Mixed Question Review Flashcards

1
Q

Are federal agents exempt from state taxation?

A

Generally, yes.

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2
Q

When is the federal govt. subject to state taxation?

A

When the state is imposing an income tax on the salaries of federal employees.

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3
Q

Which approach does the MBE use for conspiracy and that is the other approach?

A

The MBE uses the common law approach which is the bilateral approach. It requires at least 2 people to have the mens rea for conspiracy. The other approach is the unilateral approach where only one person with the requisite mens rea is needed for conspiracy.

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4
Q

When can cross examination go beyond the scope of direct examination

A

For impeachment purposes.

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5
Q

How can a photograph be authenticated?

A

By one with personal knowledge. That the photo is an accurate representation of what it depicts.

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6
Q

When is deadly force permitted to catch a fleeing criminal?

A

If the criminal committed a felony and deadly force is necessary to prevent their escape.

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7
Q

Is a finding of negligence per se enough for D to be liable for negligence?

A

No, establishment of negligence per se only gives proof of negligence. P would still need to establish causation.

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8
Q

Can the Federal court exercise supplemental jurisdiction over a cross claim?

A

Yes.

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9
Q

How do the states for state discrimination against out-of-state residents differ between the Dormant Commerce Clause and Privileges and Immunities Clause?

A

The first difference is the test under the DCC is that the discrimination must be necessary to achieve and important govt. interest while the P&I test is a substantial justification.

The second difference is that the DCC test requires that there be no reasonable non-discriminatory alternatives while the P&I test requires that there be no less discriminatory alternatives.

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10
Q

What is the general rule concerning the Court’s treatment of a motion to amend?

A

The general rule is that a District Court freely give leave to amend as justice so requires.

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11
Q

What makes a fact material for civil law purposes?

A

A fact is “material” if it is relevant to an element of a claim or defense and its existence is outcome determinative.

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12
Q

Is an exaction considered a taking?

A

Yes.

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13
Q

When are exactions valid?

A

There is an essential nexus between the condition and the property development AND

The adverse impact to the proposed development is roughly proportional to the loss caused to the property owner from the forced transfer.

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14
Q

When a government regulation only prevents a landowner from the most beneficial use of their property, does that constitute a taking?

A

It depends. the Court will need to determine whether the regulation leaves an economically viable use for the property.

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15
Q

How does the Court determine whether a regulation leaves an “economically viable use for the property”?

A

the Court uses a three-factor test. It look at:

(1) It looks the social goals sought to be promoted.
(2) the diminution in value to the owner and
(3) Whether the regulation interferes with distinct, investment-backed expectations.

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16
Q

Under FRCP R. 4(h) how can a corporation be served?

A

Service of process may be made on a corporation by delivering a copy of the summons and complaint to a corporate officer or to a general or managing agent.

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17
Q

When can a defendant initiate a third-party action?

A

If D claims that the nonparty “is or may be liable to D for all or part of the claim against it,”

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18
Q

How is a trust created?

A
  1. A Settlor must manifest an intent to create a trust,
  2. transfer specific property
  3. To a trustee with trust duties
  4. for the benefit of 1 or more beneficiaries and
  5. a valid trust purpose
19
Q

What is cy pres?

A

It is a remedy when a gift to a charity is fails by allowing the gift to go to another charity with a similar purpose.

20
Q

What is a trustee duty of care?

A

Most state have adopted the Uniform Prudent Investor Act which requires a trustee to exercise the care of a prudent investor would.

21
Q

Under the UPIA what must a trustee do?

A

Diversify investments unless there are special circumstances which indicate that the trust purpose would be better served by doing otherwise.

22
Q

What do we mean when we talk about the revocability of a trust?

A

The ability to terminate or amend a trust.

23
Q

What is the presumption under the UTC for revocability?

A

It presumes that trust is revocable unless stated otherwise.

24
Q

What is the presumption under the common law for revocability?

A

It presumes that trust is irrevocable unless stated otherwise.

25
Q

What can a settlor do when they have a revocable trust?

A

A settlor can direct a trustee on what do with the trust assets because the a settlor is treated as the owner of trust assets and the trustee’s duties are owed to him.

26
Q

Is a settlor treated as the owner of trust assets when the trust is irrevocable?

A

No. If a trustee dissipates trust assets at the direction of the settlor when the trust is irrevocable, the trustee will be liable to the beneficiaries for any losses to the trust income.

27
Q

What is a discretionary trust?

A

A discretionary trust is one in which the trustee has sole discretion on when to give the trust income or principal to beneficiary.

28
Q

What rights does a beneficiary have in a discretionary trust?

A

They only have the power to sue the trustee for abuse of power (i.e. bad faith or dishonesty).

29
Q

What is a support trust?

A

Trustee MUST give trust income or principal (whichever S stipulated) to Beneficiary as necessary for support or an ascertainable standard set by S.

30
Q

What are pour over wills?

A

They are gifts devised from a will to a trust.

31
Q

When is a pour-over will valid?

A

There are two approaches

Traditional→ The trust must have been in existence at the time the will was made or the trust instrument was executed with the will.

Modern→ the pour over will is valid if established in the testator’s lifetime.

32
Q

Can a settlor designate a successor trustee?

A

Yes.

33
Q

What is a merger of title in wills?

A

It is when the Settlor is the only beneficiary of his trust. The trust fails unless there is an additional beneficiary.

34
Q

What is a disclaimer and when can a beneficiary disclaim?

A

A disclaimer is when a beneficiary rejects their share of an inheritance or trust. They may disclaim after a reasonable time after learning of the trust or gift by filing a writing within 9 months of decedent’s death.

35
Q

How can a trust be terminated?

A

By the consent of all parties IF doing so will not interfere with the material purpose of the trust

36
Q

Can you terminate a spendthrift trust?

A

No, because that is against it’s material purpose.

37
Q

Can a settlor who is also a beneficiary of their own spendthrift trust be protected by the spendthrift provision.

A

No, the spendthrift provision will not be enforceable against settlor’s creditors.

38
Q

what is a power of appointment?

A

It is a power created by a donor, imbued to a donee with limits set by the donor, so the donee can determine who takes certain property and the manner in which they will take it.

39
Q

What are the different powers of appointment?

A
  1. General appoint→ exercisable by donee, her creditors, or creditors of her estate
  2. Special appointment→ exercisable only in a specified class of people, and does not include the people allowed under a general appointment
  3. Present appointment→ donee can exercise the power during her lifetime
    1. Testamentary appointment→ can only be exercised by donee’s will.
40
Q

What are anti-lapse statutes and when do they usually apply?

A

They are statutes that allows for a gift that fails because of the death of a beneficiary to go to the deceased beneficiary’s issue. For an anti-lapse statute to apply the predeceased beneficiary must be a certain degree of relationship to decedent and have issue.

41
Q

How are child support determinations in one state recognized by another?

A

Under the Full Faith and Credit for Child Support Orders Act. Under the FFCCSOA, a child support order from one state is recognized by another state if (1) the state issuing the child support order had jurisdiction and (2) the parties had notice and an opportunity to be heard.

42
Q

What is UIFSA?

A

It is the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act. It governs the laws of whether a state can modify a child support judgement

43
Q

What is PKPA?

A

It is the Federal Parental Kidnapping Prevention Act.Under this Act a state may not modify custody if 1) one of the parents still resides in the state AND 2) under that state’s law, the state continues to have and does not decline jurisdiction.

44
Q

What is the UCCJEA

A

It is the Uniform Child Custody Jurisdiction Enforcement Act. Under the UCCJEA a state that initiated a Child custody determination keeps exclusive jurisdiction until the Court determines:

  • Neither the parents or child continue to live in the state OR
  • The child no longer has a significant connection with the state AND substantial evidence relating to the child’s care, protect and training and personal relationships is no longer in the state.