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CVS Recall > Mixed > Flashcards

Mixed Flashcards

1
Q

A waves signify

A

AV dissociation
Closed TV

Large A waves are associated with reduced right ventricular compliance or elevated right ventricular end-diastolic pressure.

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2
Q

Until what eGFR can DOACS be used?

A

15

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3
Q

Indications for pacemaker insertion

A

40-30
2-3-35
5

40 days post MI, with EF 30 or below
EF 35% with symptomatic HF II-III
Post Mi > 5 days with rEF, NSVT, sudden arrest, inducible VF/VT on EPS

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4
Q

Poor prognosis of ADHF

A
  1. BUN >43 mg/dL
  2. SBP <115
  3. Crea >2.75 mg/dL
  4. Elevated Trop I
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5
Q

Murmur that is probably produced by the diastolic displacement of the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve by the AR stream?

A

Austin Flint

Gallavardin - AS” murmur that sounds holosystolic and may mimic the murmur of mitral regurgitation.

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6
Q

Subset of population which should benefit with warfarin post MI for at least 3 months?

A

Anterior wall
HF
PE
Severe LV dysfunction
AF
Mural thrombus

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7
Q

Features that distinguish ASD from MS

A

Absent LAE
Absent Kerley B lines
Fixed splitting S2
Grade II-III mid systolic murmur

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7
Q

Features that distinguish ASD from MS

A

Absent LAE
Absent Kerley B lines
Fixed splitting S2
Grade II-III mid systolic murmur

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8
Q

What drug should be avoided in Prinzmetal angina?

A

Aspirin

Tx of choice: Beta blockade and nitrates
Statin - reduce cardiac events

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9
Q

HR and BP targets for aortic dissection

A

HR < 60
BP < 120

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10
Q

DOC for aortic dissection

A

Beta blockade
DHP CCB

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11
Q

Contraindicated drug in aortic dissection due to increasing hydraulic shear stress

A

Hydralazine

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12
Q

Palmar crease xanthomas expected in what disease entity?

A

Type III hyperlipoproteinemia

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12
Q

Palmar crease xanthomas expected in what disease entity?

A

Type III hyperlipoproteinemia

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13
Q

Underlying conditions associated with increased risk of CVS morbidity and mortality

A
  1. CAD
  2. HHD
  3. Aortic Valve Disease
  4. CM
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14
Q

ECG findings in Prinzmetal Angina

A

Transient ST-segment elevations without development of Q waves

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15
Q

Protoypical ECG finding in hypothermia?

A

Osborn wave

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16
Q

ECG finding in Intracranial Bleed/ICH/SAH

A

Deep, wide T-wave inversions + marked QT prolongation

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17
Q

Drugs that prolong the QT interval

A
  1. Class 1A anti-arrhythmics = quinidine, disopyramide, procainamide, TCAs, phenothiazines
  2. Class III anti-arrhythmics = amiodarone, dofetilide, sotalol, ibutilide (SAD)
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17
Q

Drugs that prolong the QT interval

A
  1. Class 1A anti-arrhythmics = quinidine, disopyramide, procainamide, TCAs, phenothiazines
  2. Class III anti-arrhythmics = amiodarone, dofetilide, sotalol, ibutilide (SAD)
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18
Q

Class of anti-arrhythmic drugs that can cause ST elevation

A

Class 1C

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18
Q

Class of anti-arrhythmic drugs that can cause ST elevation

A

Class 1C

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19
Q

Global ventricular dilatation is seen in cardiomyopathy and dilatation due to:

A

VHD
Nonischemic, idiopathic CM

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20
Q

Primary therapeutic intervention in patients with symptomatic SA node dysfunction

A

Pacemaker implantation

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21
Q

Class of anti arrhythmics that promote SA node block

A

Class I and III

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22
Q

What drug lowers energy requirement for atrial defibrillation?

A

Ibutilide

WOF: TdP

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23
Q

Acute rate control and chronic for AF

A

<= 100 bpm
< 80

24
Q

Class I antiarrhythmics with also potassium channel blocking effects that prolong QT interval

A

QDP

Quinidine, Disopyramide, Procainamide

25
Q

Drug shown to have a modest effect on reducing ICD shocks due to ventricular and atrial arrhythmia

A

Sotalol

26
Q

Common etiology of HFpEF and HFref

A

Hypertension
Infiltrative diseases

27
Q

Most common infective cause of CM

A

Chagas Disease

28
Q

Most common toxin implicated in chronic dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Alcohol

29
Q

FFR value wherein invasive diagnostics recommended

A

FFR < 0.80

30
Q

Main meds for Prinzmetal angina?

A

CCB and nitrates

31
Q

FMC device time for PCI capable and non PCI capable

A

<= 90
<=120

32
Q

Cut off time for fibrinolysis

A

30 mins

32
Q

Cut off time for fibrinolysis

A

30 mins

33
Q

Diagnosis of HTN based 24 ambulatory BP monitoring

A
  • AWAKE BP ≥135/85 mmHg
  • ASLEEP BP ≥120/75 mmHg
34
Q

MC pathology of:
-ascending aneurysm
-descending aneurysm

A

-Medial degeneration
Atherosclerosis

35
Q

Pe finding indicative of LV dysfunction

A

Pulsus alterans

36
Q

Classification schemes of Aortic dissection

A
  • DeBakey
    • Type I
      • Ascending aorta + the descending aorta
    • Type II
      • Limited to ascending aorta only
    • Type III
      • Limited to the descending aorta only
  • Stanford
    • Type A
      • Involves the ascending aorta (proximal dissection)
    • Type B
      • Limited to the arch and/or descending aorta (distal dissection)
37
Q

ECG finding in acute and chronic cor pulmonale

A

Acute: Sinus tachycardia is most common arrhythmia
Chronic: Small R waves in right-to-midprecordial leads (poor R-wave progression)

38
Q

Imaging for evaluation of myocardial viability in patients with ischemic cardiomyopathy

A

MPI is combined with metabolic imaging (FDG-PET)

39
Q

Most commonly used imaging agents because they are associated with the best image quality and the lowest radiation dose to the patient

A

Technetium-99m labeled tracers

40
Q

Clinical diagnosis of cardiotoxicity for chemo pts

A

LVEF < 50%
+

Symptomatic: > 5% decrease in LVEF
Asymptomatic: > 10% decrease in LVEF

41
Q

What is the predominant arrhythmia mechanism in TdP?

A

early and delayed afterdepolarizations

42
Q

Idiopathic progressive fibrosis of the conduction system typically begins in WHAT DECADE and may be accelerated by atherosclerosis.

A

4th

43
Q

Definition of postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome

A

Sinus rate increases by 30 beats/minute or to >120 beats/minute within 10 minutes of standing, and in the absence of hypotension

**- Sometimes due to autonomic dysfunction following a viral illness; resolves spontaneously over 3-12 months
- Volume expansion with salt supplementation, oral fludrocortisone, compression stockings, and the alpha-agonist midrodine

44
Q

ECG finding of AT in

Atrial septum
L atrium
Superior atrial
Inferior Atrial

A
  • AT from ATRIAL SEPTUM → narrow P wave duration
  • AT from LEFT ATRIUM → monophasic, positive P wave in V1 and negative P waves in I and aVL
  • AT that originates from SUPERIOR ATRIAL LOCATIONS (e.g. SVC, superior pulmonary veins) → positive in II, III, and aVF
  • AT from INFERIOR ATRIAL LOCATIONS (e.g. ostium of the coronary sinus) → inscribe negative P waves in the same leads
45
Q

the most common form of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia?

A

a. atrioventricular nodal reentry tachycardia

46
Q

Drug contraindicated for pre-excited atrial fibrillation

A

AV nodal blockade

Verapamil, diltiazem, beta-blockers, IV adenosine, and IV amiodarone

47
Q

Preferred biomarker to measure in patients with heart failure taking angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitor

A

N-terminal pro-BNP

48
Q

Benefit group of CRT

A

Mildly symptomatic HFrEF patients with QRS of >149 ms and an LBBB pattern

49
Q

What is the most common infective cause of cardiomyopathy?

A

c. Chagas’ disease

50
Q

What differentiates chronic from acute aortic regurgitation?

A

equilibriation between aortic and LV pressures toward end of diastole

51
Q

Which of the following may be given for patients with Marfan syndrome to retard the rate of aortic root enlargement?

A

losartan

52
Q

What is the pathophysiology of hemoptysis in severe mitral stenosis?

A

Pulmonary venous hypertension

53
Q

Class I indications for aortic valve replacement

A

Severe Symptomatic
Severe Asymptomatic
-LVEF <50%
-Other cardiac surgery

54
Q

The papillary muscle is involved much more frequently because of its singular blood supply

A

Posteromedial

55
Q

What is the most common abnormality leading to primary mitral regurgitation?

A

MVP- Barlow

56
Q

Indications for MV repair for MVP

A

Symptomatic
Progressive LV failure
PAH
Recent onset AF

57
Q

Which antihypertensive medication is useful for patients with autonomic neuropathy who have wide variations in blood pressure due to baroreceptor denervation?

A

Clonidine

58
Q

Anti hypertensive for gout

A

Losartan

59
Q

the most common cause of large-vessel renal artery occlusive disease?

A

atherosclerotic disease

60
Q

What is the first line inotropic agent for treatment of pulmonary embolism related shock?

A

dobutamine

61
Q

Which anti arrhythmic drug have class 1 2 3 and 4 properties?properties?

A

Dronedarone

62
Q

Post MI which should be basis of discontinuation of stress test

A

Heart rate limited

CVS Recall (2 decks)

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