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FAA Generals/Airframe Oral Exam > Missed Written Q's > Flashcards

Missed Written Q's Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of a current limiter? (AM.I.A.K19)

A

A current limiter is a type of heavy-duty fuse, commonly with ratings of 30 amps or greater. They are often used to protect a section of an electrical system, such as a single electrical bus.

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2
Q

What is a fuselage station number? (AM.I.B.K4)

A

The distance in inches from the datum, measured along the longitudinal axis of the fuselage.

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3
Q

How is the welding flux removed from a piece of aluminum that has been gas-welded? (AM.I.E.K12)

A

It should be removed by scrubbing it with hot water and a bristle brush.

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4
Q

What are the characteristics of a good weld? (AM.I.E.K12)

A

A good weld is uniform in width; the ripples are even and well feathered into the base metal and show no burn due to overheating. The weld has good penetration and is free of gas pockets, porosity, or inclusions.

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5
Q

When starting an aircraft engine equipped with a float carburetor, in what position should the carburetor heat control be placed? (AM.I.F.K5)

A

In the cold position.

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6
Q

What is meant by a liquid lock in the cylinder of an aircraft engine, and how is it cleared? (AM.I.F.K5)

A

Oil accumulates in the cylinders below the center line of the engine and prevents the piston from moving to the top of its stroke. To clear a liquid lock, remove one of the spark plugs and turn the engine crankshaft until all of the oil is forced out of the cylinder.

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7
Q

What is the procedure if a hung start occurs when starting a turbojet engine? (AM.I.F.K5)

A

Terminate the starting operation and find the reason the engine would not accelerate as it should.

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8
Q

How far ahead of an idling turbojet engine does the danger area extend? (AM.I.F.K5)

A

25 ft.

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9
Q

What are the control tower light signals that may be used when taxiing or towing an aircraft, and what are their meanings? (AM.I.F.K5)

A

A. Flashing green - Cleared to taxi.
B. Steady red - Stop.
C. Flashing red - Taxi clear of runway in use.
D. Flashing white - Return to starting point.
E. Alternating red and green - Exercise extreme caution.

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10
Q

What is meant by detonation in an aircraft reciprocating engine? (AM.I.F.K5)

A

Detonation is an uncontrolled burning of the fuel in the cylinder of an engine. It is an explosion, rather than a smooth burning.

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11
Q

Why is it important that turbine fuel not be mixed with aviation gasoline used in an aircraft reciprocating engine? (AM.I.F.K11)

A

The turbine engine fuel will cause the engine to detonate severely.

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12
Q

What is the danger of using fuel that vaporizes too readily? (AM.I.F.K11)

A

Vapor lock can occur in the fuel lines. This will shut off the flow of fuel to the engine.

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13
Q

What causes fisheyes in the finish? (AM.I.G.K19)

A

Localized surface contamination.

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14
Q

What causes corrosion? (AM.I.G.K2)

A

Corrosion is a natural phenomenon that attacks metal by chemical or electrochemical action and converts it into a metallic compound, such as an oxide, hydroxide, or sulfate. Corrosion occurs because of the tendency for metals to return to their natural state. Noble metals like gold and platinum do not corrode since they are chemically uncombined in their natural state. Conditions that can cause corrosion to develop or worsen are moisture (acts as an electrolyte, oxygen (acts as a catalyst), chemicals (initiate or catalyze the electromechanical process), and temperature (accelerates the process).

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15
Q

What is meant by a ratio and how is a ratio expressed? (AM.I.H.K4)

A

A fraction that compares one number to another; for example, 6:2 is a ratio.

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16
Q

Who is authorized to perform a 100-hour inspection on an aircraft? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

A certificated Aviation Mechanic who holds an Airframe and Powerplant rating.

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17
Q

Who is authorized to perform an annual inspection on an aircraft? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

A certificated A&P mechanic who holds an Inspection Authorization (IA)

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18
Q

Can a certificated A&P mechanic supervise an unlicensed person as the unlicensed person performs a 100-hour inspection on an aircraft? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

No, a certificated mechanic must personally perform the inspection.

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19
Q

Who is authorized to rebuild an aircraft engine and issue a zero time maintenance record? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

Only the manufacturer of the engine or a facility approved by the manufacturer.

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20
Q

Which FAR specifies required maintenance records? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

14 CFR 91.417 specifies you must keep records of maintenance, preventative maintenance, major repairs and alterations, and 100-hour, annual, and progressive inspections.

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21
Q

Are instruction included in the Federal Regulations mandatory or optional? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

They are mandatory.

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22
Q

Who is authorized to approve an aircraft for return to service after a major repair? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

An aircraft mechanic holding an Inspection Authorization.

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23
Q

Who is authorized to perform preventative maintenance on an aircraft that is not flown under Part 121, 127, 129, 135? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

The holder of a pilot certificate that flies that particular aircraft.

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24
Q

Who is authorized to approve an aircraft for return to service after a minor alteration has been performed on the airframe? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

A certificated Aviation Mechanic holding an Airframe rating.

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25
Q

What is the minimum age for an Aviation Mechanic certificate? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

18 years.

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26
Q

What are the two ratings that can be issued to an Aviation Mechanic certificate? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

Airframe and Powerplant.

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27
Q

How many months of practical experience is needed to qualify for the Aviation Mechanic certificate with both Airframe and Powerplant ratings? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

30 months.

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28
Q

What can be used in place of the 30 months of experience to qualify to take the mechanic tests. (AM.I.I.K1)

A

A certificate of completion from a certificated aviation maintenance technician technician school.

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29
Q

What type of experience is required to take the tests for Aviation Mechanic certification? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

Practical experience with the procedures, practices, materials, tools, machine tools, and equipment generally used in constructing, maintaining, or altering airframes, or powerplants appropriate to the rating sought.

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30
Q

What tests are used to demonstrate that a mechanic applicant has the proper knowledge? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

The written knowledge tests.

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31
Q

What tests are used to demonstrate that a mechanic applicant meets the minimum skill requirements? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

The oral and practical tests.

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32
Q

What certificate and rating are required for a mechanic to conduct a 100-hour inspection and approve the aircraft for return to service? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

An Aviation Mechanic certificate with both Airframe and Powerplant ratings.

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33
Q

What certificate and ratings are required for a mechanic to conduct an annual inspection and approve the aircraft for return to service? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

An Aviation Mechanic certificate with an Inspection Authorization.

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34
Q

When, after making a permanent change of address, is the holder of an Aviation Mechanic certificate required to notify the FAA? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

Within 30 days.

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35
Q

Is a certificated Aviation Mechanic with Airframe and Powerplant ratings authorized to perform 100-hour and annual inspections? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

No. Only 100-hour inspections. Inspection Authorization is required to perform an annual inspection.

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36
Q

A certificated Aviation Mechanic may not supervise the maintenance, preventative maintenance, or alteration of, or approve and return to service, any aircraft or appliance, or part thereof, for which the mechanic is rated unless he or she has met what stipulation? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

The mechanic must have satisfactorily performed the work concerned at an earlier date.

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37
Q

Is it permissible for a mechanic with an Airframe and Powerplant rating to replace the tachometer cable for a magnetic drag tachometer? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

Yes, this does not constitute a repair to an instrument.

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38
Q

Is a certificated Aviation Mechanic with an Airframe and Powerplant rating allowed to zero the pointers on a fuel pressure gauge? (AM.I.I.K1)

A

No, a mechanic is not allowed to make any repairs or alterations to an aircraft instrument.

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39
Q

Who issues a service bulletin and what is its purpose? (AM.I.I.K11)

A

It is issued by the manufacturer and used to outline procedures to make the product more efficient and/or safer.

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40
Q

May the data in an aircraft maintenance manual be used as approved data for an aircraft repair? (AM.I.I.K11)

A

No. An aircraft maintenance manual contains repair data acceptable to the FAA for minor repairs only. If approved data is needed for a major repair, consult the aircraft manufacturer’s FAA-approved Structural Repair Manual, an FAA DER (Designated Engineering Representative), or in some cases, AC43.13-1.

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41
Q

Where would you find the dimensional tolerances for the wrist pin fit in an aircraft engine? (AM.I.I.K11)

A

In the overhaul manual for that engine.

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42
Q

What document would you use to find an approved repair for a damaged wing spar? (AM.I.I.K11)

A

The structural repair manual for the aircraft.

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43
Q

What document would you use to find the part number for a landing light bulb for an airplane? (AM.I.I.K11)

A

The illustrated parts catalog.

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44
Q

What document would you use to troubleshoot a malfunctioning electrical flap system? (AM.I.I.K11)

A

The aircraft wiring diagram manual.

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45
Q

Where would you find the empty weight of an airplane? (AM.I.I.K11)

A

In the aircraft weight and balance records.

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46
Q

What is the purpose of a minimum equipment list (MEL)? (AM.I.I.K11)

A

An MEL permits operations with certain inoperative items of equipment for the minimum period of time necessary until repair or replacement can be accomplished.

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47
Q

What is a master minimum equipment list (MMEL)? (AM.I.I.K11)

A

A document approved by the FAA that lists the minimum operative instruments and equipment required for safe flight in that aircraft type in each authorized operating environment.

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48
Q

What is done with the aircraft maintenance records that include the current status of the applicable Airworthiness Directives when the aircraft is sold? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

These maintenance records must be transferred with the aircraft when it is sold.

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49
Q

What is a Type Certificate Data Sheet? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

The TCDS is a formal description of the aircraft, engine, or propeller. It lists limitations and information required for type certification including airspeed limits, weight limits, thrust limitations, and so forth.

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50
Q

What are Aircraft Specifications? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

Documents that include basically the same information as the TCDS but are issues for aircraft, engines, and propellers certificated under the Air Commerce Regulations.

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51
Q

What document specifies the type of fuel that should be used in an airplane? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

The TCDS for that airplane.

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52
Q

What document would you use to find the control surface movement for a specified airplane? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

The TCDS for that airplane.

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53
Q

Why is it necessary to refer to the TCDS for an airplane when conducting a 100-hour inspection? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

The TCDS includes the specifications required for the aircraft to maintain its airworthy status.

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54
Q

What FAA publication describes methods of nondestructive testing? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

AC43-3, Nondestructive Testing in Aircraft.

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55
Q

What is the purpose of an AD? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

It provides guidance and information to owners and operators of aircraft informing them of the discovery of a condition that prevents the aircraft from continuing to meet its conditions for airworthiness.

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56
Q

What is the first step in the issuance of an AD? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

A notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) is published in the Federal Register.

57
Q

How is information on an AD disseminated? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

It is printed and distributed by first class mail to the registered owners and certain known operators of the product(s) affected.

58
Q

What type of AD may be adopted without an NRPM? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

ADs of an urgent nature are issued as immediately adopted rules without prior notice.

59
Q

How is information on an emergency AD sent to the owner or operator of an affected aircraft or other product? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

By first-class main, telegram, or other electronic method.

60
Q

Where can you find a list of all of the ADs that apply to aircraft, engines, propellers, or appliances? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

On the FAA’s website under the Dynamic Regulatory System (DRS)

61
Q

How can you get information on subscribing to the Airworthiness Directives? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

Contact FAA, Manufacturing Standards Section (AFS-613), PO Box 26460, Oklahoma City, OK 73125-0460.

62
Q

What is the significance of the identification number 91-08-07 R1? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

91 - This AD was issued in 1991.
08 - This AD was issued in the eighth biweekly period (15th or 16th week) of 1991.
07 - This is the seventh AD issued during this period.
R1 - This is the first revision of this AD.

63
Q

Is it mandatory that the information in an AC be complied with? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

No, this information is advisory in nature.

64
Q

With which part of 14 CFR is AC 43.13-1B associated? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

14 CFR Part 43.

65
Q

May all of the information in AC 43.13-1B be used as approved data? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

No, it is acceptable, but not necessarily approved data.

66
Q

What is the purpose of General Aviation Airworthiness Alerts? (AM.I.I.K9)

A

They contain information gleaned from Malfunction and Defect Reports to warn maintenance personnel of problems that have been reported.

67
Q

For maximum strength of a formed sheet metal fitting, should the bend be made along or across he grain of the metal? (AM.II.A.K4)

A

Across the grain.

68
Q

What determines the minimum bend radius that can be used when forming a sheet metal structural fitting? (AM.II.A.K4)

A

The alloy, the metal thickness, and its hardness.

69
Q

What is meant by the neutral axis in a sheet of metal? (AM.II.A.K4)

A

A plane within the metal that neither stretches nor shrinks when the metal is being bent.

70
Q

What is a mold line in the development of a flat pattern for a formed metal part? (AM.II.A.K4)

A

An extension of the flat sides beyond the radius.

71
Q

What is the bend tangent line? (AM.II.A.K4)

A

A line in a flat pattern layout at which the bend starts.

72
Q

What is meant by the setback? (AM.II.A.K4)

A

The distance the jaws of a brake must be set back from the mold line to form a bend.

73
Q

What is meant by bend allowance? (AM.II.A.K4)

A

The actual amount of metal in a bend. It is the distance between the bend tangent lines in a flat pattern layout.

74
Q

What is a sight line? (AM.II.A.K4)

A

A line drawn on a flat pattern layout within the bend allowance that is one bend radius from the bend tangent line. When the sight line is directly below the nose of the radius bar on the brake, the bend will start at the bend tangent line.

75
Q

What is the main function of throatless shears in an aircraft sheet metal shop? (AM.II.A.K4)

A

Throatless shears are used to cut mild carbon steel up to 10-gauge, and stainless steel up to 12-gauge. They can be used to cut irregular curves in the metal.

76
Q

What kind of metal forming is done by a slip roll former? (AM.II.A.K4)

A

Simple curves with a large radius.

77
Q

What kind of metal forming is done by bumping? (AM.II.A.K4)

A

Compound curves in sheet metal.

78
Q

What forming a curved angle, what must be done to the flanges? (AM.II.A.K4)

A

The flanges must be stretched for a convex curve and shrunk for a concave curve.

79
Q

When hand-forming a piece of sheet metal that has a concave curve, should the forming be started in the center of the curve, or at its edges?

A

Start at the edges and work toward the center.

80
Q

What is meant by a joggle in a piece of sheet metal? (AM.II.A.K4)

A

A joggle is a small offset near the edge of a piece of sheet metal that allows the sheet to overlap another piece of metal.

81
Q

What type of device is a Cleco fastener? (AM.II.A.K5)

A

A patented fastener that is inserted in the rivet holes and used to hold two pieces of sheet metal together until they can be riveted.

82
Q

What type of rivet may be used to replace a round head rivet in an aircraft structure? (AM.II.A.K5)

A

A universal head rivet.

83
Q

Why should aluminum alloy rivets be driven with as few blows as is practical? (AM.II.A.K8)

A

Excessive hammering will work-harden the rivets and make them difficult to drive.

84
Q

What determines whether a piece of sheet metal should be dimpled or countersunk when installing flush rivets? (AM.II.A.K8)

A

The thickness of the sheet. Countersinking should be done only when the thickness of the sheet is greater than the thickness of the rivet head.

85
Q

What should be done to protect a riveted joint between aluminum alloy and magnesium alloy from corrosion? (AM.II.A.K8)

A

Coat the faying surface with a corrosion-inhibiting primer, dip the rivets in the primer, and drive them while the primer is wet.

86
Q

What is the purpose of the beehive spring on a rivet gun? (AM.II.A.K8)

A

It holds the rivet set in the gun and allows the gun to vibrate the set.

87
Q

What kind of repair can be made to a small damage of the core material and one face sheet of a piece of aluminum alloy honeycomb structure? (AM.II.B.K22)

A

A potted compound repair.

88
Q

How do you grind the point of a twist drill that is to be used for drilling transparent acrylic material? (AM.II.B.K22)

A

The cutting edge should be dubbed off to a zero rake angle, and the included angle of the tip should be ground to 140 degrees.

89
Q

What is a warp clock in a structural repair manual? (AM.II.B.K22)

A

An alignment indicator to show the orientation of the plies of a composite material. This ply direction is shown in relation to a reference direction.

90
Q

What are two types of repair to a damaged honeycomb core composite material? (AM.II.B.K22)

A

Room-temperature cure repair and hot-bond repair,

91
Q

What is the function of the elevators on an airplane?(AM.II.C.K10)

A

Elevators rotate he airplane about its lateral axis.

92
Q

What is a stabilator? (AM.II.C.K11)

A

A single-piece horizontal tail surface that acts as both the horizontal stabilizer and the elevators. A stabilator pivots about its front spar.

93
Q

What is meant by differential aileron travel? (AM.II.C.K11)

A

Aileron movement in which the upward-moving aileron deflects a greater distance than the one moving downward. The up aileron produces parasite drag to counteract the induced drag produced by the down aileron.

94
Q

What is a Frise aileron? (AM.II.C.K11)

A

An aileron with its hinge line set back from the leading edge so that when it is deflected upward, part of the leading edge project below the wing and produces parasite drag to overcome adverse yaw.

95
Q

What is a ruddervator? (AM.II.C.K11)

A

Movable control surfaces on a V-tail airplane that are controlled by both the rudder pedals and the control yoke. When the yoke is moved in or out, the ruddervators move together and act as the elevators. When the rudder pedals are depressed, the ruddervators move differentially and act as a rudder.

96
Q

What is the function of the ailerons on a airplane? (AM.II.C.K11)

A

Ailerons rotate the airplane about its longitudinal axis.

97
Q

What are the three basic brake actuating systems? (AM.II.E.K12)

A

A. An independent system not part of the main aircraft hydraulic system.
B. A booster system that uses the aircraft hydraulic system intermittently.
C. A power brake system that only uses the aircraft main hydraulic system as a source of pressure.

98
Q

What is the function of a wheel speed sensor in an anti-skid brake system? (AM.II.E.K8)

A

The wheel speed sensor is a DC generator that is used to produce a voltage proportional to wheel speed. Rotational speed change in excess of programmed parameters will engage the anti-skid data.

99
Q

To which side of a chevron seal should be pressure be applied? (AM.II.F.K8)

A

To the open side.

100
Q

Is a chevron seal a one-way or a two-way seal? (AM.II.F.K8)

A

A one-way seal.

101
Q

Is an O-ring seal a one-way or a two-way seal? (AM.II.F.K8)

A

A two-way seal.

102
Q

How can you be sure of getting an O-ring made of the correct material for a specific hydraulic component? (AM.II.F.K8)

A

The O-ring must have the correct part number and it must have been obtained from a reputable source.

103
Q

On which side of an O-ring should the backup ring be placed? (AM.II.F.K8)

A

One the side away from the source of pressure.

104
Q

What should be done to the sharp edges of threads and actuator pistons when installing O-rings? (AM.II.F.K8)

A

The sharp edges should be covered with paper.

105
Q

Why are the cabins of most turbine-powered aircraft pressurized? (AM.II.G.K1)

A

These aircraft fly at such high altitudes that supplemental oxygen would be needed for the occupants if the cabins were not pressurized.

106
Q

Where does the pressurizing air come from on most turbine-powered aircraft? (AM.II.G.K1)

A

From air bled from one of the engine compressors.

107
Q

Where does the pressurizing air come from on most smaller reciprocating-engine-powered aircraft? (AM.II.G.K1)

A

From the engine turbocharger.

108
Q

What determines the amount of pressurization that an aircraft can use? (AM.II.G.K1)

A

The structural strength of the aircraft cabin.

109
Q

What is meant by the isobaric mode of cabin pressurization? (AM.II.G.K1)

A

The isobaric mode of cabin pressurization is the mode that keeps the cabin altitude constant as the aircraft changes its flight altitude.

110
Q

What is meant by the constant differential mode of cabin pressurization? (AM.II.G.K1)

A

After the pressure in the aircraft cabin reaches the maximum value allowed by structural considerations, the constant differential mode of operation holds the pressure inside the cabin a constant amount above the outside air pressure.

111
Q

What is the danger of leak in an exhaust system cabin heater? (AM.II.G.K4)

A

Exhaust gases contain carbon monoxide (CO), a colorless, odorless, gas that can cause incapacitation or death to the aircraft occupants.

112
Q

How can an exhaust system be checked for leaks? (AM.II.G.K4)

A

Pressurize it with the discharge from a vacuum cleaner and wipe the outside of the system with a soap solution. Any leak will cause bubbles to form.

113
Q

How can an exhaust system be checked for leaks? (AM.II.G.K4)

A

Indicator crystals in a CO detector will change color, from a normally bright color to a dark color. At lethal levels of CO they will turn black. Electronic CO detectors provide both visual and aural alerts to the crew.

114
Q

Where does the warm air come from that is used to heat the cabin of most small single-engine reciprocating-engine-powered aircraft? (AM.II.G.K4)

A

From a shroud around the engine muffler.

115
Q

What are three ways supplemental oxygen can be carried in an aircraft? (AM.II.G.K9)

A

As a high-pressure gas, in its liquid form, and as a solid in the form of a chemical candle.

116
Q

What is a continuous-flow oxygen system? (AM.II.G.K9)

A

An oxygen system that continuously flows a metered amount of oxygen into the mask.

117
Q

What is pressure-demand oxygen system? (AM.II.G.K9)

A

An oxygen system that flows oxygen to the mask only when the wearer of the mask inhales. Above a specified altitude, the regulator meters oxygen under pressure into the mask when the wearer inhales.

118
Q

What information is allowed to be depicted on electronic displays? (AM.II.H.K16)

A

All information relating to flight and aircraft systems can be displayed on electronic displays. The main flight instruments are displayed on what is referred to as the primary flight display (PFD) or electronic flight instrument system (EFIS). Data displays for engine parameters, hydraulics, fuel, and other airframe systems are displayed on secondary flight displays or independent displays. These secondary displays are often referred to as multifunction displays (MFDs)

119
Q

What are the gyroscopic instruments that are connected to the low-pressure pneumatic systems of an aircraft? (AM.II.H.K7)

A

Heading indicator, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.

120
Q

What device is used with a wet-pump vacuum system to prevent oil from getting into the deicer boots? (AM.II.H.K7)

A

An oil separator.

121
Q

What are two types of filters used with a pressure system for gyros? (AM.II.H.K7)

A

A pump inlet filter and an inline filter.

122
Q

What type of filter is used with a vacuum system for gyros? (AM.II.H.K7)

A

A central air filter.

123
Q

What may be causing an attitude indicator to not properly erect or display? (AM.II.H.K7)

A

Gyroscopes are dependent on achieving and maintaining proper rotational speed. Failure to do so may be caused by low vacuum created by the vacuum system or motor failure in an electrically-driven gyroscope.

124
Q

Where can you find the correct part number for the fuel quantity sensor to be installed in an aircraft fuel tank? (AM.II.J.K2)

A

In the Illustrated Parts Catalog for the aircraft.

125
Q

Where are fuel system strainers located? (AM.II.J.K2)

A

One strainer is located in the outlet to the tank, and the main strainer is located in the fuel line between the outlet of the fuel tank and the inlet to the fuel metering device.

126
Q

Why do the fuel strainers used on some turbine-engine aircraft have a warning device that signals the flight crew when the strainer is beginning to clog up? (AM.II.J.K2)

A

Strainers log because ice forms on the filter element. The flight crew can route the fuel through a fuel heater to melt the ice.

127
Q

How does water appear in the fuel drained from the tank sumps? (AM.II.J.K2)

A

Water appears as a clear globule in the bottom of the container used to collect the fuel drained from the sumps.

128
Q

Why must an aircraft fuel valve have a detent in its operating mechanism? (AM.II.J.K2)

A

The detent gives the pilot a positive indication by feel when the selector valve is in the full ON and full OFF position.

129
Q

What must be done before a fuel selector valve can be removed from an aircraft? (AM.II.J.K2)

A

The tank to which the valve is connected must be drained or otherwise isolated.

130
Q

What must be done after a fuel valve is replaced? (AM.II.J.K2)

A

The fuel system must be checked for leaks.

131
Q

What size generator must be used in an aircraft electrical system if the connected electrical load is 30 amps, and there is no way of monitoring the generator output? (AM.II.K.K1)

A

When monitoring is not practical, the total continuously connected electrical load must be no more than 80% of the rated generator output. This would require a generator with a rating of 37.5 amps. Practically, a 40-amp generator would be installed.

132
Q

What is meant by “flashing” the field of a generator? (AM.II.K.K1)

A

Restoring the residual magnetism to the frame of the generator. This is done by passing battery current through the field coils in the direction it normally flows when the generator is operating.

133
Q

What is meant by paralleling the generators in a multi-engine aircraft? (AM.II.K.K1)

A

Adjusting the voltage regulators so all the generators share the electrical load equally.

134
Q

What are three types of voltage regulators used with aircraft generators? (AM.II.K.K1)

A

Vibrator-type, carbon-pile type, and solid state-type.

135
Q

How many electrical phases are in aircraft alternators? (AM.II.K.K2)

A

Three.

136
Q

What is the advantage of using AC power over DC power? (AM.II.K.K2)

A

AC voltages can be stepped up to higher voltages, which means the current goes down and smaller wires can be used to save weight. The voltage is stepped back down at the point of use.

137
Q

What is the frequency of AC voltage used in aircraft? (AM.II.K.K2)

A

400 Hz.

138
Q

How does a constant speed drive (CSD) unit maintain a constant output frequency of the AC generator? (AM.II.K.K4)

A

By maintaining a constant speed of the generator as the engine speed varies.

139
Q

What is an integrated drive generator (IDG)? (AM.II.K.K4)

A

When a constant speed drive (CSD) is combined within the alternator housing, the assembly is known as an IDG.

FAA Generals/Airframe Oral Exam (2 decks)

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