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(Q3) MA 31: Allied Health Career Preparation > Missed NCCT Questions > Flashcards

Missed NCCT Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Unless public safety is involved, what is required in all cases to release patient medical records after a subpoena is issued?

A: The patient’s written conent
B: A court order
C: A deposition
D: An interrogatory

A

A: The patient’s written conent

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2
Q

Accordint to typical statutes of limitations involving negligence or malpractice, which of the following time points is NOT used as a starting point?

A: When the negligent act occurred
B: When the negligent act was revealed
C: When the litigant filed a claim
D: When treatment was terminated

A

C: When the litigant filed a claim

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3
Q

In the USA, what do most people consider a comfortable personal space for dealing on a personal (not intimate) level with another individual?

A: Between 0 and 1.5 feet
B: Between 1.5 and 4 feet
C: Between 4 and 12 feet
D: Between 12-15 feet

A

B: Between 1.5 and 4 feet

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4
Q

According to Maslow’s herarchy of needs, what is the first level of need that people must satisfy before all others?

A: Physiological and survival needs
B: Necessities for safety and security
C: Needs related to loving and belonging
D: Conditions promoting prestige and esteem

A

A: Physiological and survival needs

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5
Q

The 4 stages of job burnout, in order, are…

A: Value, ambiguity, overload, conflict
B: Value, reality, dissatisfaction, detachment
C: Dissatisfaction, reality, crisis, devaluation
D: Honeymoon, reality, dissatisfaction, crisis

A

D: Honeymoon, reality, dissatisfaction, crisis

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6
Q

According to Dr. Kubler-Ross, what are the most likely stages of grief experienced by a patient with a life-threatening illness, in order?

A: Denial, bargaining, anger, depression, acceptance
B: Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
C: Acceptance of reality, experience of pain, adjustment, development of a new reality
D: Denial, followed by any number of stages, leading to acceptance in the end

A

B: Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

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7
Q

If an office manager is using a teamwork approach, what is the first step in getting the team started?

A: Brainstorming with the team
B: Developing a work statement with the team
C: Looking at benchmarks from other institutions
D: Developing a time frame and standards for goal achievement

A

B: Developing a work statement with the team

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8
Q

As an office manager, when is the best time to carry out a salary review for employees?

A: At the same time as their performance evaluation
B: When the employee asks for a salary review
C: At the beginning of each year
D: When the office experience changes in funding

A

C: At the beginning of each year

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9
Q

Medical assistants and other individuals who handle finances in the medical office should:

A: Be bonded
B: Maintain liability insurance
C: Be registered
D: Be licensed

A

A: Be bonded

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10
Q

When must federal and state taxes related to employee wages be paid?

A: Monthly
B: Quarterly
C: At the end of the year
D: Upon filing of W-2 form

A

B: Quarterly

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11
Q

What are the main inorganic nutrients that act as antioxidants?

A: Vitamin K and folic acid
B: Vitmain D and the minerals calcium and phosphorus
C: Viatmins A, C, and E, and the mineral selenium
D: Several B-complex vitamins and the minerals phosphorus, magnesium, and sulfur

A

C: Viatmins A, C, and E, and the mineral selenium

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12
Q

What is the cardiovascular disease in which arteries narrow due to inner deposition of cholesterol and fat?

A: Hypertension
B: Atherosclerosis
C: Arteriosclerosis
D: Myocardial infarction

A

B: Atherosclerosis

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13
Q

Which of the following characteristic does NOT distinguish a virus from all other types of microorganisms?

A: A virus can only reproduce within another type of living cell
B: Viruses are pathogenic
C: Viruses produce spores
D: Viruses cannot be observed directly under a light microscope

A

C: Viruses produce spores

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14
Q

Whic of the following currently available vaccines are contraindicated in pregnant women, immunocompromised patients, and those with active AIDS?

A: MMR
B: MMR and influenza
C: MMR, varicella, and zooster
D: Hepatitis A and B

A

C: MMR, varicella, and zooster

b/c contain live attenuated virsuses and all are immunocompromised

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15
Q

Pathogenic microorganisms, cancer cells, and transplanted tissues are initially recognized as forgein by…

A: Macrophages and helper T cells
B: B cells
C: Memory and killer T cells
D: Immunoglobulins

A

A: Macrophages and helper T cells

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16
Q

A streptooccal infection might be linked to all of the following circulatory disorers EXCEPT…

A: Rheumatic fever
B: Mitral valve stenosis
C: CHF
D: Varicose veins

A

D: Varicose veins

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17
Q

Which of the following is a contagious skin disorder characterized by pustules and caused by stahylococci and/or streptococci?

A: Dermatitis
B: Dermatophytosis
C: Impetigo
D: Psoriasis

A

C: Impetigo

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18
Q

The purpose of immunotherapy for allergies is to use extracts of allergens to…

A: Induce production of blocking IgG-class antibodies towards the allergens
B: Induce production of IgE-class antibodies towards the allergens
C: Generally build up the immune system
D: Use immunomodulation to suppress the immune system

A

A: Induce production of blocking IgG-class antibodies towards the allergens

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19
Q

Which of the following urinary tract disorders should be suspected if a patient has the chills, fever, abrupt back pain, and tenderness in the suprapubic region?

A: Cystitis
B: Glomerulonephritis
C: Pyelonephritis
D: Renal calculi

A

C: Pyelonephrtis

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20
Q

Which of the following functions is NOT performed by the kidneys?

A: Regulation of water and acid-base balance
B: Filtration of the blood to remove waste
C: Regulation of blood pressure
D: Collection and storage prior to urinary excretion

A

D: Collection and storage prior to urinary excretion

that would be the bladder

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21
Q

Which of the following correctly lists the parts of the large intestine, in order?

A: Cecum, colon, and rectum
B: Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum
C: Ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colons
D: Live, gall bladder, and pancrease

A

A: Cecum, colon, and rectum

option c lists the parts of the colon

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22
Q

What is the chief cause of blindness in the USA?

A: Retinal detachment
B: Glaucoma
C: Diabetic retinopathy
D: Presbyopia

A

C: Diabetic retinopathy

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23
Q

The gel occupying space between the lens and retina of the eye is called the…

A: Fovea centralis
B: Vitreous body
C: Sclera
D: Aqueous humor

A

B: Vitreous body

aka vitreous humor

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24
Q

Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of epistaxis?

A: Allergic rhinitis
B: Blunt force
C: Hypertension
D: Childbirth

A

D: Childbirth

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25
Q

Viral infections have been associated with which of the following neurologic disorders?

A: Cerebral palsy
B: Trigeminal neuralgia
C: Reye’s syndrome
D: Huntington’s disease

A

C: Reye’s syndrome

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26
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of CVA?

A: A loss of blood to the brain, depriving it of oxygen
B: Direct impairement of crainal nerves
C: Symptoms like loss of consciousness and paralysis
D: Being caused by hemorrhage or blockage of a blood vessel

A

B: Direct impairement of crainal nerves

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27
Q

Which of the following injuries and conditions is NOT known to cause paralysis?

A: Spinal cord injury
B: Stroke
C: Poliomyelitis
D: De Quervain’s syndrome

A

D: De Quervain’s syndrome

De Quervain musculoskeletal disorder with no paralysis

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28
Q

What is capitation?

A: A payment system in whch the health care provider is paid a fixed fee per patient
B: A payment system in which the health care provider is paid a specific fee for a particular service
C: Payment for the full fee for health care services by the patient
D: Payment for health care services by the government through Medicare

A

A: A payment system in whch the health care provider is paid a fixed fee per patient

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29
Q

The resource-based relative value scale (RBRVS) is used to…

A: Coordinate with Medigap policies
B: Determine whether a Medicare payment is PAR or non-PAR
C: Calculate Medicare payments
D: Determine practice overhead

A

C: Calculate Medicare payments

RBRVS = Medicare, Response B = PAR and non-PAR

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30
Q

Which of the following is the medical insurance program that covers active-duty military service members?

A: CHAMPVA
B: TRICARE Prime
C: TRICARE Extra
D: TRICARE Standard

A

B: TRICARE Prime

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31
Q

When is patient health information that is transmitted via telephone call or fax subject to the security rule under the HIPAA regarding electronic transmission?

A: Always
B: Never
C: When that informaion was derived from electronically stored information
D: When the patient has signed a privacy agreement

A

C: When that information was derived from electronically stored information

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32
Q

The relative value units (RVUs) issued for a particular service fee under Medicare are computed using which of the following factors?

A: Rates determined by a senate subcommitee
B: The provider rate for the service, pracitce expenses, malpractice expenses, and adjustors like the geographic practice cost index and the Budget Neutrality Adjuster
C: Standard national codes
D: Sliding fees within an acceptable range

A

B: The provider rate for the service, pracitce expenses, malpractice expenses, and adjustors like the geographic practice cost index and the Budget Neutrality Adjuster

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33
Q

According to the CPT system, what is the procedure to change a code for billing a medical procedure to reflect that the service lasted longer than described?

A: Enter the code twice
B: Add a plus sign (+) before the code
C: Use an unlisted code and add a report
D: Use a category III code

A

B: Add a plus sign (+) before the code

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34
Q

Which medical insurance coding system should be used when billing Medicare or Medicaid?

A: ICD-10-CM
B: CPT
C: HCPCS
D: V codes

A

C: HCPCS

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35
Q

Which of the following is the general format for decribing a diagnosis due to disease under the ICD-10-CM system?

A: 3-character coding for the diagnosis, starting with a letter; may be followed by a decimal point with a one- or two-digit modifier
B: 3-digit coding for the diagnosis, followed by a decimal point, and then a one-or two-digit modifier
C: A 5-digit numeric code plus two-digit modifiers if required
D: A 7-digit alphanumeric code

A

A: 3-character coding for the diagnosis, starting with a letter; may be followed by a decimal point with a one- or two-digit modifier

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36
Q

Which of the following is the standard claim form to be completed for situations such as inpatient admissions, emergency department services, and walk-in facilities?

A: CMS-1500 (08-05)
B: Uniform Bill 04 (UB-04)
C: Authorization for Release of Medical Information
D: Encounter Form

A

B: Uniform Bill 04 (UB-04)

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37
Q

When can Medicare patients be held responsible for paying out-of-pocket expenses in addition to what is paid by the government?

A: Never
B: If they sign a written waiver
C: If they sign an Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN)
D: In any situation that is beyond the scope of Medicare

A

C: If they sign an Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN)

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38
Q

Which of the following is the most commonly used manual system of managing a patient’s account?

A: Patient ledger
B: Encounter form
C: Posting system
D: Pegboard system

A

D: Pegboard system

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39
Q

The primary reason to keep day sheets and month-end sheets is to maintain accurate records of…

A: Accounts receivable for the practice
B: Accounts payable for the practice
C: Individual patient accounts
D: Receipts

A

A: Accounts receivable for the practice

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40
Q

An accounting software package that computerizes every aspect of running a medical facility is known as a…

A: Single-entry system
B: Double-entry system
C: Computer service bureau
D: TPMS

A

D: TPMS

total practice management system

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41
Q

If a practice uses an accrual basis for income reporting, when is the income recorded?

A: The date the money was collected
B: The date the charges were accrued
C: The completion date for treatment
D: A convenient date every month

A

B: The date the charges were accrued

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42
Q

Which of the following is a fidelity bond purchased to guard against embezzlement or other financial loss caused by any employee of a practice?

A: Position-schedule bond
B: Personal bond
C: Blanket-position bond
D: Total-practice bond

A

C: Blanket-position bond

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43
Q

Which of the following is a good estimate of the number of chairs needed in a waiting room?

A: As many as will fit
B: One and a half seats per exam room
C: Two seats per provider per their hourly turnover
D: Two seats per appointment scheduled per hour

A

C: Two seats per provider per their hourly turnover

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44
Q

When needed for administrative or medical purposes, a medical assistant can always discuss information about a patient with the patient’s…

A: Parent or legal guardian
B: Employer
C: Insurance carriers
D: Attorney

A

A: Parent or legal guardian

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45
Q

What is an accession record?

A: A cross-reference method used in a numeric filing system
B: A record in a numeric filing system in which a journal or computer listing with predetermined numbers assigns patient or other records
C: The order of filing used in alphabetic filing
D: The rationale for the filing system used in subject filing

A

B: A record in a numeric filing system in which a journal or computer listing with predetermined numbers assigns patient or other records

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46
Q

Which of the following is the letter style in which all of the lines commence at the left margin except the date, complimentary closure, and keyed signature, which start near the center?

A: Simplified
B: Full block
C: Standard modified block
D: Indented modified block

A

C: Standard modified block

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47
Q

Which of the following statements regarding mail sent under the postal class of bulk mail is NOT true?

A: Use of bulk mail required the organization to pay an annual fee
B: Bulk mail can be sent by first-class mail, standard mail, parcel post mail, or as bound printed matter
C: Bulk mail can be picked up by the postal service at the medical facility
D: There are rules regarding the format of bulk mail

A

C: Bulk mail can be picked up by the postal service at the medical facility

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48
Q

The OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard applies to contact with:

A: Blood and all body fluids
B: Blood and all body fluids, secretions, and excretions
C: The items in response B plus non-intact skin and mucous membranes
D: The items in response C plus unfixed human tissue and tissue culture, cells, or fluid known to be positive for HIV, HBV, or HCV

A

D: The items in response C plus unfixed human tissue and tissue culture, cells, or fluid known to be positive for HIV, HBV, or HCV

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49
Q

The preferred method for disposal of sharps is to:

A: Use the scoop technique
B: Put them into a puncture-proof sharps container marked biohazard
C: Put them in a metal pan for later sterilization
D: Recap the sharp and then put it in a sharps container

A

B: Put them into a puncture-proof sharps container marked biohazard

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50
Q

Which of the following best describes the use of chemical germicidal agents on surfaces to kill most microorganisms?

A: Sanitization
B: Disinfection
C: Sterilization
D: Antisepsis

A

B: Disinfection

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51
Q

What is the sequence for removing potentially contaminating personal protective equipment when exiting an isolation room?

A: Remove gown and gloves, remove goggles, remove mask, wash hands
B: Remove gown, remove goggles, remove mask, remove gloves, wash hands
C: Remove mask, remove goggles, remove gloves, remove gown
D: Remove gloves, wash hands, remove gown, remove mask

A

A: Remove gown and gloves, remove goggles, remove mask, wash hands

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52
Q

Which of the following sterilization processes is most appropriate for a heat-sensitive item such as a fiber-optic endoscope?

A: Gas sterilization
B: Dry heat sterilization
C: Chemical sterilization
D: Steam sterilization

A

C: Chemical sterilization

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53
Q

Which of the following types of quality control is recommended by the CDC for checking the effectiveness of steam sterilization by an autoclave?

A: Autoclave tape
B: Sterilization strips placed in the wrapped package
C: Biological indicators with strps or ampules containing bacteria, which are later cultured
D: Biological indicators with strips or ampules containing heat-resistant bacterial spores, which are later cultured

A

D: Biological indicators with strips or ampules containing heat-resistant bacterial spores, which are later cultured

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54
Q

How do Mayo dissecting scissors differ from all other types of surgical scissors?

A: Their tips have beveled, not blunt or sharp, edges
B: They are actually knives used to cut skin
C: One of the tips has a notched blade
D: Their blades are very delicate

A

A: Their tips have beveled, not blunt or sharp, edges

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55
Q

Which of the following is a sterile cream designed for topical application on burns and other abrasion wounds?

A: Povidone-iodine
B: Silver sulfadiazine
C: Chlorhexidine
D: Hydrogen peroxide

A

B: Silver sulfadiazine

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56
Q

Epinephrine is often added to injectable anesthetics because it is a:

A: Vasoconstrictor
B: Vasodilator
C: Mild anesthetic
D: Monitor of anesthesia effectiveness

A

A: Vasoconstrictor

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57
Q

Which of the following is a type of open would in which skin structures are torn off or away?

A: Laceration
B: Avulsion
C: Puncture
D: Incision

A

B: Avulsion

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58
Q

Blood pressure is a function of all of the following EXCEPT:

A: How strong the heart muscle is
B: The elasticity of the arteries
C: The size of the lumen of the arteries
D: The ejection fraction

A

D: The ejection fraction

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59
Q

How should a blood pressure measurement be recorded on an adult patient’s chart?

A: Systolic pressure/diastolic pressure
B: Systolic pressure/diastolic pressure, arm used, patient position
C: Diastolic pressure/systolic pressure
D: Diastolic pressure/systolic pressure, arm used, patient position

A

B: Systolic pressure/diastolic pressure, arm used, patient position

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60
Q

During a physical examination, the provider may use a tongue depressor and light souce to check for any of the following EXCEPT

A: Dential hygiene along the teeth and gums
B: Selling of the tonsils and uvula
C: Functioning of the cranial nerve XI
D: Functioning of cranial nerves IX and X

A

C: Functioning of the cranial nerve XI

XI: Accessory- tested by asking pt to shrug their shoulders

61
Q

During examination of the abdomen, which of the following observations is NOT a cause for concern?

A: Palpable liver or spleen
B: Presence of bowel sounds
C: Presence of masses
D: Abdominal distension

A

B: Presence of bowel sounds

62
Q

During the prenatal visit, a women’s obstetrical history should be recorded as:

A: One number for gravidity, then one number for parity
B: One number for gravidity, then four numbers separated by dashes under the FPAL system for parity
C: Either A or B
D: One number for gravidity, then one number for total previous live births

A

C: Either A or B

gravidity = total #, no matter outcome, parity = # to pt of viability

63
Q

According to the Bethesda system of classifying Pap tests, how should potential malignancy, defined as squamous cell carcinoma, be classified?

A: CIN 3
B: Category 2, subgroup 1a
C: Category 2, subgroup 1c
D: Category 3

A

C: Category 2, subgroup 1c

64
Q

Wet preps/mounts and potassium hydroxide preps are performed in order to:

A: Screen for chlamydia and gonorrhea
B: Ascertain the cause of vaginitis in women or urethritis in men
C: Diagnose conditions such as endometriosis or fibroids
D: Biopsy for malignancies

A

B: Ascertain the cause of vaginitis in women or urethritis in men

65
Q

When performing a urinary catheterization on a female patient, which of the following should NOT be done?

A: Use sterile gloves to maintain sterility of both hands thoroughout
B: Wipe each portion of the labia with antiseptic-soaked cotton balls in a front-to-back motion
C: Have the patient in a dorsal lithotomy position during the procedure
D: Use sterile lubricant on the catheter tip prior to insertion

A

A: Use sterle gloves to maintain sterility of both hands thoroughout

Only dominant hand retains sterility b/c provider wipes genitalia

66
Q

Which of the following pulmonary funtion tests is a good indication of the extent of someone’s asthma or other respiratory disorder?

A: Forced vital capacity (FVC)
B: Forced expiratory volume at one second (FEV1)
C: Mean expiratory flow rate (MEFR)
D: Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)

A

D: Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)

67
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)?

A: A value of 25 mm/hour is always considered abnormal
B: An ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) or sodium citrate venous blood sample is used
C: The test must be read at precisely 60-minutes
D: The test should be performed within two-hours of the blood draw

A

A: A value of 25 mm/hour is always considered abnormal

68
Q

A patient can bear only partial weight on one leg. Which of the following types of gait should this use on a crutch?

A: Two-point gait
B: Three-point gait
C: Four-point gait
D: Swing-to gait

A

B: Three-point gait

all other options, pt bears weight on both legs

69
Q

Which of the following is a range of motion (ROM) exercise that involves a motion directed away from the body’s midline?

A: Flexion
B: Rotation
C: Abduction
D: Adduction

A

C: Abduction

70
Q

A “3” in the blue diamond on a chemical label indicates that the chemical is:

A: A flammable liquid
B: Reactive with water
C: A corrosive or toxic health hazard
D: Potentially explosive near a spark or if heated

A

C: A corrosive or toxic health hazard

71
Q

If the laboratory tests to be performed require a serum sample, a venipuncture specimen should be collected in a tube with what color top?

A: Red top or red-gray mottled top
B: Lavender top or blue top
C: Dark green top
D: Light gray top

A

A: Red top or red-gray mottled top

72
Q

In evacuated blood collection tubes, which of the following additives is in the yellow top tube?

A: citric acid
B: EDTA
C: ACD
D: heparin

A

C: ACD

Acid citrate dextrose

73
Q

Flow charts, progress notes, and narrative notation are all examples of…

A: medical record charting styles.
B: patient chart filing systems.
C: recording patient information in a medical record.
D: patient documentation in a SOAP format.

A

C: recording patient information in a medical record.

74
Q

Which of the following forms of medication can be administered vaginally?

A: Transdermal and buccal
B: Creams and buccal
C: Creams and suppositories
D: Transdermal and suppositories

A

C: Creams and suppositories

75
Q

Which of the following forms must be signed by the patient and kept on file, allowing physicians to be paid directly from the insurance carrier?

A: HIPAA waiver
B: CMS-1500
C: Assignment of benefits
D: Living will

A

C: Assignment of benefits

76
Q

While emptying the autoclave, the medical assistant notices that the wrapped instruments are damp. The medical assistant should…

A: remove the instruments and set them on the counter to dry.
B: remove the instruments and place them on the Mayo stand for surgery.
C: leave the instruments in the autoclave with the door slightly open to finish drying.
D: leave the instruments in the autoclave and run the cycle again.

A

C: leave the instruments in the autoclave with the door slightly open to finish drying.

77
Q

The medical assistant receives a call from an attorney requesting information about an established patient’s operative report. Which of the following actions is required prior to fulfilling the request?

A: Call the patient to request verbal consent.
B: Check the patient’s file for authorization of release of information listing the name of the attorney.
C: Ask for the name and number of the attorney and return the call to confirm the identity of the caller.
D: Refer the call to be handled by the physician directly to prevent liability.

A

B: Check the patient’s file for authorization of release of information listing the name of the attorney.

78
Q

Which of the following techniques is correct when collecting a throat culture?

A: Depress the patient’s tongue and place the swab in a viral media tube following collection.
B: Insert swab into the nostril and rub against the turbinate to absorb mucous.
C: Use a tongue depressor and swab both sides of the throat.
D: Swab both sides of the mouth, tongue, and nasopharnyx.

A

C: Use a tongue depressor and swab both sides of the throat.

79
Q

Which of the following types of appointment scheduling would be the best method for an office with standard hours, multiple practitioners, and accommodating work-in appointments?

A: Clustering
B: Open office hours
C: Double booking
D: Wave

A

D: Wave

80
Q

Sterilized instruments should be stored

A: for a maximum of 90 days.
B: with the tape side down to avoid susceptibility to contamination.
C: for a maximum of 10 days.
D: in a temperature controlled environment to prevent moisture accumulation.

A

D: in a temperature controlled environment to prevent moisture accumulation.

81
Q

A patient with diabetes has missed all scheduled appointments in the past 18 months. The physician requests that written notification be sent to the patient to make an appointment immediately. This letter should be sent

A: priority.
B: certified.
C: express.
D: standard.

A

B: certified.

82
Q

Which of the following blood components are visible in a centrifuged, evacuated red top tube? (Select the two (2) correct answers.)

A: Plasma
B: Serum
C: Individual erythrocytes
D: Platelets
E: Coagulated blood (blood clot)

A

B: Serum
and E: Coagulated blood (blood clot)

83
Q

A: Purchase order
B: Inventory list
C: Packing slip
D: Order number

A

A: Purchase order

84
Q

The patient complains of joint pain and swelling. The physician wants to remove synovial fluid for analysis. The medical assistant should set up for which of the following procedures?

A: Arthrocentesis
B: Arthroscopy
C: Arthrodesis
D: Arthrogram

A

A: Arthrocentesis

85
Q

While performing a Snellen visual acuity test, the patient misses two letters on the 20/70 line with his right eye. How should the medical assistant document this finding?

A: Snellen chart OD 20/70-2
B: Snellen chart OD 20/80
C: Snellen chart OS 20/80
D: Snellen chart OS 20/70-2

A

A: Snellen chart OD 20/70-2

86
Q

The medical assistant should administer nitroglycerin by which of the following methods?
A: Buccal
B: Sublingual
C: Intramuscular
D: Intradermal

A

B: Sublingual

87
Q

A person who throws a book at a wall during an argument and blames her partner for hostile bvehavior is displaying which typ[e of defense mechanism?

A: Projection
B: Regression
C: Compartmentalization
D: Acting Out

A

A: Projection

88
Q

Which of the following is not an appropriate method of communication to someone who is hearing impaired?

A: Hand gestures
B: Pantomiming
C: Speaking especialy loudly
D: Drawing pictures

A

C: Speaking especialy loudly

89
Q

According to Erikson’s phychosocial stages of development, when does the conflict identity v role confusion occur?

A: Adolescence
B: Young adulthood
C: Middle Adulthood
D: Young childhood

A

A: Adolescence

90
Q

According to Erikon’s psychosocial stages of developmnent, which of the following people would be facing their conflict of initiative v guilt?

A: 6 YO
B: 16 YO
C: 26 YO
D: 36 YO

A

A: 6 YO

91
Q

According to Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development, which of the following people would be facing the conflict of generativity v stagnation?

A: 10 YO
B: 30 YO
C: 45 YO
D: 70

A

C: 45 YO

92
Q

A person nearby appears to be choking and having difficulty breathing. Which of the following is the initial step of care?

A: Call 911
B: Ask the person if they are OK
C: Initiate chest compressions
D: Apply the Heimlich maneuver

A

B: Ask the person if they are OK

93
Q

A young women who was unhappy with her physician’s care decided to seek revenge by falsely accusing him of molesting her during a physical exam. What type of crime did she commit?

A: Abuse
B: Libel
C: Medical malpractice
D: Assult

A

B: Libel

94
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate-sized needed to use for a routine venipuncture?

A: 14G needle
B: 16G needle
C: 18G needle
D: 20G needle

A

D: 20G needle

20-25G needle should be used in routine procedures

95
Q

Which of the following terms refer to money owed to the physician by the patient?

A: Accounts receivable
B: Payment summary
C: Accounts payable
D: Itemized bill

A

A: Accounts receivable

96
Q

Which of the following is used as a part of the US Medicare reimbursement formula for physician services?

A: Effective measure unit (EMU)
B: Work reimbursement measure (WRM)
C: Work value measure (WVM)
D: Relative value unit (RVU)

A

D: Relative value unit (RVU)

97
Q

What is the purpose of the relative value unit (RVU)?

A: Used to help determine productivity
B: Measure the number of certain diagnoses
C: Calculates the possible length of hospital stay
D: Estimates insurance rates

A

A: Used to help determine productivity

RVUs part of system Medicare uses to decide on Dr reimbursements

98
Q

What is a waiver of liability?

A: A waiver that releases a person or facility from blame if an adverse evcent occurs
B: A notice that a service made may not be covered by Medicare
C: Permission for medical intervention
D: An itemized bill explaining the cost of services rendered

A

B: A notice that a service made may not be covered by Medicare

ABN (waiver of liability), notice Dr offers service that not covered

99
Q

What is the purpose of the diagnosis-related group (DRG) system?

A: Monitors productivity
B: Helps determine reimbursement
C: Permits a physician to upcode
D: Helps determine insurance eligibility

A

B: Helps determine reimbursement

100
Q

Which of the following best describes competence?

A: Having in-depth knowledge of a particular subject
B: Performing a task efficiently
C: Being trustworthy
D: Applying practical thinking to everyday situations

A

B: Performing a task efficiently

101
Q

What does the term cruris refer to?

A: Foot
B: Groin
C: Head
D: Body

A

B: Groin

102
Q

Which of the following is the term for abnormally large breasts in men?

A: Mastopenia
B: Hypergynecosis
C: Gynecomastia
D: Mastorrhea

A

C: Gynecomastia

103
Q

Which of the following procedures does not have to be done in the operating room?

A: Breast augmentation surgery
B: Insertion of a chest tube
C: Removal of a gallbladder
D: Staple repair of a head laceration

A

D: Staple repair of a head laceration

104
Q

A patient with renal failure will likely need what procedure?

A: Nephrectomy
B: Hemodialysis
C: Hysterectomy
D: Urostomy

A

B: Hemodialysis

105
Q

Which of the following is not a common finding in someone with liver failure?

A: Jaundice
B: Confusion
C: Abdominal distention
D: Dysuria

A

D: Dysuria

106
Q

What does the term acetabulum refer to?

A: Abnormal gait
B: Hip socket
C: Hermiated disc
D: Pelvic infection

A

B: Hip socket

scientific name of hip socket is acetabulum

107
Q

A CMA should use a ladder or step stool when reaching for items that are more than how many inches overhead?

A: 5
B: 10
C: 15
D: 20

A

D: 20

108
Q

The Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage (ABN) form should be given the patients with which type of insurance or payment?

A: Original Medicare
B: Medicare Managed Care
C: Private Fee-for-Service
D: All patients

A

A: Original Medicare

109
Q

At what age should routine screening for osteoporosis begin for women?

A: 50
B: 55
C: 60
D: 65

A

D: 65

postmenopausal w/ increased risk factors, earlier. no recs for men

110
Q

Which of the following is the term used to describe a process that destroys almost all pathogens (bacteria, viruses, and fungi) except bacterial spores of a dirty surface?

A: Cleaning
B: Sanitizing
C: Sterilizing
D: Disinfecting

A

D: Disinfecting

only sterilizing destroyts 100%, including spores

111
Q

A patient visited a physician who requested a return visit in 2-weeks, but the nearest open time is in 4-weeks. What is the most appropriate action?

A: Schedule the visit in 4-weeks
B: Schedule the visit in 2-weeks during a lunch brealk
C: Tell the patient to call in each morning to see if there is a cancellation for the requested date
D: Ask the physician if four weeks is acceptable

A

D: Ask the physician if four weeks is acceptable

112
Q

Which of the following is an important and possibly life threatening side effect of clopidogrel (Plavix)?

A: Seizures
B: Heart attack
C: Bleeding
D: Hypertension

A

C: Bleeding

113
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate site for an intramuscular injection?

A: Triceps muscle
B: Ventrogluteal muscle
C: Quadriceps femoris muscle
D: Soleus muscle

A

B: Ventrogluteal muscle

114
Q

Psychologist Erik Erikson developed the theory that throughout a person’s life, they pass through 8 different psychosocial stages. The stage at which a young child begins to express his independence is:

A: Stage 1 - trust v mistrust
B: Stage 2 - autonomy v shame and doubt
C: Stage 3 - initiative v guilt
D: Stage 4 - industry v inferiority

A

B: Stage 2 - autonomy v shame and doubt

115
Q

The law that ensures that a patient’s decisions regarding life-saving helthcare be communicated and protected is:

A: HIPAA
B: The Patient Self-Determination Act
C: A DNR Order
D: The ADA

A

B: The Patient Self-Determination Act

116
Q

Which of the following outlines the steps for effective communication?

A: Feedback, receiver, channel, message, sender
B: Sender, message, feedback, channel, receiver
C: Message, feedback, channel, sender, receiver
D: Sender, message, channel, receiver, feedback

A

D: Sender, message, channel, receiver, feedback

117
Q

One of the goals of the HITECH Act is to:

A: Enforce HIPAA Guidelines
B: Encourage employee reporting of unlawful acts by their employer
C: Decrease medication errors
D: Increase coordination of care

A

D: Increase coordination of care

118
Q

The legal statute that prevents patients with outstanding medical bills from being treated unfairly or in a deceptive way in the process of debt collection is:

A: The Fair Debt Collection Practices Act
B: The Federal Trade Commission
C: The World Health Organization
D: The Truth in Lending Act

A

A: The Fair Debt Collection Practices Act

119
Q

The document that explains what a patient should expect during their hospital stay is:

A: The Patient Bill of Rights
B: The Truth in Lending Act
C: The Fair Debt Collection Practices Act
D: The Patient Care Partnership

A

D: The Patient Care Partnership

120
Q

A MA works in a busy family practice office. The physician has ordered an injection of Penicillin for a patient. The MA accidentally gives the patient an injection of Rocephin. Who is the person ultimately responsible for this medication error?

A: The ordering physician
B: The MA who gave the wrong medication
C: The manager of the practice
D: The patient for not verifying it was the correction medication

A

A: The ordering physician

121
Q

The difference between a misdemeanor and a felony is:

A: A misdeameanor carries a prion sentence up to 5 years, while a felony carries a longer prison sentence.
B: A misdemeanor is punishable with a fine, while a felony is punishable with time in prison.
C: A misdemeanor carries a prson sentence up to 1-year, while a felony carries a longer prison sentence.
D: A misdeamanot is punishable with community service, while a felony is punishable with time in prison.

A

C: A misdemeanor carries a prson sentence up to 1-year, while a felony carries a longer prison sentence.

122
Q

The criteria set forth for utilizing the electronic health record in order to provide coordinated care and improve patient quality and safety is:

A: Meaningful use
B: Health measures
C: Quality management
D: Cinical analytics

A

A: Meaningful use

123
Q

The difference between a source-oriented and problem-oriented medical record is:

A: The source-oriented record contains only the patient’s subjective information, and a problem-oriented record contains only the physician information.
B: The source-oriented record contain progress notes based on chronic medical problems, while the problem-oriented record is for acute problems only.
C: The source-oriented record contains progress notes from different healthcare providers, while the problem-oriented record is divided into separate sections of information.
D: Te source-oriented record is a computerized record system, while the problem-oriented record in hand-written.

A

C: The source-oriented record contains progress notes from different healthcare providers, while the problem-oriented record is divided into separate sections of information.

124
Q

A patient checks in to be seen in the Urgent Care. She has a high deductible insurance plan that requires she pay 100% of services received until the deductible is met. She still has $3,000 out of pocket expense to be met before she has met the deductible. On her card, it says her Urgent Care co-pay is $50. She says she would like to avoid getting a big bill after her visit and prefers to pay the amount up front. What should she pay today?

A: Nothing, just wait for it to go through insurance and then pay the bill
B: The $3,000 left for her to meet her out of pocket deductible
C: The $50 Urgent Care co-pay
D: The standard amount based on the billing code used for her visit today

A

D: The standard amount based on the billing code used for her visit today

125
Q

An example of a third-party payer is:

A: The patient
B: The patient’s employer
C: The health insurance company
D: A worker’s compensation coverage company

A

C: The health insurance company

126
Q

The medical service that is covered under Medicare Part A is:

A: Labratory tests
B: Appointments with a PCP
C: Appointments with a specialist
D: Prescription drug coverage

A

A: Labratory tests

127
Q

The dorsal body cavity contains the:

A: Brain and spinal cord
B: Heart and lungs
C: Digestive organs and kidneys
D: Bladder and reproductive organs

A

A: Brain and spinal cord

128
Q

One of the first signs of a UTI in a 86-YO female patient is:

A: Dysuria
B: Confusion
C: Urinary frequency
D: Polydipsia

A

B: Confusion

129
Q

The neurological disease that causes destruction of the myelin sheaths surrounding the nerves is:

A: Muscular dystrophy
B: Multiple sclerosis
C: Cerebral palsy
D: Myastheia gravis

A

B: Multiple sclerosis

130
Q

Which of the following diseases can be transmitted through the airborne route?

A: Influenza
B: Chicken pox
C: Common cold
D: Pneumonia

A

B: Chicken pox

131
Q

What should be worn while you are with a patient with contact precautions?

A: A gown and gloves
B: A gown, gloves, mask
C: A gown, gloves, mask, and shoe covers
D: A self-cntained oxygen suit

A

A: A gown and gloves

132
Q

A newborn weights 6 pounds, 15 ounces. What is his weight in grams?

A: 3000 g
B: 3052 g
C: 3123 g
D: 3147 g

A

D: 3147 g

1 ounce = 28.35 grams

133
Q

In which of the following scenarios should a protective a protective mask be worn by the medical assistant?

A: A patient with a wound infection with MSA bacteria
B: A patient who has recently undergone cardiac bypass surgery
C: A healthy newborn in the hospital nursery
D: A pediatric patient who has been diagnosed with chickenpox

A

D: A pediatric patient who has been diagnosed with chickenpox

134
Q

What teperature should the water be when performing an ear irrigation?

A: 70 F
B: 85 F
C: 98.6 F
D: 105 F

A

C: 98.6 F

135
Q

For which lab tests is a nasopharyngeal swab performed?

A: Strep throat
B: Pregnancy
C: Mononucleosis
D: Influenza

A

D: Influenza

136
Q

What type of solution is added to the microscope slide to prepare a wet mount to examine vaginal discharge?

A: Hydrochloric acid
B: A salt solution
C: KOH (potassium hydroxide)
D: Baking soda and water solution

A

B: A salt solution

137
Q

Which blood collection tubes use sodium citrate as an additive to prvent coagulation of the specimen?

A: Light blue-top tubes
B: Red-top tubes
C: Gold-top tubes
D: Lavender-top tubes

A

A: Light blue-top tubes

138
Q

What instructions should a patient be given for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen?

A: Begin collecting with the first urine specimen of the day, collect for 24 hours from that time, keep the specimen refrigerated, and take the specimen to the lab when you are finished.
B: Urinate into the toilet in the morning and then begin collecting th urine from that point on for 24 hours, leave at room temperature, and take the specimen to the lab within 24 hours.
C: Urinate into the toilet in the morning and then begin collecting the urine from that point on for 24 hours, keep , refrigerated, urinate into the container the second morning, and take the specimen to the lab when you are finished.
D: Begin collecting with the first urine specimen of the day, collect for 24 hours from that time, keep the specimen at room temperature, and take the specimen to the lab when you are finished.

A

C: Urinate into the toilet in the morning and then begin collecting the urine from that point on for 24 hours, keep , refrigerated, urinate into the container the second morning, and take the specimen to the lab when you are finished.

139
Q

All urine specimens should be:

A: Kept at room temperature
B: Kept at 98.6 F
C: Kept refrigerated
D: Kept at room temperature or refrigerated; it does not matter

A

C: Kept refrigerated

140
Q

What is the correct way to handle a blood specimen for collection of an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)?

A: Collect the blood in an ESR or red-top tube, spin in the cenntrifuge for 20 minutes, and keep at room temperature.
B: Collect the blood in an ESR or lavender-top tube, do not spin, and keep the specimen at room temperature or refrigerated.
C: Collect the blood in a light blue-top tube, do not spin, and keep refrigerated.
D: Collect the clood in an ESR or gold-top tube, spin in the centrfuge for 20-minutes, and refrigerate.

A

B: Collect the blood in an ESR or lavender-top tube, do not spin, and keep the specimen at room temperature or refrigerated.

141
Q

You are drawing a basic metabolic panel on a patient, and they ask you what is included in this test. Your best response is:

A: Cholesterol and live function tests
B: Blood sugar and live function tests
C: Blood counts, kidney function, and liver function tests
D: Blood sugar, electrolyte levels, and kidney function tests

A

D: Blood sugar, electrolyte levels, and kidney function tests

142
Q

A DEXA scan has been ordered for a patient. The patient asks you how this is performed. Your best response is that:

A: An IV will be started to administer a radiocontrast agent, and the patient will be placed in a narrow tube for the test.
B: The patient will lay down on a table for approximately 15 minutes while special x-rays are taken of the spine and limbs.
C: The patient will need to fast for at least 8-hours before a full cody scan is performed
D: The patient will need to drink a bottle of oral contrast before x-rays are taken of the spine and feet

A

B: The patient will lay down on a table for approximately 15 minutes while special x-rays are taken of the spine and limbs.

measures bone denisty - scan/xray

143
Q

A mono test is ordered for a 17 YO patient. This test is performed using:

A: A urine specimen
B: A throast swab
C: A blood sample
D: A nasopharyngeal swab

A

C: A blood sample

144
Q

How should the flu vaccine be stored?

A: In the refrigerator
B: At room temperature
C: Kept warm at 98.6 F
D: Refrigeration or room temperature, but not above 85 F

A

A: In the refrigerator

145
Q

What is the difference between Td and Tdap?

A: There is no difference.
B: Both immunize against tetanus and diaphtheria, but Tdap also immunizes against pertussis.
C: Both immunize against tetanus and diphtheria, but Tdap also immunizes against polio.
D: Both immunize against tetanus and diphtheria, but Tdap also immunizes against measles.

A

B: Both immunize against tetanus and diaphtheria, but Tdap also immunizes against pertussis.

146
Q

The provider you are working with orders 100 mg of ibuprofen for a 4 YO child. The bottle of liquid ibprofen in the office is 200 mg/5 mL. How much should you give the patient?

A: 1 mL
B: 2.5 mL
C: 5 mL
D: 7.5 mL

A

B: 2.5 mL

divide 200 mg by 5 ml = 40 mg/ml
divide 100 by 40 (amt in 1 mL)

147
Q

All of the following are true regarding the mumps EXCEPT:

A: A person cannot acquire the mumps if they have received the MMR vaccine as a child.
B: Symptoms of the disease include a fever, swelling and tenderness along the jawline, and loss of appetite
C: The mups is caused by a virus and is not treated with antibiotics.
D: If a person has not received the MMR vaccine in the ast, they should receive one injection now and anothe in 1-month.

A

A: A person cannot acquire the mumps if they have received the MMR vaccine as a child.

148
Q

The best home treatment for croup in a 2 YO is:

A: Antibiotics prescribed by his physician
B: Aspirin if there is a fever
C: Cool mist humidifier on steam therapy
D: OTC cough syrups and decongestants

A

C: Cool mist humidifier on steam therapy

149
Q

A mother calls her pediatrician’s office after her 5 YO was in the day before and received the necessary immunizations before starting kindergarten. She is concerned because the child has developed a low-grade fever and redness and warmth at one of the injection sites. The most appropriate response to her is:

A: She should bring him into the office immediately for evaluation.
B: She should take him straight to the ER without delay.
C: She should bring him in the next day to see the pediatrician.
D: She should give him some ibuprfen and apply a warm compress to the area that is red.

A

D: She should give him some ibuprfen and apply a warm compress to the area that is red.

(Q3) MA 31: Allied Health Career Preparation (4 decks)

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