Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ABSITE Qs > Missed Qs > Flashcards

Missed Qs Flashcards

1
Q

Severe acute pancreatitis

A

Multiple Organ Failure, defined as: SBP < 90 Cr > 2.9 GIB PaO2 < 60mmhg Local complications: hemorrhage, abscess, pseudocyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sigmoid volvulus

A

Coffee bean appearance Points to RUQ Elderly who take psychotropic rx Colonic decompression High recurrence, so likely will need colectomy with primary anastamosis`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many weeks of rx mgmt for ulcers before surgery?

A

12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Malignant facial mass

A

Modified radical mastectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many LN do you need for colon cancer resection?

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which vasculature do you need for R side colon cancer?

A

all the way up to the R branch of the middle colic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If doing a left hemicolectomy, what vasculature do you need to ligate?

A

High ligation of the IMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Norepinephrine has what effect?

A

All alpha and BETA-1! So increased contractility and sphlanchnic vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the tx for invasive inflammatory cancer?

A

Neoadjuvant CXRT, MRM (mastectomy + ALND) + XRT +/- endocrine theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ureter injuries b/w UPJ and UP brim (upper 1/3)

A

Ureto-uretostomy with debridement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ureter injuries distal

A

Reimplantation into the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If U-Urertostomy is not possibnle in a HD unstable patient, do..

A

a trans-u-uretostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What sizes of extremity tumor do you differentiate b/w excisional vs longitudinal incisional bx?

A

4cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If a extremity tumor is < 4cm

A

excisional bx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If an extremity tumor is > 4cm

A

longitudinal incisional bx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Do you need negative margins for LCIS?

A

No because it’s not premalignant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do you need to talk to patients about if they have LCIS?

A

Ppx b/l mastectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is GIP released by?

A

K cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does GIP do?

A

Stimulate insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does pnuemoperitoneum do to lungs?

A

Decrease FRC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

DCIS Comedo type characteristics

A
  1. central necrosis 2. lack of cribiform architecture 3. mitotic figures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of hip location is more common? A or P

A

Posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do anterior hip location present?

A

ABduction and ER external rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What happens in Mag tox?

A

Everything goes down! Brady, loss of DTR, hypotension, flaccid paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When you have ovarian carcinomatosis, what is the optimum ovarian residual you want for debulking

A

1cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When do you consider splenic preservation in distal pancreatic ca?

A

benign (NOT AC!) lesions trauma NE tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pericardial window approach?

A

8cm vertical incision along the subxiphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What nutritional marker is better for acute stress?

A

Pre-albumin, given its half life of 2 days (instead of 20 for albumin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Glomus tumor

A

Fingernail, sensitivity to cold, pain on palpation (Love sign), blue-purple mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

An aggressive variant of fibroepithelial lesion is concerning for

A

Phyllodes tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

PPI side effects

A

PNA, gastric cancer, OA-related hip fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the treatment for afferent loop syndrome

A

Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hereditary diffuse gastric cancer

A

CHD1, ppx surgery b/w 18-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How do you divide a carotid body tumor

A

Through a sharp knife adventitial plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What type of arteriotomy do you do for a embolectomy?

A

Transverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What type of diet should hepatic failure patients get?

A

Low in aromatics and high in branched chain LIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a cutting seton? Indication

A

After draining seton. Tightened over regular intervals to cut the tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the order of operations for AV fistula

A

Radiocephalic, brachiocephalic, brachiobasilic, AV graft, then other arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the steps to a Witzel?

A

Pursestring suture, make your enterotomy, insert catheter, tie the purse string shut. Create a serosal tunnel. Pexy to peritoneum. Bring out the stab incision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What types of burns are blanchable?

A

First and superficial second degree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the oxygen extracction ratio

A

(CaO2-CvO2)/CaO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the causes of afferent loop syndrome

A

Volvulus, adhesions, torsion. This is a surgical emergency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is Allen’s test? When do you do it?

A

Assesses collateralization b/w radial and ulnar palmar branches. Do before every radial artery catheterization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What type of arteriotomy do you perform for a embolectomy?

A

Transverse (reduces stenosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How do you treat an uncomplicated groin pseudoaneurysm?

A

US guided thrombin injection into the pseudoaneurysm directly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When do you use ppx abx in cirrhotics? (2)

A

GI hemorrhage and low protein (<10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What anticoagulation metric do you use during a CABG?

A

ACT- Activated Clotting Time (goal 400-500 seconds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What population do you consider an emergent trach in vs a crich

A

Pediatrics! (cricoid is too narrow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the definition of power

A

1-beta (1- type 2 error) the probability of rejecting the null when there truly is a difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing reflux-induced respiratory complaints?

A

Dual ambulatory pH probe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the types of gastric carcinoid tumors?

A

Type 1- slow growing, associated with chronic gastritis, rarely met Type 2- ZES, slow but met Type 3- fast, met

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the risk factors for failed TRAM flap

A

Smoking and obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the most important survival factor for adrenal ca surgery?

A

Adequacy of resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the treatment of TTP?

A

Plasmapharesis FAT RN symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What type of incision for a felon?

A

Vertical incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the superior imaging modality for peri-ampullary mass?

A

EUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the false positive rate of PET scans?

A

10-20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Lab findings for lymphoma

A

Elevated LDH, beta 2 microglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the difference b/w primary and secondary contraction in grafts?

A

Primary- immediate, d/t skin elastin (more in full thickness) Secondary- wound bed over time (more in split thickness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the Siewart classifications of the stomach cancer?

A
  1. Type 1- within 1-5cm from GEJ 2. Type 2- within cardia 3. Type 3- below cardia Treat Types 1 and 2 like Esophageal cancer, have to do esophegogastrectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When is resection for non small cell cancer contraindicated

A

N3

62
Q

What is the Haggitt classification

A

Invasion of cancer into polyp 1. Head 2. Neck 3. Any part 4. Sessile polyps

63
Q

What is the treatment for SMA syndrome?

A

Duo-J

64
Q

What size tumor for pseudomyxoma peritonei do you have to debulk?

A

2mm anything less you can just HIPEC (41degreesC)

65
Q

What state of cells reduces radiation treatment

A

hypoxic (O2 prolongs free radicals) G2,M are hte most sensitive n

66
Q

What type of feeding do you give to the stomach? Jejunum?

A

Bolus to stomach, intermittent or continuous to everything else

67
Q

What type of sutures for the heart?

A

Pledgeted, non-absorbable

68
Q

What type of cardiac repairs require ECMO?

A

Coronary artery

69
Q

How do you repair peripheral lung trauma?

A

Wedge resection

70
Q

Can you transect the hepatic artery?

A

Yes because collateral blood flow from portal system

71
Q

Tx of pneumatocele in HDS patient

A

Leave alone, but watch because it can get infected

72
Q

Subclavian access

A

R: median sternotomy L: anterolateral thoracotomy

73
Q

How do you repair a diaphragmatic injury?

A

Abdominal approach, interrupted horizontal mattress, non-absorbable sutures

74
Q

What’s the best way to control pain for flail chest patient?

A

Epidural (reduce chance of intubation for elderly)

75
Q

What injury are you concerned about for neck seatbelt sign?

A

Laryngotracheal injury

76
Q

What is the ideal tidal volume for intubated patients?

A

4-6ml/kg of IDEAL body weight

77
Q

Which renal vein can you ligate?

A

LEFT, because of collaterals. Right you have to do nephrectomy

78
Q

What ventilator patients should NOT get a percutaneous dilation tracheostomy?

A

High reqs- FiO2>60% or PEEP > 12mmHg

79
Q

What do you do with a RP bleed that is not stopped with a Pringle?

A

Pack it

80
Q

Occluded renal artery in a HDS patient

A

Observe (revascularized patients don’t do well)

81
Q

What is a complication of mid thoracic esophageal injury during endoscopy?

A

TENSION PTX!

82
Q

What are normal CO levels?

A

5% nonsmokers 10% smokers 20% AMS 60% brain death

83
Q

When should you close a fasciotomy?

A

7-10 days, otherwise you will need a skin graft

84
Q

What do you do for penile shaft injuries?

A

Put in a foley and primary repair

85
Q

What is the management for fight bites?

A

Admit, IV ABX d/t concern of deep space infections, septic arthritis, osteo

86
Q

what type of collagen is in keloids? hypertrophic scars?

A

Keloids= disorganized type 1 and 3; hyperstrophic=type 3

87
Q

What to do for a simple PTX patient before surgery?

A

Chest tube! Risk of tension PTX during positive pressure

88
Q

what type of surgery for mid thoracic esophageal injury?

A

RIGHT POSTEROLATERAL incision

89
Q

Rehab for Tendon rupture in finger

A

Active rehab (although concern for risk of tendon rupture)

90
Q

What to look for if gluteal injury in trauma?

A

Vaginal, rectal, urethral imaging

91
Q

What do you have to do if you ligate the IVC?

A

Elevate legs, wrap them, fasciotomy if pressure > 30mmgHg, prevent edema at all costs

92
Q

IVC repair in HDS patient

A

Vein patch! Just make sure you prevent hourglass narrowing of IVC, which can cause thrombosis

93
Q

What type of bacteria infect catheters of short gut patients?

A

GNR

94
Q

What are you concerned about long term after caustic (lye) injury to esophagus?

A

SCC 15 years down the road. Get endoscopic surveillance then

95
Q

How many LN do you need to resect for colon cancer?

A

12

96
Q

What type of incision do you do to expose the trachea and mainstem bronchi?

A

RIGHT thoracotomy for both (left for distal left bronchus)

97
Q

What is diagnostic for DPL?

A

100,000RBC/mL, 10mL blood, 500 WBC/mL

98
Q

What is jersey finger?

A

Tendon of flexor digitorum profundus. Need surgical repair!

99
Q

Simple extra-peritoneal bladder management? Complicatd?

A

Simple= Foley. Complicated= open surgery. Complicated defined as vaginal or rectal damage, unstable pelvic fx with concern of bone in bladder, uncontrolled hematuria

100
Q

Extending zone 1 neck injury incision should go to?

A

Median sternotomy

101
Q

Benefit of spleen preserving distal panc

A

Shorter hospital stay (no mortality benefit)

102
Q

Chronic steroid use

A

Poor wound healing. Lysosome stability. Treat with vitamin A

103
Q

When after post-splenectomy patient do you give vaccines? Follow up?

A

within 2 weeks after trauma (2 weeks before for elective). 4-6 years later after operation you need additional pneumo and meningo vaccs. Also again at 65.

104
Q

Mgmt for radial artery occlusion? Ulnar?

A

Radial= observe Ulnar= revascularize

105
Q

What types of aortic zone injuries need to be reexplored?

A

All penetrating Zone 2

106
Q

What do you do if youre concerned intra-op about an esophageal injury but cant see it?

A

Flex esophagoscopy

107
Q

Perimortem C section?

A

< 4 minutes, but no latera thn 20 minutes

108
Q

What is the concern about a mesenteric tear?

A

Internal hernia

109
Q

What margins do you need for gastric cancer?

A

`5cm margins

110
Q

What are the microsatellites for Lynch syndrome?

A

MSH2, MLH1

111
Q

What is ipilimumab?

A

CTLA-4 mAb

112
Q

What is the purpose of omental sling?

A

To reduce radiation colitis

113
Q

Mechanism of HER2+

A

Tyrosine kinase

114
Q

When do you start screening for Lynch?

A

Age 20. Coloscopy and endomatrial TVUS

115
Q

When is it okay to omit radiiation therapy in breast cancer?

A

Age 70, T1, ER+ so getting hormone therapy, no other cancer, no nodes

116
Q

Breast acncer over nipple. Mastectomy?

A

Neo-adjuvant chemo first to reduce size

117
Q

What is Li Fraumeni associated with?

A

p53 and hCHK2

118
Q

What is bevacizumab used for

A

VEGF. Angiogenesis

119
Q

FOLFOX indications

A

Colorectal cancer Fluoro-uracil Oxiplatin Leukovorin

120
Q

What does cetuximab do?

A

EGFR bind

121
Q

for monoclonal Ab, what is constant and variable

A

Human is constant, murine is variable

122
Q

What is Bev Fox

A

used for metastatic colon cancer

123
Q

What is the dose for c diff rx

A

Oral vanc, 125mg QID PO x 10 days

124
Q

Dx for chylothorax

A

Pleural TG > 110mg/dL

125
Q

What are the T stages for lung cancer

A

T1= <3cm, T3 >3cm but >2cm away from carina, T3 close to carina or local pleural/pericardial invasion, T4= great vessel invasion

126
Q

What is SVC syndrome on CT

A

Non-opacification inferior, and opacification of collateral vessels of the chest

127
Q

What is the result of histoplasmosis

A

Fibrosis mediastinitis

128
Q

What T stage is pleural effusion malignant

A

T4. No resection

129
Q

How often will sPTX reoccur

A

60%

130
Q

chylothorax in a poor surgical candidate

A

angioembolization

131
Q

What is the tx for small cell lung cancer

A

Etoposide, cisplatin

132
Q

What is the tx for non-small cell

A

Taxol, carboplatin

133
Q

What mediastinal structures are anterior

A

Innominate a/v, R pulmonary atery

134
Q

What do you do for malignant SVC syndrome

A

XRT

135
Q

What are the types of bronchial adenomas

A

Mucous, Mucoepidermoid (both slow, not many mets) Adenoid (fast, responsive, perineural invasion)

136
Q

What size PTX do you do a hest tube

A

3cm

137
Q

Palliative thoracentesis

A

Tunneled pleural catheter

138
Q

How much fluid is required to show blunting of the costophrenic angle

A

300mL

139
Q

What is the most common cardiac tumor in kids

A

Rhadomyoma. Associated with tuberous sclerosis. Often multiple.

140
Q

How do you treat HOCM

A

Fluid resus and beta blockers

141
Q

What lab value will you see in CBD distal tumors

A

Vitamin K deficiency –> increased PT

142
Q

How do you treat proximal bile duct injury

A

HJ

143
Q

How do you test Sphincter of Oddi dysfunction

A

Morphine/Neostigmine (Nardi) test

144
Q

How do Klatskin tumors present

A

Painless jaundice and pruritis

145
Q

What is cholesterolosis

A

no shadow, pedunculated, hyperechoic, non mobile

146
Q

when do you ppx cholecystectomy

A

sickle cell patients not in active crisis

147
Q

Tokyo guidelines for GB

A

Grade 2 disease is usually characterized by an elevated white blood cell count; a palpable, tender mass in the right upper abdominal quadrant; disease duration of more than 72 hours; and imaging studies indicating significant inflammatory changes in the gallbladder. Grade 3 (severe acute cholecystitis) is defined as acute cholecystitis with organ dysfunction.

148
Q

Gallstone ileus, repair

A

2 surgeries. Take out stone. Let cool down. Then do repair of fistula. But watch out risk of cholangitis.

149
Q

GIST

A

CD117, C-kit, Interstitial cells of Cajal (NE)

submucosa involvement. Will look like a posterior wall bulge with normal mucosa.

R0 margins

150
Q
A

ABSITE Qs (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions