack controller “A” controls the pack
What does TRIM AIR do?
Heats conditioned air to satisfy zone temperature requirements
What does the RESET switch on the Cabin Temperature Panel do?
Cancels all adjustments in all zones it affects
If the active cabin altitude controller fails..
Control of the outflow valves switches automatically to the other controller, regardless of the selector position
To set Landing Altitude when the EICAS landing altitude display is in AUTO:
Push Landing Altitude Switch and rotate Landing Altitude Control
What is indicated?
The left outflow valve is operating in Manual and the right outflow valve is operating in Automatic
on the ground
running an engine on each wing
The system is manually reconfigured for flight
What is indicated?
Aft Cargo Heat is OFF
and
Aft Cargo Heat has exceeded normal Limits
What is indicated?
The pump output pressure is low
Which fuel pumps are supplying fuel to engine number one when center wing tanks are empty
Main Tank Two Override / Jettison pumps
Prior to takeoff with fuel in all tanks and the flaps in the takeoff position which fuel tank will supply fuel to engine number four?
Center Wing Tank
Which hydraulic system is used by the center autopilot?
System One
What happens when an Engine Fire Switch is pulled? (Hydraulics)
The Hydraulic fluid shutoff valve closes and the engine pump depressurizes
When will the demand pumps operate?
To supplement the associated engine pump hydraulic pressure
With the airplane on the ground, which pump is supplying System 4 hydraulic pressure?
The electric auxiliary pump
What airplane systems are lost?
Nose and body gear steering/center autopilot
What conditions cause the system fault lights to illuminate?
Low system pressure, low fluid quantity, excessive fluid temperature
Which hydraulic system requires maintenance action prior to departure?
System 2
What does this indicate?
Captains windshield heat not powered
What conditions are required to release the gear lever lock?
Wing and body gear tilted and body gear centered
How long is the EICAS gear up indication displayed after all gear are retracted?
10 seconds
What is the primary control for the airplane steering?
Tillers
When is Body Gear Steering armed?
Speed decreasing through 15kts
What does this indicate?
Either body gear is not centered and thrust lever two or three is advanced for takeoff
What causes the gear to extend when using alternate gear extension?
Gravity and airload forces
Which hydraulic system powers the normal brake system?
System four
What is indicated?
Parking brakes set and throttles 2 or 3 are advanced for takeoff
When is automatic braking activated with the selector in RTO?
Retarding all throttles and wheel speed greater than 85 kts
Can a new autobrake decceleration rate be selected after landing?
Yes
When are the autobrakes available?
With normal brakes only
What effect do the ratio changers have as airspeed increases?
Reduce rudder surface deflection in response to pedal inputs
What is indicated?
Stabilizer trim indicator is inoperative
When does automatic stabilizer trim cutout occur?
When the stabilizer trim cutout switches are in the AUTO position and uncommanded stabilizer trim is detected
What does this EICAS message indicate?
The outboard ailerons may be locked out at low speed or the outboard ailerons may be unlocked at high speed
Which spoiler panels function as ground spoilers?
ALL spoiler panels
What flap power sources are used when the FCUs are in the primary mode?
Bleed air for leading edge and hydraulic for trailing edge
What are the leading edge flap positions with the flap lever in the flaps one detent?
Midspan and inboard groups are extended
What is the maximum extended position the trailing edge flaps will reach using the alternate mode?
25
Where are the autopilot modes displayed?
PFD
How would you engage the left autopilot?
Disengage the autopilot then push the L CMD switch
Where is the Command Speed displayed?
PFDs and IAS/Mach window
During FLCH climb or descent, what is the PDF pitch annunciation?
FLCH SPD
What is the bank angle limit?
15° to 25° depending on TAS, Flap position and V2
This bank angle limit applies to which Mode of operation?
HDG SEL
When does the Go-Around function of the TO/GA mode arm?
At G/S capture or flaps out of up
Which of the following precents TO/GA Mode engagement?
Airplane below 5 ft RA for 2 secs
How do you terminate the TO/GA Mode below 400ft RA?
Push either A/P disengage switch and turn off both FD’s
With TO/GA mode engaged, A/P roll control maintains:
Ground Track
What does this indicate?
Altitude deviation
Which action cancels and resets all the above indications and aural warnings?
B
Which Flight control computer is driving the FO’s FD?
Right
What roll attitude is commanded after takeoff in TO/GA mode?
Takeoff Ground Track
In FLCH, VNAV, or TO/GA the THRUST Switch will:
Change the thrust limit to the selected climb limit
Not change the current autothrottle mode
Which indication confirms the autothrottle is engaged?
PFD flight mode display
The Autothrottle can be operated without the autopilot and/or flight director
True
When does Throttle HOLD activate?
Airspeed increases above 65 KIAS (take off)
Thrust levers are repositioned manually in Flight Level Change
Thrust levers reach idle in Flight Level Change and VNAV
How is this message reset?
Re-engage Autothrottle mode or push an Autothrottle disconnect switch
What is the maximum Thrust the Autothrottle will use to hold speed?
CLB
Which of the following indicates LNAV is engaged?
C
During LNAV operation, what happens if the airplane passes over the last route waypoint?
LNAV maintains last Heading
What is indicated?
FMC is controlling speed
What is the command airspeed?
220 kts
What pitch mode is normally maintained by the autopilot during a VNAV climb?
VNAV SPD
Which PFD display indicates a VNAV descent?
B
(Thrust levers reach idle in Flight Level Change and VNAV activates HOLD mode)
When is the HP Bleed valve open?
When IP Bleed is insufficient to meet Bleed Air requirements
What happens if the left EIU fails?
EICAS control switches automatically to the center EIU
True or False?
Warning messages are displayed in RED at the top of the EICAS message area.
True
What occurs when a Master Warning/Caution reset switch is pushed?
Master Warning Lights extinguish and reset
What action is required to view page two?
Push the cancel switch
What action is required to view page 2?
Push the cancel switch
What EICAS messages, aural alerts, or lights are inhibited during a takeoff, at 80knots?
Beeper and Master Caution Lights
What EICAS messages, aural alerts, or lights are inhibited for 25s after V1 or until reaching 400’ RA?
Only Fire Bell and Master Warning Lights
Which of the following flight control positions are shown on the status display?
Rudder, elevators, airlerons and spoilers
What is indicated by the STATUS cue?
New status message exists
What action is required to display the status messages on page 2?
Push the status switch
A controlling EIU is unreliable if:
Any vertical or digital indicator is not displayed
Will the ground proximity warning system provide a warning of flight towards vertically sheer terrain?
NO!
Which GPWS voice annunciation alerts the crew to an attitde loss after initial takeoff or go-around?
“Don’t sink”
What is inhibited when this switch is pushed?
The GPWS voice annunciation “TOO LOW FLAP”
What inhibits the GPWS voice annunciation GLIDESLOPE?
Pushing the glideslope inhibit switch
With the gear not down and locked and the flaps in a landing position, what action silences the warning siren?
Extending the gear
TFC must be displayed on the EFIS control panel to:
Display TCAS symbols and data on the ND
With TFC selected, a RA provides which of the following?
Voice annunciation and PFD pitch guidance
A display of symbols and data on the ND
What inputs are required by the IRS before they can enter the NAV mode from the ALIGN mode?
Airplane longitude and latitude
Can the IRSs complete alignment during taxi out?
No
Why are the IRS units turned OFF prior to deactivating the AC buses?
To prevent automatic transfer of IRS to battery power and the resultant battery discharge
What color indicates the area of heaviest precipitation?
Red
True or False?
The Weather and Turbulence mode can be used as the sole means of detecting and avoiding turbulence
False
When does VOR/DME and ILS radio control revert to FMS Autotuning?
When detecting a frequency
True or False?
The FMS automatically tunes the ADFs.
False
Which FMS-CDU tunes the ILS radios if both FMC’s fail?
Left, Right and Center
When does the FMC combine the three IRS positions?
At all times, except polar navigation
True or False?
The Left and Right FMC’s are identical.
True
Which FMS CDUs can be used to enter information into the FMCs?
Left and Right only
What page begins the FMS - CDU preflight?
Identification
Which page displays the FMC time?
POS INIT
Which key is pushed to display the KBFI departures page?
DEP/ARR
Which key is pushed to incorporate the runway and departure into the active route?
EXEC
What value will the FMC automatically display after the ZFW is entered?
Gross Weight
True or False?
The preflight is complete when PRE-FLT is displayed at the bottom of the TAKEOFF REF Page
False
Which key is pushed to select and ILS APP to runway 32R?
1 R Key
What is the correct NDB waypoint identifier?
NOLLA
Which of the follwing waypoints is identified with a DME ARC procedure?
SEA/20
WPT10
D252X
D252X
Which one of the following is a latitude/longitude waypoint identifier?
SEA01
N4738.1W12228.6
N47W122
N47W122
What will be displayed in the scratch pad?
Latitude/Longitude
Which page is used to make airway modifications?
ROUTE Page
What is the maximum allowable route offset distance?
99 NM
What action will remove a route offset?
Enter zero on the offset line and execute
Which action is used to intercept the 043 leg to EPH?
Push the intercept course line select key and execute
What is the direction and distance from VAMPS to RUMOR?
Mag Course 085° and 46 NM
What action would bypass QUINT?
Enter EPH over QUINT
When will the airplane cross the Holding Fix?
1607z
Which indiates an altitude restriciton of at or below 17,000 feet?
C
Which indicates a Block Altitude between 12,000 and 17,000 feet?
A
The UNABLE NEXT ALT message indicates?
The climb rate is not great enough
Which stations are beeing inhibited from autotuning for FMC position updating?
ELN and ALL VOR stations
