Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IDS Recall > Mixed > Flashcards

Mixed Flashcards

1
Q

NNRTI drug of choice among TB pts

A

Efavirenz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Monitoring months for retreatment cases

A

3, 5, 8 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Group A pts for dengue hydration

A

40-50 mL/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hydration for dengue:
Group B without warning signs
Group B with warning signs
Shock

A

w/o warning signs: > 20: 1500 mL + 20 mL/kg > 20
w/ warning signs: 5-7 mL/kg for 1-2 hrs; 3-5 mL/kg for 2-4 hrs, 2-3 mL/kg for succeeding
5-10 mL/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is the most common
manifestation of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis? (HPIM

A

Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mortality benefit group with albumin for PBP?

A

Crea >= 1 mg/dL
TB >= 4 mg/dL
BUN >= 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Organisms presenting as enteric fever with penetration of distal small bowel. Lab findings of fecal mononnuclear cells

A

S. typhi
Yersinia enterocolita *(also presents with fecal pmn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Markers for severe C. diff

A

WBC >= 15
Crea >= 1.5x premorbid value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Proteus indole _ lactose _

A

negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hydration for typhoid fever according to severity

A

Mild: Ad libitum. Goal is to 2L/day
Moderate: 2200-4000 mL/day
Severe: 100 mL/kg in 1st 3hrs then 200 mL/kg over 24 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pathognemonic finding of miliary TB

A

Choroidal tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

HRZE drug causing thrombocytopenia

A

Rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

DOC MAC infections

A

Macrolide, Rifampicin, Ethambutol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Definitive diagnosis of Amebic colitis requires demonstration of what?

A

Amebic trophozites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mc isolate among splenic abscess

A

Streptococcus

2nd- Staphlococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most valuable lab tests for low grade fever with suspected occult disease

A

CRP and ESR

CRP induces IL-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Test with highest diagnostic yield for miliary tb?

A

Liver biopsy for AFB
PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

At what PaO2 level is it recommended not to have any supplemental oxygen?

A

PaO2 >= 72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Diagnostic order in pts with meningitis

A

Blood CS –> Abx –> Imaging –> Tap

“BAIT”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Duration of tx for osteomyelitis if bone uncompletely removed by surgery?

A

4-6 weeks

  • 3 months - dead bone cannot be removed
21
Q

ADR of Linezolid

A

Thrombocytopenia
Optic neuritis
Peripheral neuropathy

22
Q

Essentially diagnostic of anaerobic bacteria

A

Putrid-foul smelling discharge

23
Q

Parasitic infection that cause IDA

A

Necator/Ancyclostoma (hookworm)

Trichuris (Whipworm) - anemia in severe infection

24
Q

Agents with macrofilaricidal activity

A

DAD

DEC
Albendazole
Doxycycline

25
Q

For typhoid oral live vaccine, how many doses for primary and booster series and every when is the booster?

A

4 doses every 5 years

26
Q

Most severe complication of hepatosplenic schistosomiasis

A

Hematemesis

27
Q

Species involved in intestinal and hepatosplenic schistosomiasis?

A

INTESTINAL SCHISTOSOMIASIS (S. Mansoni, S. Japonicum, S. Mekongi)

HEPATOSPLENIC SCHISTOSOMIASIS (S. Mansoni, S. Japonicum)

27
Q

Species involved in intestinal and hepatosplenic schistosomiasis?

A

INTESTINAL SCHISTOSOMIASIS (S. Mansoni, S. Japonicum, S. Mekongi)

HEPATOSPLENIC SCHISTOSOMIASIS (S. Mansoni, S. Japonicum)

28
Q

Alternative abx for penicillin allergic pt for human occlusional and clenched fist wounds?

A

occlusional - Erythromycin/ Fluoroquinolone
Clenched - Cefoxitin (Eikenella)

29
Q

Best indicator of immunologic competence for HIV

A

CD4 count

30
Q

Best indicator of disease progression

A

HIV RNA

31
Q

Ancillary test most associated with all-cause mortality among HIV infected patients

A

D-dimer

IL-6
hsCRP

32
Q

Blunted febrile response of the following populations

A

Newborn
Elderly
Chronic renal
Chronic liver disease
Patients taking steroids or anti-cytokines

33
Q

MC symptom in Typhoid fever

A

PROLONGED FEVER (38.8-40.5 degC)

34
Q

Most specific source of culture for typhoid despite 5 days of antibiotic therapy?

A

Bone marrow

35
Q

Source of culture of typhoid that can be positive during THIRD week if no treatment given

A

Stool

36
Q

Empirical treatment for typhoid

A

Ceftriaxone 2g IV OD x 10-14 days
Azithromycin 1g OD x 5 days

37
Q

MDR Tx for typhoid

A

Ceftriaxone 2g IV OD x 10-14 days
Azithromycin 1g OD x 5 days

38
Q

Optimal treatment for fully susceptible typhoid

A

Ciprofloxacin 500 mg BID x 5 days ; 400 mg IV q12
Azithromycin 1g OD x 5 days

39
Q

Tx of choice of typhoid fever among pregnant patients

A

Ampicillin 1-2 g IV q6
Ceftriaxone 1-2 g IV q24

40
Q

Definition of chronic carrier of Salmonella

A

After 1 year, positive stool culture or rectal swab

41
Q

Indication for typhoid vaccination

A

Vi capsular polysaccharide vaccine (Age 2 and above)
- 1 dose of primary
-1 dose of booster (2 yrs interval)

Oral live attentuated (Age 6 and above)
- 4 doses primary (0,2,4,6)
-4 booster (every 5 yrs interval)

42
Q

Live vaccines are given through what route of administration

A

SC

43
Q

Vaccines that CI with latex allergy

A

Hep A
Hep B
TdAP (severe)
Meningococcemia

44
Q

Vaccine CI to those with egg allergy

A

Hep B

45
Q

Vaccine with TTP as precaution

A

MMR

46
Q

Secondary prevention of PBP

A

Norfloxacin 400 mg/d
Ciprofloxacin 500 mg/weekly
TMP SMX 1 DS tab

47
Q

Duration of sBP Treatment

A

As short as 5 days
Until 14 days of bacteremic

IDS Recall (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions