Missed Questions Flashcards
(151 cards)
1
Q
What most correctly identifies the purpose of a resume?
A
A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.
2
Q
Which component contributes the most to total energy expenditure?
A
Resting metabolism
3
Q
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula?
A
Serratus anterior
4
Q
Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals?
A
1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight
5
Q
What does the Electron Transport Chain (ETC) do?
A
The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
6
Q
What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement?
A
Feed-forward
7
Q
What anatomical heart structure is referred to as “the pacemaker of the heart”?
A
Atrioventricular node
8
Q
How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event?
A
1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity
9
Q
What is acidosis in muscle?
A
A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
10
Q
What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2?
A
The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
11
Q
How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
A
Four
12
Q
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
A
Back extension
13
Q
Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?
A
Ankle sprains
13
Q
What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?
A
To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
13
Q
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex?
A
Altered reciprocal inhibition
14
Q
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?
A
Stretch-shortening cycle
15
Q
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?
A
Ice skaters
16
Q
For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?
A
Body fat loss
17
Q
A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client’s outcome expectation for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use?
A
Providing information on health benefits
18
Q
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction?
A
As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases
19
Q
What types of foods contain carbohydrates?
A
Plant foods and dairy
20
Q
Which type of training would most likely lead to increase levels of testosterone, insulin-like growth factors, and growth hormone?
A
Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods
21
Q
Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space?
A
Visual system
22
Q
The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?
A
Strength
23
Which of the following is proper technique during a squat movement?
Tracking the knees over the second and third toes
24
Karim, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, recently retired from playing professional football and is beginning his career in the fitness industry. How can Karim best promote his experience as a professional athlete?
Karim's experience as a professional athlete allows him to create a unique selling proposition (USP) allowing club members to exercise with a former professional athlete.
25
What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence?
Motivational interviewing
26
Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements?
Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
27
What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?
Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
28
If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?
Oxidative phosphorylation
29
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action?
As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.
29
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for carbohydrate in the diet?
45-65% of total calories
29
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
Hip flexor complex
30
What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise?
Palms facing down
31
Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of a client's emotional considerations?
Self-efficacy
32
What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client?
Small jumps
33
Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training?
Integrated training
34
Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit under the umbrella of agility training?
Change of direction
35
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?
Rotatores
36
When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility?
Self-myofascial techniques
37
Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding proprioceptive modalities?
Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.
38
Mac, an NASM-CPT, has been working as a personal trainer at a health club for almost 3 years. He has consistently received positive job evaluations, making him eligible for a promotion. What opportunity would be the most appropriate to pursue, given his experience?
Fitness manager
39
The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following?
The built environment
40
Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins?
Right atrium
41
What are the end products of the electron transport chain?
ATP and water
42
Which of the following would be the recommended source of hydration after 40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration?
Water
43
What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?
A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise
44
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with upper crossed syndrome?
Lower trapezius
45
The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites?
Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
46
The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach?
Progressive overload
47
What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?
It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.
48
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?
0 to 60 seconds
49
Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?
Quickness
50
If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize?
SMR/static stretching
51
What benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training?
A decrease in metabolic rate
52
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?
Depth jumps
53
What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
The person has suffered an ACL sprain
54
Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved?
Latissimus dorsi
55
A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting?
Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.
56
Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed?
depletion of phosphocreatine
lack of pyruvate
free hydrogen ions
lack of fatty acids
Free hydrogen ions
57
Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?
increased lipolysis
increased lipogenesis
increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume
increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate
Increased lipolysis
58
How many B vitamins are there?
21
3
8
12
8
59
Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury.
injury resistance
rehabilitation
performance
posture
Injury resistance
60
You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?
1 or 2 drills per workout
9 or 10 drills per workout
4 to 8 drills per workout
2 or 3 drills per workout
4 to 8 drills per workout
61
Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion?
single-leg squat
multiplanar hop with stabilization
single-leg balance
single-leg lift and chop
Single-leg squat
62
How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes?
Less than 15 seconds
60 to 90 seconds
15 to 60 seconds
90 to 120 seconds
15 to 60 seconds
63
What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion?
120 beats per minute
140 beats per minute
Unable to estimate because RPE does not correlate with heart rate
Unable to estimate because the Borg 6 to 20 scale applies only to vigorous exercise
140 beats per minute
64
What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?
An RPE of 9 to 10
An RPE of 7 to 8
An RPE of 5 to 6
An RPE of 3 to 4
An RPE of 5 to 6
65
How is a general warm-up best defined?
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following
66
What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1?
Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss
67
What are the three levels of the OPT model?
Stabilization, Strength, and Power
68
Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults?
Family
The community
Exercise group
Exercise leader
Family
69
Which of the following components of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE) is responsible for the most energy expenditure throughout the day?
Exercise activity thermogenesis (EAT)
Nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
Thermic effect of food (TEF)
Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
70
Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs?
Right ventricle
71
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat in the diet?
20 to 35% of total calories
72
In which of the following pairs are both foods considered to be allergens?
Gluten and corn
Dairy and shellfish
Soy and aspartame
Peas and peanuts
Dairy and shellfish
73
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Long (broad) jump
40-yard dash
Pro shuttle
Pro shuttle
74
Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?
Validity
Reliability
Relevance
Appropriateness
Validity
75
From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients?
1 or 2 drills
4 to 6 drills
9 to 10 drills
7 to 9 drills
4 to 6 drills
76
Davis's law describes what type of changes in the cumulative injury cycle?
Adhesions may begin due to lack of physical activity and poor flexibility.
Adhesions can occur after strenuous exercise that breaks down muscle fibers and joint cartilage.
Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.
Tight muscles may cause synergistic dominance from pattern overload.
Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.
77
For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2?
Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week
Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week
Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week
Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week
Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week
78
Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?
Semi-dynamic balance
Static balance
Stable balance
Dynamic balance
Semi-dynamic balance
79
Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training?
Height
Body composition
Sports skills
Injury history
Injury history
80
What is a normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable?
Arteriosclerosis
Hypoglycemia
Atherosclerosis
Hyperglycemia
Arteriosclerosis
81
What blood pressure is reflective of a hypertensive crisis?
A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg
A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic
A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher
A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg
82
Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise?
High-impact activity
Steady-state aerobic training
Low-impact activity
Proprioceptive training
Low-impact activity
83
Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model?
TRX Rip Trainer
Terra-Core
Cable machines
Suspended bodyweight training
Cable machines
84
What are the three categories within the lipid family?
Cholesterol, omega-3s, and omega-6s
Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols
Saturated, unsaturated, and hydrogenated fats
Saturated fat, unsaturate fat,
and cholesterol
Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols
85
What is the dysfunction that occurs due to narrowing and rubbing of the soft tissue and bony structures of the shoulder?
Dislocation of the shoulder
Frozen shoulder
Shoulder impingement
Rotator cuff tear
Shoulder impingement
86
How many vertebrae make up the thoracic spine?
8
10
5
12
12
87
Why can personal trainers be considered among the most important employees within a health club?
a.
Personal trainers are often in great physical shape, which demonstrates that belonging to a health club can produce results members want.
b.
Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.
c.
Personal trainers are very outgoing and can help create a fun atmosphere in a fitness facility.
d.
Personal trainers study exercise science and have the knowledge to help members get results.
Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.
88
A client has thoughts that they cannot exercise on their own, that they look silly doing it, and that other people are watching them. They believe these thoughts to be true. What is occurring?
a.
Acceptance
b.
Reverse listing
c.
Stopping
d.
Cognitive fusion
Cognitive fusion
89
What is explained by the sliding filament theory?
a.
The Z-lines moving farther apart
b.
The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
c.
The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction
d.
The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere
The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
90
What is end-diastolic volume?
a.
The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
b.
The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
c.
The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
d.
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
91
Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
a.
Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh
b.
Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest
c.
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
d.
Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
92
Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?
a.
Altered movement patterns
b.
Ability to stretch in small increments
c.
Ability to stretch only one muscle
d.
Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods
Altered movement patterns
93
What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly?
a.
Barbell clean
b.
Single-leg squat
c.
Step-ups
d.
Depth jump
Step-ups
94
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?
a.
Front medicine ball oblique throw
b.
Medicine ball chest pass
c.
Two-arm push press
d.
Soccer throw
Two-arm push press
95
If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called?
a.
Isometric contraction
b.
Stretch reflex
c.
Eccentric contraction
d.
Lengthening reaction
Stretch reflex
96
What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?
a.
Cancer and bleeding disorders
b.
Hypertension that is controlled and varicose veins
c.
Young children and older adults
d.
Pregnancy and diabetes
Cancer and bleeding disorders
97
Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?
a.
Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
b.
Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
c.
Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods.
d.
It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
98
When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor?
a.
It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.
b.
It may place too much stress on the cervical spine through hyperflexion.
c.
It may place excessive stress on the thoracic spine through hyperflexion.
d.
It may place too much stress on the lumbar spine through hyperflexion.
It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.
99
What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers?
a.
Type I fibers have a lower concentration of capillaries than type II fibers.
b.
Type I fibers are “fast twitch.”
c.
Type I fibers have a lower concentration of mitochondria than type II fibers.
d.
Type I fibers are “slow twitch.”
Type I fibers are “slow twitch.”
100
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?
a.
Local and global muscles
b.
Back muscles only
c.
Global muscles
d.
Local muscles
Local muscles
101
What equation represents power?
a.
Y = mx + b
b.
Force x velocity
c.
a2 + b2 = c2
d.
Time ÷ work
Force x velocity
102
Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?
a.
Gluteus medius
b.
Gluteus maximus
c.
Erector spinae
d.
Hip flexor
Gluteus medius
103
Which of the following examples of training exercises is not a form of cardiorespiratory fitness?
a.
Jogging/running
b.
Sports competition
c.
Resistance training
d.
Rowing
Resistance training
104
Which component of evidence-based practice refers to a fitness professional’s accumulated education, experience, and practical skills?
a.
Number of continuing education units earned
b.
Individual professional expertise
c.
Client values and expectations
d.
Best external evidence
Individual professional expertise
105
Having an informal role in an exercise group is demonstrated by which example?
Select one:
a.
Planning the workout for the group
b.
Planning social gatherings for the group
c.
Providing modifications during the workout
d.
Setting the time for the group to meet
Planning social gatherings for the group
106
Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located? Select one:
a.
Left atrium
b.
Left ventricle
c.
Right atrium
d.
Right ventricle
Right atrium
107
Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion?
Select one:
a.
Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury.
b.
Athletic performance is a universal goal.
c.
Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane.
d.
Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally
108
How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise?
Select one:
a.
As far as can be controlled without compensating
b.
Thighs parallel to the ground
c.
Knees at 80 degrees of flexion
d.
Knees at 90 degrees of flexion
As far as can be controlled without compensating
109
What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions?
Select one:
a.
Quickness
b.
Strength
c.
Speed
d.
Agility
Quickness
110
What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?
Select one:
a.
Concentric
b.
Isometric
c.
Eccentric
d.
Amortization
Amortization
111
Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance?
Select one:
a.
Weight training
b.
Stable floor environment
c.
Biomechanical ankle platform system
d.
Aqua therapy
Biomechanical ankle platform system
112
Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?
Select one:
a.
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
b.
Butt kick
c.
Tuck jump
d.
Power step-up
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
113
If the client cannot reach their foot during a single-leg squat touchdown, which is the first modification that can be employed?
Select one:
a.
Reach to their toes
b.
Reach to their shin
c.
Reach to their knee
d.
Reach to their waist
Reach to their knee
114
Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality?
Select one:
a.
Strength machines
b.
ViPR
c.
Speed ladders
d.
Suspended bodyweight training
ViPR
115
Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for:
Select one:
a.
Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches
b.
Greater support and safety for elderly clients
c.
Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion
d.
Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
Increased spinal extension, due to the curvature of the ball
116
Proprioception is best described as which of the following statements?
Select one:
a.
The brain’s positional awareness of the limbs, head, and trunk both at rest and in movement
b.
The body's ability to sense body position and limb movements
c.
The resistance to the external disruptions to one’s postural equilibrium
d.
Awareness of the body’s position as it moves through multiple planes of motion
The body's ability to sense body position and limb movements
117
During an interview with the hiring manager at a large health club, Sarah, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, is asked how she can contribute as a personal trainer even though she has no formal experience working in the field. What would be the most appropriate response?
Select one:
a.
Sarah discusses her previous work experience in a busy day care, where she had to multitask multiple times a day to perform her job duties. She thinks the multitasking helped prepare her for the demands of a busy fitness floor.
b.
Sarah mentions her experience training for figure competitions. She thinks that experience means that she can help clients train for their competitions.
c.
Sarah discusses her experience as a high school athlete. Because she was a good athlete, she thinks she will be a good personal trainer.
d.
Sarah mentions her experience as a cashier at a snack bar. She thinks this demonstrates her ability to run a cash register and complete daily cash reports.
Sarah discusses her previous work experience in a busy day care, where she had to multitask multiple times a day to perform her job duties. She thinks the multitasking helped prepare her for the demands of a busy fitness floor.
118
Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them?
Select one:
a.
Self-monitoring
b.
Resisting social pressure
c.
Coping responses
d.
Implementation intentions
Coping responses
119
A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a fitness competition and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she wants to win. Which type of motivation is driving her?
Select one:
a.
Affiliation motivation
b.
Autonomy motivation
c.
Extrinsic motivation
d.
Intrinsic motivation
Extrinsic motivation
120
Which of the following is iron considered to be?
Select one:
a.
Vitamin
b.
Macromineral
c.
Performance supplement
d.
Trace mineral
Trace mineral
121
Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site?
Select one:
a.
Troponin
b.
Fascicles
c.
Myosin
d.
Actin
Troponin
122
Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries?
Select one:
a.
Type I
b.
Type IIa
c.
Type IIx
d.
Type III
Type 1
123
Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function?
Select one:
a.
It stimulates actin and myosin activity.
b.
It converts ADP back to ATP.
c.
It helps the nerve impulse cross from the synapse into the muscle.
d.
It helps transmit the motor signal.
It stimulates actin and myosin activity
124
What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber?
Select one:
a.
Short-term contractions
b.
Slow to fatigue
c.
Increased oxygen delivery
d.
Smaller in size
Short term contractions
125
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?
Select one:
a.
A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)
b.
A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
c.
A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
d.
A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line
A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
126
In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure?
Select one:
a.
The cuff is inflated to a value 5 to 10 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
b.
The cuff is inflated to a value 45 to 55 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
c.
The cuff is inflated to a value 70 to 80 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
d.
The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
127
Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo?
Select one:
a.
Speed
b.
Training duration
c.
Rest interval
d.
Intensity
Speed
128
What would be the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 repetitions at 225 pounds?
Select one:
a.
2,250 pounds
b.
675 pounds
c.
6,750 reps
d.
6,750 pounds
6,750 pounds
129
Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?
Select one:
a.
6 to 8 sets
b.
3 or 4 sets
c.
1 or 2 sets
d.
5 or 6 sets
1 or 2 sets
130
Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion?
Select one:
a.
Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing
b.
Moving only the balance leg through a full range of motion
c.
Little motion
d.
No motion
Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing
131
In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?
Select one:
a.
Stage 1 training
b.
Stage 3 training
c.
Stage 2 training
d.
Stage 4 training
Stage 2 training
132
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?
Select one:
a.
0 sessions per week
b.
3 or 4 sessions per week
c.
5 to 7 sessions per week
d.
1 or 2 sessions per week
1 to 2 sessions per week
133
Which of the following is a component of quickness training?
Select one:
a.
Speed
b.
Acceleration
c.
Assessment of visual stimuli
d.
Stride rate
Assessment of visual stimuli
134
What is forecasting?
Select one:
a.
A system for learning about the needs of a potential client to be able to identify and present a number of solutions for those needs
b.
A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal
c.
A relationship in which two people understand each other’s ideas, have respect for one another, and communicate well
d.
A rapport-building technique where fitness professionals walk around the gym floor talking to members without overtly presenting a sale
A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal.
135
Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior?
Select one:
a.
Sport and exercise psychology
b.
Developmental psychology
c.
Social psychology
d.
Health psychology
Sport and exercise psychology
136
What is adaptive thermogenesis?
Select one:
a.
Increased heat production due to changes in energy expenditure
b.
Changes in energy intake due to changes in energy expenditure
c.
Adaptations to exercise due to changes in energy intake
d.
Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake
Metabolic adaptions and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake.
137
What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals?
Select one:
a.
Recovery
b.
Intensity
c.
Volume
d.
Training frequency
Training frequency
138
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?
Select one:
a.
Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation
b.
Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
c.
Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
d.
Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion
Row, external rotation, and shoulder press
139
What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques?
Select one:
a.
Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis
b.
Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension
c.
Cancer and bleeding disorders
d.
Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
140
Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity?
Select one:
a.
Vestibular function
b.
Sensory function
c.
Afferent nerve function
d.
Neuromuscular function
Neuromuscular function
141
What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement?
Select one:
a.
Latissimus dorsi
b.
Erector spinae
c.
Rectus abdominis
d.
Gluteus medius
Erector spinae
142
During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?
Select one:
a.
Amortization
b.
Stabilization
c.
Eccentric
d.
Concentric
Amortization
143
Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?
Select one:
a.
Kinesiology
b.
Osteokinematics
c.
Arthrokinematics
d.
Biomechanics
Arthrokinematics
144
Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.
Select one:
a.
Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.
b.
Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.
c.
Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
d.
Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
145
In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the right equipment and attire to participate safely?
Select one:
a.
Exercise leader
b.
Fitness manager
c.
General manager
d.
Certified Personal Trainer
Exercise leader
146
You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise?
Select one:
a.
90 to 120 seconds
b.
15 to 60 seconds
c.
60 to 90 seconds
d.
0 to 15 seconds
15-60 seconds
147
Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?
Select one:
a.
Core stability
b.
Core endurance
c.
Core power
d.
Core strength
Core strength
