missed questions, review Flashcards

1
Q

if your E. coli culture looks blue after Gram staining, what did you most likely do wrong?

A

failure to decolorize with alcohol

(it’s not failure to counter-stain with safranin because the culture would be colorless in that case, assuming you did prior steps correctly)

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2
Q

for each of these technical errors of Gram staining, predict what would happen:
a. failure to use fresh culture
b. failure to heat fix
c. failure to stain with Gentian violet
d. failure to apply iodine
e. failure to decolorize with alcohol
f. failure to counter-stain with safranin

(assume all other steps were done correctly)

A

a. failure to use fresh culture = dead cells
b. failure to heat fix = no cells
c. failure to stain with Gentian violet = all pink cells
d. failure to apply iodine = all pink cells
e. failure to decolorize with alcohol = all blue cells
f. failure to counter-stain with safranin = colorless Gram(-)

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3
Q

what part of the envelope of Shigella (Gram-) contributes most to its toxicity?

A

Lipid A endotoxin of outer membrane (contained in LPS, lipopolysaccharide)

*remember Lipid A can cause toxicity whether bacteria is dead or alive

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4
Q

what is the structure of Lipid A, the part of LPS responsible for causing toxicity?

A

disaccharide substituted with saturated fatty acids

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5
Q

R-factor (resistance genes) are usually transferred via a ____

A

plasmid, via conjugation

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6
Q

what needs to happen for stable maintenance of a transferred antibiotic resistance gene?

A

plasma genes need to integrate into a chromosome (DNA which replicates)

requires homologous recombination

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7
Q

which of these processes is NOT involved in moving genes from one cell to another?
a. conjugation
b. homologous recombination
c. transduction
d. transformation
e. movement of a transposon

A

e. movement of a transposon - moving DNA from one plasmid to another or to the chromosome (within a cell)

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8
Q

which of these processes of genetic transfer in bacteria requires homologous recombination?
a. transformation
b. conjugation
c. transduction

A

a. transformation (uptake of genetic material from environment)

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9
Q

A culture of Salmonella is found to have a mixture of cells expressing different H (flagellar) antigens. What genetic process accounts for this?

A

inversion of DNA segment which contains the promoter for the flagellin gene

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10
Q

where in the body does Neisseria meningitidis establish asymptotic carrier state?

A

nasopharynx

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11
Q

which of the following is essential for the generation of antibodies against bacterial surface proteins?
a. B lymphocytes are stimulated in a “T-independent” fashion
b. CD8+ lymphocytes proliferate
c. DC cells phagocytose and digest bacterial proteins
d. peptides from bacterial proteins are presented by Class I MHC

A

c. DC cells phagocytose and digest bacterial proteins

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12
Q

on what kind of plate and what conditions can Neisseria meningitidis be cultured?

A

Thayer-Martin agar and elevated CO2: chocolate agar containing antibiotics to inhibit normal flora

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13
Q

what component of Neisseria meningitidis causes septic shock?

A

LOS (lipo-oligosaccharide) - contains Lipid A endotoxin

[remember that septic shock is due to endotoxins, while toxic shock is due to exotoxin superantigens]

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14
Q

what does it mean when a bacteria is catalase positive? (what does this enzyme do?)

A

catalase = hydrogen peroxidase

catalyzes H2O2 —> H2O + O2

protective against ROS

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15
Q

contrast the causes of septic shock and toxic shock syndrome

A

septic shock: due to endotoxins that cause inflammatory response

toxic shock syndrome: due to superantigen exotoxins that cause polyclonal T cell activation

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16
Q

match the pathogen with the more likely mode of infection:
staphylococcus or streptococcus

a. contamination of a needle or injection site with oral flora
b. entry of skin flora through a needle-stick site

A

staph.: skin flora
strep.: oral flora (alpha-hemolytic)

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17
Q

which Gram+ coccus is uniformly sensitive to penicillin G?
a. staph. aureus
b. staph. epidermidis
c. strep. pneumoniae
d. strep. pyogenes

A

d. strep. pyogenes

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18
Q

You are culturing a bacteria which you suspect to be Strep. pyogenes, Group A streptococcus that is beta-hemolytic. To confirm your suspicion, you do a bacitracin test. What do you expect the result to be?

A

Bacitracin sensitive

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19
Q

antibodies to which antigen of Streptococcus pneumoniae are most important for effective immunity?
a. teichoic acid
b. peptidoglycan
c. C-carbohydrate
d. Type III system
e. polysaccharide capsule

A

e. polysaccharide capsule - most important virulence factor of Strep. pneumoniae (no capsule = non-infectious)

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20
Q

which is more likely to be highly antibiotic resistant, Enterococcus or Group D Streptococcus?

A

Enterococcus

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21
Q

Which test result would best distinguish Strep. pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic Streptococci?
a. sensitivity to bacitracin
b. sensitivity to optochin
c. sensitivity to penicillin G
d. sensitivity to methicillin
e. sensitivity to rifampin

A

b. sensitivity to optochin

recall that other alpha-hemolytic Strep, Viridans group, is optochin resistant

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22
Q

What bacterial component defines the Lancefield Groups?

A

cell-associated or C-carbohydrate

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23
Q

what does it mean when colonies on MacConkey agar plates turn dark pink?

A

strain ferments lactose, which causes pH to drop and pH indicator dye turns pink

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24
Q

what does it means when a TSI (Triple Sugar Iron) agar slant turns yellow?

A

TSI slants contain pH indicator that turns yellow if pH drops because of fermentation of either/both lactose or sucrose

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25
Q

what is the clinical outcome of the heat stable toxin of E. coli stimulating guanyl cyclase?

A

stabile toxin: structural analogue of gut peptide hormone which stimulates guanyl cyclase coupled receptor

*increase in either cAMP (labile toxin, resembles cholera toxin) or cGMP causes salt/osmotic outflow into gut lumen and watery diarrhea

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26
Q

Verotoxin =

A

Shiga-like toxin

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27
Q

where would a young child most likely contract Shigella?
a. reptile such as snake or iguana
b. dog or cat
c. cow, horse, sheep
d. parakeet or other bird
e. another child
f. spores present in soil

A

e. another child - Shigella found only in humans, transmitted via fecal oral route

*note that Shigella is resistant to stomach acid and has a low infectious dose

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28
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica and Yersinia pseudotuberculosis both use a Type III secretion system to prevent:
a. phagocytosis by neutrophils
b. fusion of phagosomes with lysosomes
c. processing and presentation of antigens

A

a. phagocytosis by neutrophils

[remember that Yersinia enterocolitica and Yersinia pseudotuberculosis are acquired from animals or ingestion of contaminated meat or dairy]

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29
Q

what is the antigenic component of Haemophilus influenzae vaccine?

A

Hib conjugate vaccine: purified capsular polysaccharide covalently bound to diphtheria toxoid

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30
Q

severe projectile vomiting a few hours after eating contaminated food is a hallmark of food poisoning caused by

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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31
Q

primary mechanism for Enterococcal resistance to vancomycin is via expression of

A

VanHAX operon (D-Ala-D-Ala —> D-Ala-D-Lac)

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32
Q

when a person living in a closed community (military, college) presents with severe headache + neck stiffness + fever, your first thought should be

A

Neisseria meningitidis

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33
Q

increased production of endogenous metabolite PABA (p-aminobenzoic acid) causes resistance to

A

sulfamethoxazole - sulfonamides are anti-metabolite antibiotics that block the first enzyme in folate synthesis, which uses PABA as a reactant

therefore, resistance works by overwhelming drug with increased PABA

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34
Q

the most important virulence factor for the development of UTIs

A

pili (adhesins): necessary for adhesion to urethra

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35
Q

name the toxin which:
a. induces adenylate cyclase
b. inhibits protein synthesis on 60s ribosomal subunit
c. ribosylates EF-2 (elongation factor 2)

A

a. induces adenylate cyclase —> Cholera toxin and labile toxin of E. coli
b. inhibits protein synthesis on 60s ribosomal subunit —> Shiga toxin (and Shiga-like toxin)
c. ribosylates EF-2 (elongation factor 2) —> pseudomonas exotoxin A and diphtheria toxin

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36
Q

what bacterial infection will cause copious amounts of watery diarrhea but no fever

A

Vibrio cholerae

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37
Q

endotoxins are only found in Gram(+/-)

A

endotoxins only found in Gram (-), in LPS

exotoxins found in both Gram+/-

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38
Q

how do beta-lactamases inactivate penicillin?

A

transient covalent linkage

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39
Q

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) is typically caused by ____ toxin, produced by ______ bacteria

A

HUS: caused by Shiga toxin produced by Shigella or STEC E. coli

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40
Q

what would you expect to see after an acid-fast stain of tuberculosis sputum?

A

red-staining bacilli

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41
Q

what is the purpose of culturing Mycobacterium tuberculosis on Lowenstein-Jensen agar and in the BACTEC system?

A

culture allows testing for antibiotic sensitivity/resistance

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42
Q

what characteristic of M. tuberculosis is most essential for its transmission?

A

impermeable lipid-rich envelope

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43
Q

A first-year resident tests tuberculin-positive and requires prophylactic treatment - which drug should be given?
a. streptomycin (aminoglycoside)
b. ciprofloxacin (fluoroquinolone)
c. isoniazid
d. rifampin
e. ethambutol

A

c. isoniazid

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44
Q

what is the most important type of immune defense against M. tuberculosis?

A

killing by macrophages activated by TH1 cells via gamma interferon

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45
Q

in what kind of immunodeficient patient might a PPD test produce a false-negative?

A

patients with impaired cell-mediated immunity may produce false-negative PPD because immune response to tuberculosis is TH1 mediated (activate macrophages via IFNy)

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46
Q

if cells infected with Chlamydia trachomatis were examined by staining and light microscopy, what would be observed?

A

membrane-bounded inclusion body within the cytoplasm

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47
Q

what property of Rickettsia (causing RMSF) prevents its recovery by culture?

A

it can only be grown in living mammalian cells

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48
Q

if cells infected with Rickettsia were examined by electron microscopy, what would be observed?

A

small rod-shaped bacilli free in the cytosol (intracellular)

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49
Q

what structural feature is unique to bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi and Treponema pallidum?
a. outer membrane with porins
b. pili for tight adherence
c. flagella within the outer membrane
d. high-affinity iron-transport systems in the cell envelope

A

c. flagella within the outer membrane - endoflagella

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50
Q

A 25yo pregnant woman develops chorioamnionitis from Bacteroides fragilis - how did the organism reach the fetal membranes?

A

Bacteroids fragilis is normal intestinal flora - spread from endogenous source to her genitourinary tract

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51
Q

which bacteria is most likely to be acquired from home-canned foods?

A

Clostridium botulinum - produces spores not easily killed by boiling

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52
Q

Your patient presents with a lesion they said began as a small red swelling which enlarged and then ulcerated. A swab of the ulcer contains large Gram+ rods and aerobic culture on sheep blood agar produces non-hemolytic colonies. When the ulcer heals, it produces a thick black scab.

What is most likely going on?

A

Bacillus anthracis cutaneous infection

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53
Q

Bacteroides fragilis is isolated from your patient’s abscess - what condition most likely facilitated the infection?
a. treatment with sulfonamide
b. tissue ischemia
c. antibiotic treatment for another bacterial infection
d. colonization of the large intestine with spores of this organism

A

tissue ischemia - Bacteroides fragilis is anaerobic

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54
Q

to what do neutralizing antibodies for Polio virus bind?
a. matrix protein
b. nucleocapsid protein
c. membrane glycoproteins
d. non-structural proteins

A

nucleocapsid protein

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55
Q

which of these steps only occurs in “early” phase of viral replication?
a. production of virion structural proteins
b. synthesis of viral-encoded enzymes
c. transcription of viral genes
d. production of new viral genome

A

b. synthesis of virus-encoded enzymes

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56
Q

which of the following will detect only infectious virions?
a. ELISA
b. PCR
c. hemagglutination
d. plaque assay
e. western blot

A

plaque assay - non-infectious viruses will not be able to lyse cells

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57
Q

where does variation that differentiates serotypes occur?
a. structural variation of proteins at viral surface
b. variation in symmetry of nucleocapsid
c. presence or absence of particular proteins in virions
d. structural variations of viral internal proteins

A

structural variation of proteins at virus surface

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58
Q

some viruses spread through inducing fusion of uninfected cells with infected cells - what mode of immune defense does this escape?

A

neutralization of virions by antibody

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59
Q

what kind of immunity do viruses escape by inhibiting synthesis of MHC I?

A

CD8+ CTL

60
Q

what is required for transfer of DNA from a bacteriophage from one bacterium to another?
a. direct contact between donor and recipient cells
b. excision of the bacteriophage from the bacterial chromosome, replication, and new virus formation
c. replication of a conjugative plasmid

A

b. excision of the bacteriophage from the bacterial chromosome, replication, and new virus formation

DNA from bacteriophages integrate into chromosome - need to pop out and replicate to spread

61
Q

some isolated resistance genes are found to lie close to each other in DNA and are adjacent to a gene with transposase sequence motifs. This group of genes is flanked by inverted DNA repeats - what is this whole thing called?

A

transposon

62
Q

what does N. meningitidis have that N. gonorrhoeae doesn’t have that helps it evade immunity?

A

N. meningitidis has capsule that confers resistance to killing by phagocytes

N. gonorrhoeae is unencapsulated

63
Q

An 8mo boy has a history of Gram+ middle ear infection, as well as infections by non-encapsulated H. influenzae, S. pneumoniae, and a staph. skin infection which responded poorly to antibiotics. Turns out he has an immunodeficiency syndrome - what aspect of his immunity is defective?

A

antibodies, complement, and neutrophils - predominant immunity against extracellular bacteria

64
Q

mechanism of cholera toxin

A

stimulates Gs protein that activates adenyl cyclase —> increase in cAMP, more fluids in lumen of GI —> water diarrhea

65
Q

which bacterial toxin causes an increase in cGMP

A

heat stabile toxin (ST) of ETEC (traveller’s diarrhea) stimulates guanyl cyclase and increase cGMP

ETEC also has labile toxin (LT) which is cholera-like toxin, and increase cAMP

both cause fluid in lumen —> diarrhea

66
Q

which describes the function of ETEC heat-labile exotoxin?
a. enters intestinal epithelial cells, catalyzes synthesis of cGMP in cytosol
b. ADP-ribosylates a large G protein which stimulates adenyl cyclase
c. cleaves ribosomal RNA and inhibits protein synthesis by 80S ribosomes

A

b. ADP-ribosylates a large G protein which stimulates adenyl cyclase

this is cholera-like toxin —> cAMP —> watery diarrhea

67
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica and Yersinia pseudotuberculosis cuase intense inflammation in intestinal lymph nodes. A virulence factor aiding infection is their Type III secretion system, which blocks:
a. phagocytosis of Yersinia by neutrophils
b. fusion of phagosomes with lysosomes
c. cytokine synthesis by infected macrophages

A

a. phagocytosis of Yersinia by neutrophils

68
Q

which phrase best describes the antigenic components of the recommended pertussis vaccine?
a. toxoid plus other purified antigens
b. purified capsular polysaccharides, linked to Diphtheria toxoid
c. live attenuated bacteria

A

a. toxoid plus other purified antigens

DTap: Diptheria Toxoid, acellular Pertussis

69
Q

what produces the induration and erythema seen with tuberculin skin tests?
a. induction of primary antibody response
b. cytokine production by CD4+ T cells
c. killing of infected human cells by CD8+ CTL

A

b. cytokine production by CD4+ T cells

CD4+ T —> IFNy —> macrophage

70
Q

in a person with intact immunity, which of the following is most likely to be followed by development of active TB?
a. re-activation of previously dormant bacteria in the lung
b. brief exposure to a person with active TB

A

a. re-activation of previously dormant bacteria in the lung

71
Q

what is given as prophylactic treatment for TB?

A

isoniazid (INH)

72
Q

how does Edema Factor of anthrax work? how does Lethal Factor work?

A

Edema Factor: calmodulin-activated adenyl cyclase —> causes increase in cAMP —> fluid leakage

Lethal Factor: protease that cleaves a MAPK (protein kinase) involved in signal transduction —> tissue necrosis

*recall Protective Antigen is required for these to enter host cell

73
Q

HIV+ patient has pneumonia. Bronchoalveolar fluid is recovered which contains cyst forms of _____

A

Pneumocystis carinii (P. jirovecii) —> Pneumocystis pneumonia

*this fungus is acquired in childhood and does not affect healthy people

74
Q

what does Coccioides immitis look like when cultured on Saboraud agar + glucose?

A

hyphal growth - conidia develop in rods looking like bamboo kinda

*in tissue, looks like large spheres with many endospores

*found in SW USA/ Central+South America desert soil

75
Q

what virulence factor is essential for CNS infection by all of these: S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, N. meningitidis, and Cryptococcus neoformans?

A

these all have polysaccharide capsule that is required for infection!

76
Q

which 2 fungi are associated with bird droppings

A
  1. Histoplasma capsulatum
  2. Cryptococcus neoformans
77
Q

contrast what HSV and EBV do in latently-infected cells

A

HSV: NO protein production in latency, produce anti-sense transcripts

EBV: produce only early proteins

78
Q

what virus is associated with retinitis in AIDS patients

A

cytomegalovirus (CMV)

79
Q

how are VZV and Rubella both transmitted

A

oropharyngeal secretions and respiratory route

80
Q

what virus causes Roseola infection in infants (fever + rash on neck and trunk)

A

HHV-6 (also implicated in HIV progression)

via respiratory secretions, latent in peripheral lymphocytes

81
Q

which of these is true of Herpesviridae?
a. formation of syncytia
b. large intra-nuclear inclusions
c. death of infected cells by lysis

A

b. large intra-nuclear inclusions

dsDNA, icosahedral nucleocapsid, enveloped

82
Q

what family of viruses causes syncytia?

A

Paramyxoviridae: (-)RNA, enveloped, helical

includes Parainfluenza, measles, mumps, RSV

83
Q

what features determines oncogenic potential of a particular HPV type?

A

affinity of binding between viral early proteins and host cell growth-regulatory proteins

84
Q

most common cause of tonsilitis

A

Adenovirus

can also cause keratoconjunctivitis, pharyngitis with fever and cough, and infantile gastroenteritis

85
Q

what virus has large “owl’s-eye” intra-nuclear inclusions, and causes extensive erythematous rash of newborns?

A

cytomegalovirus (CMV): beta herpesvirus (latent in monocytes)

dsDNA, enveloped, icosahedral

via body fluids, causes cytomegaly but does not kill cells

86
Q

why is it unlikely that a non-toxic drug will be developed that will inhibit replication of Papilloma viruses?

A

Papilloma (like HPV) use host cell biochemistry for replication, transcription, translation

87
Q

what virus is associated with causing Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) in AIDS patients?

A

Human Polyoma Virus JC

88
Q

which describes the virions of Vaccinia virus?
a. envelope contains HA and NA
b. lateral bodies are located between the viral core and membrane
c. virions are smaller than the virions of Herpesvirus

A

b. lateral bodies are located between the viral core and membrane

89
Q

which of these describes SARS virus?
a. long slender enveloped virions with helical nucleocapsids
b. large naked virions with elaborate double-walled protein shells
c. large enveloped virions with prominent club-shaped glycoprotein spikes

A

c. large enveloped virions with prominent club-shaped glycoprotein spikes

remember these give it the appearance of a corona, or crown

90
Q

what is the most likely outcome following infection with St. Louis encephalitis virus?
a. mild encephalitis
b. asymptomatic or sub clinical infection

A

b. asymptomatic or sub clinical infection

however in elderly patients severe CNS disease develops (stiff neck, meningitis, coma, disability)

no vaccine

91
Q

what disease is echovirus most significant for causing

A

echovirus: meningitis, Hand/foot/mouth, conjunctivitis, febrile rash

but most importantly meningitis

recall this is naked, icosahedral, +RNA enterovirus (of picornaviridae)

92
Q

how does Polio get to CNS

A

gut —> viremia —> CNS

93
Q

on Polio virion, where are the epitopes important for neutralization?

A

proteins on the virion which are protruding and coming to a point

recall Polio is naked, icosahedral, +RNA enterovirus (picornaviridae)

94
Q

what family of viruses have fusion (F) proteins?

A

paramyxoviruses (-ssRNA): include parainfluenza, measles, mumps, RSV

these also cause syncytia

95
Q

which calicivirus causes outbreaks of diarrhea

A

Norwalk: naked, icosahedral, +ssRNA

96
Q

how does Amantadine work as a prophylactic drug for Influenza?

A

inhibits M2 protein, which forms ion channel that lowers pH to allow for uncoating

blocks fusion of viral and endosomal membranes in response to decreased pH

97
Q

what does Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI) assay detect in serological diagnosis of Influenza?

A

antibody to influenza virus

98
Q

Hantavirus is found in southwest US and causes pulmonary infection - how is it transmitted?

A

inhalation of aerosolized rodent urine/feces, or of material contaminated with these

99
Q

among viruses, what structural feature is unique to the virions of Arenaviruses?

A

they contain host cell ribosomes ! woah !

*note arenaviruses mostly produce systemic febrile illnesses

100
Q

lactose-fermenting Gram- rod isolated from bloody stool

A

E. coli

101
Q

young child with loose stools, fever, cramping, muscle aches, but no blood in stool

she has several pet turtles

what is it

A

Salmonella spp.

102
Q

how does Rickettsia rickettsii rash spread

A

limbs to trunk

103
Q

which organism would be most likely to be a contamination caused by poor antiseptic technique, rather than true infection?
a. Staph. epidermidis
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Strep. pneumoniae

A

a. Staph. epidermidis

104
Q

fever and bloody diarrhea, curved Gram- rod

A

Campylobacter jejuni

105
Q

patient works as tree remover, has lump on left forearm

Gram+ bacteria is isolated that only grows in aerobic culture. It is most likely:
a. Nocardia asteroides
b. Actinomyces israelii
c. Bacillus cereus
d. Aspergillus fumigatus

A

a. Nocardia asteroides

106
Q

which bacteria causes formation of a tough pseudomembrane that is difficult to remove without causing bleeding?

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

107
Q

what is the most common source of rabies infection in the US?

A

bats

note this is not the only thing bats are associated with

108
Q

which viruses are segmented?

A

BOAR:
Bunyavirus
Orthomyxovirus (Influenza)
Arenavirus
Rotavirus

109
Q

inspiratory stidor =

A

croup (like the cough in parainfluenza virus)

110
Q

what does the fusion protein of parainfluenza, mumps, RSV, and measles do?

A

fusion protein causes syncytia (multi-nucleated giant cells)

111
Q

which zoonotic bacteria has bipolar staining

A

Pasteurella

112
Q

which Gram+ rod bacteria has a narrow zone of beta hemolysis

A

Listeria monocytogenes

113
Q

when does adenovirus vs influenza and RSV cause infection?

A

adenovirus: year round

influenza and RSV: winter

114
Q

what are the curved rod Gram- bacteria?

A

campylobacter, vibrio, helicobacter

115
Q

in what cells does Salmonella typhi spread systemically?

A

monocytes/macrophages

116
Q

what is the mechanism of vancomycin resistance?

A

expression of 1+ genes encoding enzymes that produce peptidoglycan with D-ala-D-lac termini

via VanHAX operon

this is seen in enterococci

117
Q

are monobactams (aztreonam) cross-reactive with penicillin?

A

no!

118
Q

_____ are lipopolysaccharides, ______ are proteins

A

ENDOTOXIN: LPS
EXOTOXIN: protein

only Gram- have LPS (endotoxin) but both Gram+/- have exotoxins

119
Q

what disease is caused by spirochete bacteria and spread by human body louse?

A

relapsing fever via Borrelia reccurrentis

120
Q

which bacteria, transmitted by a flea bite, causes maculopapular rash on trunk, arms, and thighs?

A

Rickettsia typhi: causes endemic/murine typhus, vector is rat and rat flea

121
Q

what medium is used for culturing M. tuberculosis

A

Lowenstein-Jensen medium

122
Q

vaginal itching and erythema with thick/white discharge and foul smell is most likely caused by…

A

candida albicans

123
Q

pelvic inflammatory disease is most likely caused by…

A

Chlamydia trachomatis is most common bacterial STD and most often cause of PID

after that would be N. gonorrhoeae

124
Q

chronic diarrhea in an AIDS patient and a fecal smear that shows acid-fast oocyts

what is the most likely causative organism?

A

Cryptosporidium

125
Q

which is the only form of plasmodium that causes cerebral involvement?

A

Plasmodium falciparum (worst one)

126
Q

1 choice for anthrax prophylaxis

A

Ciprofloxacin (FQ/fluoroquinolone)

127
Q

what test distinguishes Group B (Strep. agalactiae) from other beta hemolytic strep?

A

CAMP test: positive result shows arrowhead-shaped area of hemolysis next to bacterial streak on blood agar (due to CAMP factor)

128
Q

which of these is transmitted via an arthropod vector?
a. Bunyavirus
b. arenavirus
c. parvovirus

A

a. Bunyavirus - arthropod vectors

129
Q

what is the main component of the EBV capsid?

A

VCA protein: viral capsid antigen !!!

130
Q

all mAbs for Covid are given via what route of administration?

A

infusion or injection !

131
Q

what type of organism does MacConkey agar select AGAINST

A

gram+

MAC agar only grows Gram- bacteria !!

132
Q

what color do bacteria that ferment sugars on HE agar appear as?

A

yellow!!

133
Q

how doe most transforming genes found in DNA viruses cause tumor formation?

A

inactivation of tumor suppressor gene products such as p53 and Rb

134
Q

What kind of rash is associated with Hand Foot & Mouth Disease when caused by Coxsackievirus?

A

red vesicular rash

*note that VZV also causes vesicular rash

135
Q

What bacterial species is associated with causing rice water stool?

A

Cholera - due to mucus in the stool

136
Q

the most common source of rabies in the US is…

A

bats

137
Q

which viral families have segmented DNA?

A

BOAR:
Bunyaviridae
Orthomyxoviridae
Arenaviridae
Rotavirus

138
Q

what do the anti-influenza drugs Amantadine and Rimantadine target?

A

M2 protein, which lowers cell pH to facilitate viral uncoating

139
Q

inspiratory stridor =

A

inspiratory stridor = croup

seen with parainfluenza infection

140
Q

what protein causes the synctia seen with infection by parainfluenza, measles, mumps, and rsv?

A

fusion protein

141
Q

what is the difference in the rash caused by Herpes Simplex Virus 2 (HSV 2) and Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV)?

A

both caused red vesicular rash

but HSV2 rash is painful

142
Q

What Gram- bacteria has classic bipolar staining?

A

Pasteurella

143
Q

Which Gram+ rod grows with a narrow zone of beta hemolysis on blood agar?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

144
Q

Contrast when infections by Adenovirus vs Influenza vs RSV are most common

A

Adenovirus: infections year-round

Influenza/RSV: winter infections

145
Q

What virus is the most common cause of tonsillitis?

A

Adenovirus

also causes hemorrhagic cervicitis

146
Q

What kind of vaccine is available for Adenovirus, and who is it given to?

A

live vaccine, military only

147
Q

What are the curved Gram- bacteria? (3)

A
  1. Campylobacter jejuni
  2. Vibrio cholerae
  3. Helicobacter pylori