Mistakes Flashcards

1
Q

bronchiectasis can be caused by what disease

A

lung cancer due to small airway obstruction causing abnormal dilatation of airways

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2
Q

reserve volume

A

can be forcibly exhaled

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3
Q

residual volume

A

cannot be exhaled

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4
Q

alveolar ventilation calculated by

A

TV-DS x RR

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5
Q

Normal PaCo2

A

4.8-6.0kPa (40mmHg)

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6
Q

Normal PaO2

A

20.5-13.5kPa (100mmHg)

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7
Q

Tidal volume goes mostly to which part of lungs and why

A

base because compliance is greatest there

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8
Q

peripheral eosinophilia is indicative of what

A

atopy

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9
Q

secondary bacterial infection after flu is due to

A

damage to mucociliary escalator

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10
Q

alveolar hyperventilation causes

A

type 2 resp failure as not enough CO2 is being diffused out

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11
Q

treatment of bronchiolitis

A

no medical treatment only management eg oxygen or fluid

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12
Q

which is most common cause of community acquired pneumonia

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

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13
Q

what organism is a cause of LRTIs in COPD

A

moraxella catarrhalis

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14
Q

pulmonary hypertension is usually caused by

A

underlying heart or lung disease. rarely idiopathic

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15
Q

alkalosis causes haemoglobin to

A

hold onto O2 more

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16
Q

acidosis causes haemoglobin to

A

release O2 more (lowers affinity)

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17
Q

atypical organisms can be treated with what for pneumonia

A

macrolide eg clarithromycin, doxycycline, levofloxacin, cotrimoxazole

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18
Q

lung compliance is (not just stretchability)

A

change in lung volume for any given change in transpulmonary pressure

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19
Q

what chemical is produced by red blood cells under stress eg during hypoxic conditions

A

2.3DPG. causes more oxygen release

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20
Q

carboxyhaemoglobin is

A

carbon monoxide binding to haemoglobin and displaces oxygen

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21
Q

volume of blood in pulmonary circulation compared to systemic circulation is

A

the same

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22
Q

normally intrapleural pressure is _____ atmospheric pressure

A

less than

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23
Q

what percentage of oxygen carried by haemoglobin is used by tissues at rest

A

25

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24
Q

which has a higher %sat of oxygen for any PO2- foetal or adult haemoglobin

A

foetal

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25
Q

radical cancer treatment is

A

treatment intent to cure

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26
Q

nitrous oxide is not a good treatment for COPD why

A

blunts the peripheral chemoreceptors response to falling oxygen

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27
Q

shunt is

A

when perfusion exceeds ventilation in L/min

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28
Q

decrease in PCO2 shifts curve to

A

left

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29
Q

increase in PCO2 shifts curve to

A

right

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30
Q

spirometry pattern for obstructive

A

FEV1/FVC decreased as only FEV1 decreases

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31
Q

spirometry pattern for restrictive

A

FEV1/FVC increases or normal as FEV1 and FVC decreases

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32
Q

exhaustion and decreased ventilation leads to

A

hypercapnia, hypoxia, acidosis

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33
Q

surfactant production is when

A

25-36 weeks of gestation. 36 is sufficient

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34
Q

pleural exudate is confirmed if

A

pleural protein: serum protein ratio >0.5, between 25-35g/L, pleural LDH>0.66 of upper limit of serum LDH

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35
Q

what are used as conduits for CABG

A

internal thoracic artery and great saphenous vein. internal mammary and radial can too

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36
Q

ECG change for heart block

A

increased PR interval

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37
Q

stroke volume at rest

A

75ml per beat

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38
Q

cardiac output of adult

A

3-5L/min

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39
Q

low protein levels in serum will cause a

A

low capillary oncotic pressure so poor fluid retention and reabsorption

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40
Q

what can happen if overly rapid correction of BP in hypertensive emergencies

A

precipitate ischaemic events so aim to lower BP by 10-20% within 1 hour then 160/100 over next 6 hours

41
Q

troponin levels rise in

A

any disease that places stress on heart not just ACS

42
Q

QT interval is

A

time between ventricular depolarisation and ventricular repolarisation so length of ventricular action potential so same length of the contraction evoked and therefore the duration of systole

43
Q

capillaries have or do not have smooth muscle

A

do not

44
Q

amiodarone

A

class III antiarrhythmic that blocks potassium channels that allow repolarisation of heart

45
Q

when are roth spots seen

A

IE

46
Q

alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

A

A1AT deficiency is a co-dominant genetic disorder, that presents with dyspnoea and a chronic cough. The lack of A1AT enables neutrophil elastase to break down elastin in the lungs causing emphysema which especially affects the lower lobes.

47
Q

organism most commonly implicated in bronchiolitis

A

respiratory syncytial virus

48
Q

organism most commonly implicated in croup

A

parainfluenza virus 1

49
Q

organism most commonly implicated in epiglottitus

A

Haemophilus Influenzae Type B

50
Q

right to left shunts are

A

truncus arteriosus, transposition of great vessels, tricuspid atresia, teratology of fallot, total anomalous pulmonary venous return

51
Q

left to right shunts

A

ASD, PDA, VSD

52
Q

what does low HCO3 indicate

A

metabolic acidosis

53
Q

myasthenia gravis is

A

chronic autoimmune condition characterised by muscle fatiguability, will show a restrictive picture on spirometry, slurred speech,

54
Q

pirfenidone is used for what

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

55
Q

rusty brown sputum is associated with what

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

56
Q

pfizer and moderna use what kind of method

A

mRNA

57
Q

astrazeneca uses what method

A

attenuated SARS-COV2 virus

58
Q

arterioles are

A

resistance vessels

59
Q

veins are

A

capacitance vessels

60
Q

arterioles are controlled by

A

sympathetic nerves

61
Q

colliquative necrosis is

A

breakdown of tissue to liquid (occurs in brain after infarction)

62
Q

coagulative necrosis is

A

architectures of dead tissue are preserved for a few days post infarction

63
Q

key cells in resp system’s innate immune system

A

macrophages

64
Q

baroreceptors do what

A

sense pressure changes by responding to change in the tension of the arterial wall. The baroreflex mechanism causes increase in sympathetic outflow when their is a decrease in baroreceptors firing

65
Q

test for TB (not diagnostic)

A

alcohol acid fast bacilli

66
Q

dresslers syndrome is

A

inflammation of the pericardium due to immune response following damage to the heart tissue or pericardium

67
Q

malignancy is an important differential for

A

pericarditis

68
Q

heart failure on an ECG acronym

A
ABCDE
alveolar oedema
Kerley B lines
Cardiomegaly
Dilated upper lobe vessels
pleural effusion
69
Q

treatment for NSTEMI or unstable angina

A
BATMAN
beta blockers
aspirin
ticagrelor or clopidogrel
morphine
ace inhibitors
nitrates
70
Q

treatment for STEMI

A
MONABASH C
morphine
oxygen
nitrates
aspirin
beta blockers
ace inhibitors
statins
heparin
calcium channel blockers
71
Q

treatment for chronic HF

A
ABAL
ace inhibitor
beta blocker
ARB
loop diuretic
NO BETA BLOCKERS FOR ACUTE HF UNLESS STABLE
72
Q

treatment for acute left ventricular failure

A
Pour SOD
pour out fluids
sit up
oxygen
diuretics (thiazide)
73
Q

treatment for acute COPD in hospital

A
ISOAP
ipratropium
salbutamol
oxygen
amoxicillin
prednisolone
74
Q

you do not have to treat what illnesses

A

acute bronchitis, bronchiolitis, influenza, pneumothorax sometimes, acute sarcoidosis sometimes

75
Q

aortic stenosis sign

A

slow rising pulse and ejection systolic

76
Q

aortic regurgitation signs

A

collapsing pulse and early diastolic murmur

77
Q

CHADS VASC score is

A
congestive HF
Hypertension
Age over 65
Diabetes
Stroke / TIA/ thromboembolism
Vascular heart disease
Sex (female)
78
Q

action potential is ___ in skeletal muscle and _____ in cardiac muscle

A

long, short

79
Q

how is a rise in blood pressure compensated for

A

releasing acetylcholine from the vagus nerve acting on muscarinic receptors and also venodilation and block of sympathetic

80
Q

arterioles structure

A

relatively narrow lumen and strong muscular wall

81
Q

pousielles law says

A

radius of vessel has effect on resistance

82
Q

resting membrane potential is due to

A

leaky K channels which allow K to flow out down their conc grad

83
Q

the depolarisation phase is due to

A

opening of voltage gated sodium channels causing a rapid influx of sodium ions into the cell

84
Q

the plateau phase is due to

A

opening of L type voltage gated calcium channels and closure of some leaky K channels

85
Q

repolarisation phase is due to

A

closing of the L type voltage gated calcium channels

86
Q

how to find HR from ECG

A

number of large squares between R waves divided by 300

87
Q

what controls afterload

A

noradrenaline and adrenaline acting on alpha 1 receptors of smooth muscle surrounding arterioles. it is the TPR

88
Q

stable angina treatment

A

GTN, 4 As atenolol, aspirin, atorvastatin, ACEi

89
Q

stage 2 hypertension

A

160/100

90
Q

stage 3 hypertension

A

180/120

91
Q

treatment of DVT

A

low molecular weight heparin, DOACs, provoked DVT with reversible factors only on for 3 months but if irreversible or unprovoked then 3-6 months or life long depending. thrombolysis if severe but need to be loaded with warfarin if so

92
Q

down syndrome causes mainly

A

atrioventricular septal and other heart septal defects

93
Q

noonan syndrome is associated

A

pulmonary stenosis and septal defects

94
Q

shprintzen syndrome and DiGeorge syndrome is associated with

A

tetralogy of fallot

95
Q

williams syndrome is associated with

A

supravalvular aortic stenosis

96
Q

Turner syndrome is associated with

A

coarctation of aorta

97
Q

arterial thromboembolism signs

A

sudden and very severe pain, not exertional

98
Q

what causes hepatomegaly

A

cor pulmonale and tricuspid regurgitation