Missed Modern Flashcards
Form A of a standardized personality test was given in fall and again in spring. The reliability estimate that resulted from this research is referred to as:
a) external consistency
b) equivalence
c) stability
d) internal consistency
C) stability
A Psychologist Emphasizes that parents should use appropriate consequences when dealing with children’s misbehavior. In addition, the psychologist explains that the goal of misbehavior can be to confirm an assumed disability, or to get attention, power or revenge. Which of the following theoretical orientations is being used?
a) Rogerian
b) Transactional Analysis
c) Adlerian
d) Psychodynamic
Which of the following contributes to a favorable prognosis for psychotherapy?
a) long history of neurosis
b) Dependency
c) strong reinforcement of symptoms
d) Misery
d
A 38 year old is afraid to travel on public transporation. A program of treatment that relies on graduated exposure to traveling by bus, with actual real life behavioral activities increased across trials, is called:
a) flooding
b) modeling
c) reinforced practice
d) implosion
c) reinforced practice.
Reinforced practice is a type of gradual exposure for phobia treatment.
Reinforced practice, in particular, involves rewarding an individual for remaining in the presence of a feared stimulus for progressively longer periods of time. Initially, the individual remains in the presence of the feared object for short, “tolerable” periods. Gradually, the expectations are increased, and rewards are only delivered for increasingly longer periods of time in the presence of that object or situation.
The correlation between two sets of test scores indicate the:
a) extent to which skill in one tests results in skill in another
b) accuracy of the two test scores
c) extent to which skill in both tests is the result of a third skill
d) proportion of variance in one test associated with variance in the other test.
d) proportion of variance in one test associated with variance in the other test.
ECT is most successfully used with:
a) psychogenic amnesia
b) catatonic schizophrenia
c) delusional depression
d) OCPD
c) delusional depression
In general, children who have a high activity level tent to react to pressure by:
a) becoming anxious
b) becoming passive
c) increasing non-productive motor activity
d) becoming physically and verbally abusive.
c)increasing non-productive motor activity
At the termination on an extensive training program, management may expect to find that:
a) most employees have improved, but relative standing is generally maintained
b) primarily low-ability trainees have improved in performance
c) primarily high-ability trainees have improved in performance
d) all trainees are at the same performance level
a) most employees have improved, but relative standing is generally maintained
A four year old boy who frequently takes the female role in play with his friends is exhibiting:
a) transsexualism
b) normal childhood expression
c) Gender Identity disorder
d) homosexual predisposition
b) normal childhood expression
Over the course of many months, a series of test items is administered to people of varying ages, races, and social backgrounds to determine which questions will be retained on the final version of a test. this process is called:
a) content validation
b) concurrent validation
c) predictive validation
d) standardization
d) standardization
Comparison of an individual’s score with an inappropriate norm group affects all of the following except:
a) relevance of the score
b) reliability of the score
c) decisions about the subject
d) validity of the score
b) reliability of the score
Studies of persons in their 70s, 80s and 90s indicate that intellectual functioning is most closely related to
a) social support
b) life experience
c) chronological age
d) health status
d) health status
Three types pf prevention have been identified in community mental health. secondary prevention attempts to:
a) deal with problems before they occur
b) prevent relapses of problems
c) reduce severity of problems
d) prevent community disintegration
c) reduce severity of the problem
Electrical stimulation of the brain for the treatment of chronic pain:
a) may produce its effects by promoting the release of endogenous morphins
b) may produce its effects by promoting the release of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine
c) is generally effective, but medically ill advised because such stimulation has aversive properties
d) is of no practical significant, since stimulation-produced analgesia has been demostrated only in rats
a) may produce its effects by promoting the release of endogenous morphins
Reserach in the workplace has shown that a subordinates participation in goal setting leads tot he selection of goals that when compared to goals set for subordinates unilaterally by their supervisees, are:
a) more challenging
b) of about the same level of difficulty
c) never accomplished
d) less challenging
a) more challenging
In an approach-approach conflict, a discernible move in a given direction should:
a) resolve the conflict in that direction
b) result in prolonged oscillation
c) reduce the attractiveness of the outcome approached
d) lead to a retun in the opposite direction
a) resolve the conflict in that direction
Gestalt therapy is designed to achieve integration of:
a) motive patterns and habit patterns
b) thought, feeling and action
c) past, present future
d) external and internal processes
b) thought, feeling and action
In general, results of factor analysis on tests of motor function indicate:
a) two factors, speed and strength, account for most of the common variance
b) most motor functions are well represented by intelligence
c) most motor functions correlate highly and form a single factor
d) most motor functions are highly specific
d) most motor functions are highly specific
In regard to memory, aging is most closely associated with a decline in:
a) the efficiency of controlled memory processes
b) metamemory skills, or knowledge about memory
c) recognition memory
d) the amount of factual memory knowledge available
a) the efficiency of controlled memory processes
Which of the following functions tends to decline the most with age:
a) attention span
b) ability to process information rapidly
c) crystalized intelligence
d) implicit memory
b) ability to process information rapidly
Reserach on explicity and implicit memory indicates that:
a) both forms of memory show a fairly consistent, gradual decline over the adult life span
b) implicit memory capacity declines with age, but explicit memory capacity remain stable
c) explicity memory capacity declines with age, but implicit memory capacity remains the same
d) both forms of memory remain stable, except when affected by a disease like Alzheimers
explicity memory capacity declines with age, but implicit memory capacity remains the same
Which of the following is the essential feature of Conduct disorder:
a) Lack of appropriate guilt or remorse
b) Major rule or norm violations
c) Aggression
d) Impulsivity
b) Major rule or norm violations
The rpimary advantage of the forced-choice distribution of rated attributes in performance appraisal is that it:
a) eliminates statistical concerns about ipsative measurement
b) enhances the reliability of ratings
c) is more objective, since it does not deal with the strengths and weaknesses of employee
d) is easier and faster to use, since only two coices are available
b) enhances the reliability of ratings
Humanistic and existential therapists view ulcers, hypertension and tension headaches as:
a) strictly physical phenomena
b) symptoms of a loss of contact with personal values
c) perceived rather than actual physical symptoms
d) responses to specific stressors in the physical environment
b) symptoms of a loss of contact with personal values
Which of the following is the best example of constant error?
a) A subject consistently provides wrong answers to every test question
b) A psychometrician consistently underestimates IQ scores by 10 points
c) a test item is answered incorrectly by every student in a given class
d) a test-retest reliability coefficient is low for several samples
b) A psychometrician consistently underestimates IQ scores by 10 points
Analysis of social power in consulting relationships emphasize the importance of which two forms of power?
a) Reward and Legitimate
b) Expert and referent
c) Coercive and symbolic
d) Expert and informational
b) Expert and referent
Positive and negative life events are likely to have which of the following types of effect on a person’s sense of satisfaction and well-being:
a. neither short-term nor long-term effects.
b. short-term but not long-term effects.
c. long-term but not short-term effects.
d. both short-term and long-term effects.
– Research suggests that positive and negative life events can create great joy or distress but don’t really affect a person’s long-term sense of satisfaction and well-being. Only recent life-events seem to influence a person’s well-being, and this effect drops off in about three months. For example, lottery winners have not been found to be significantly happier than non-winners.
According to Lenore Walker, which of the following best describes the dynamic that keeps battered women “hooked” into their relationship with the batterer:
a. Due to having grown up in an abusive family, the victim believes that battering is a normal part of relationships.
b. The costs of the abuse and the benefits of remaining in the relationship are about equal.
c. The woman fears that the abuse will become even more severe if she tries to leave the relationship.
d. The woman lacks knowledge about the resources available to help her leave the relationship.
Lenore Walker describes a cycle of violence that involves three stags: tension building, acute battering incident, and loving contrition. According to Walker, most of the benefits of the relationship occur in the third stage, when the batterer offers apologies, assurances that the attacks will never happen again, and declarations of love. The relationship tends to remain stable when the balance between the costs of the abuse and the benefits of the relationship are fairly similar. As violence escalates, the relationship becomes more unstable, and the man escalates his charming behavior in an attempt to restore stability.
The purpose of rotation in factor analysis is to facilitate interpretation of the factors. Rotation:
a. alters the factor loadings for each variable but not the eigenvalue for each factor. b. alters the eigenvalue for each factor but not the factor loadings for the variables. c. alters the factor loadings for each variable and the eigenvalue for each factor. d. does not alter the eigenvalue for each factor nor the factor loadings for the variables.
In factor analysis, rotating the factors changes the factor loadings for the variables and eigenvalue for each factor although the total of the eigenvalues remains the same.
According to M. Seligman’s theory of learned optimism, a student with an optimistic attribution style who fails an exam in a class which he usually does well in is most likely to say:
a. "I was unlucky". b. "I didn't study enough". c. "the teacher is always a tough grader". d. "the test was hard this time".
In factor analysis, rotating the factors changes the factor loadings for the variables and eigenvalue for each factor although the total of the eigenvalues remains the same.
- Research investigating the relationship between sexual abuse in childhood and the development of Bulimia Nervosa in adulthood has found:
a. the same rate as in the general population.
b. a higher rate for children who were sexually abused.
c. no significant relationship.
d. a significant relationship for men but not for women.
Although some research suggests that there is no relationship between sexual abuse and Bulimia and other Eating Disorders, we have reviewed more recent research that suggests that children who are sexually abused are more at risk for eating disorders, and more so for Bulimia and Binge eating disorders.
The Solomon four-group design is:
a. a quasi-experimental design. b. used to analyze the difference scores among four different treatment groups. c. used to reduce practice effects. d. used to evaluate the effects of pretesting.
The Solomon four-group design is a true experimental design used to evaluate the effects of pretesting, since some groups are pretested and others are not.
A psychologist sees clients at a facility where fees are capitated. What does this mean:
a. providers are paid a fee each time a service is performed. b. clients are billed according to their ability to play. c. clients are required to meet a deductible before their insurance will pay. d. providers receive a fixed dollar amount over a specific period of time to cover the service needs of a fixed number of clients.
The term “capitation” refers to a fixed amount of money paid per person, not by the visit or procedure. Managed care companies usually express capitation in terms of cost per member per month. As stated in response “D,” providers are paid a specific dollar amount, for a specific time period, to cover the service needs of a specific number of people. If a provider exceeds his or her capitated payment, he or she may not be able to cover his or her costs and, consequently, may limit his or her services.
- The major threat to internal validity of a time-series quasi-experiment would be:
a. maturation.
b. selection.
c. regression.
d. history.
To get this correct (except if you got it correct by chance), you’d need to know what a time-series design is. Basically, you take a number of measurements over time to get a longitudinal baseline trend, then somewhere along the line you introduce your experimental manipulation. If, following the manipulation, you see the trend change, you can infer that your intervention caused the change. But a major threat to the internal validity of this design is a historical event which could co-occur with your experimental manipulation. You’d have no control over these events and they could be a rival explanation for changes in your measurements.
An adolescent’s behavior is motivated primarily by her needs for power and attention. Her problems would probably be best addressed by a therapist adopting the approach of:
a. Adler. b. Ellis. c. Perls. d. Freud.
Probably the best way to approach this question is to see if the notions of power and attention are linked to any of the people listed in the responses. For Adlerians, a desire to belong is a primary motivator of behavior, but this desire may be channeled into the mistaken goals of power, attention, inadequacy, or revenge.
Children with Generalized Anxiety Disorder most frequently worry about:
a. being away from home or close relatives. b. being embarrassed in public. c. performance in school or sporting events. d. having an illness.
According to DSM-IV-TR, children and adolescents with Generalized Anxiety Disorder frequently worry about their performance or competence at school and in sporting events. They may also worry about catastrophic events like earthquakes or nuclear war. Choice A is more characteristic of Separation Anxiety Disorder. Choice B indicates Social Phobia. And Choice D is characteristic of Hypochondriasis.
A patient suffers damage to the spinal cord severe enough to cause numbness and tingling. However, the spinal cord is not severed. The patient is most likely experiencing:
a. paresis. b. hemiplegia. c. quadriplegia. d. paraplegia.
The term “paresis” means partial paralysis. Paresis can occur as a result of an injury to the spinal cord that does not result in its severation. If the spinal cord is severed, the result could be paraplegia (paralysis of the lower limbs), quadriplegia (paralysis of all four limbs), or hemiplegia (paralysis of one side of the body), depending on the location of the lesion. Note that the term paresis (or “general paresis”) has been used to describe a syphilis-caused syndrome characterized by inflammation of cerebral tissue and mental and physical deterioration. However, the term’s literal meaning is partial paralysis, and this is how it is often used as well.
- Which of the following is most true of Type I Schizophrenia as described by Timothy Crow:
a. There will be a poor prognosis.
b. The symptoms are due to a neurotransmitter abnormality.
c. A majority of symptoms will begin in adolescence.
d. It will not respond to most antipsychotic medications.
Timothy Crow distinguishes between two types (I and II) of Schizophrenia. Type I includes symptoms of delusions or hallucinations, inappropriate affect, and disorganized thinking. It is also thought to more likely be due to neurotransmitter irregularities. Type II symptoms are described by the other three choices, and is also considered to be more likely due to brain structure abnormalities (T.J. Crow, The two syndrome concept: Origins and current status, Schizophrenia Bulletin, 1992, 11, 471-486).
According to current research, the best predictor(s) for alcoholism would be:
a. family history of alcoholism. b. environmental stresses and opportunities for observational learning. c. interpersonal pressure and identifications. d. age and SES.
If you wanted to find the best single predictor, you’d find out about alcoholism in the natural relatives of the patient. Even if the person is adopted away from the natural parents, the genetic connection is still the strongest one we have. So, when doing an initial assessment, you could ask about alcohol/drug abuse among family members. By the way, a good guess in answering any question structured as “the best predictor of (some disorder)” is “family history of that disorder.” You won’t be right 100% of the time, but you will be the majority of the time.
All of the following statements regarding item response theory are true, except:
a. it cannot be applied in the attempt to develop culture-fair tests. b. it's a useful theory in the development of computer programs designed to create tests tailored to the individual's level of ability. c. one of its assumptions is that test items measure a "latent trait." d. it usually has little practical significance unless one is working with very large samples.
Item response theory is a highly technical mathematical approach to item analysis. Use of item analysis is based on a number of complex mathematical assumptions. One of these assumptions, known as invariance of item parameters, holds that the characteristics of items should be the same for all theoretically equivalent groups of subjects chosen from the same population. Thus, any culture-free test should demonstrate such invariance; i.e., a set of items shouldn’t have a different set of characteristics for minority and non-minority subgroups. For this reason, item response theory has been applied to the development of culture-free tests, and choice A is not a true statement.
The other choices are all true statements about item response theory, and therefore incorrect answers to this question. Consistent with choice B, item response theory is the theoretical basis of computer adaptive assessment, in which tests tailored to the examinee’s ability level are computer generated. As stated by choice C, an assumption of item response theory is that items measure a latent trait, such as intelligence or general ability. And, finally, research supports the notion that the assumptions of item response theory only hold true for very large samples (choice D).
Huntington’s Disease is most associated with decreased amounts of:
a. dopamine. b. epinephrine. c. GABA. d. norepinephrine.
Huntington’s Disease is believed to begin when cells within the striatum (caudate and putamen) of the basal ganglia begin to be destroyed. The striatum is responsible for producing GABA, which regulates the levels of dopamine in the brain through an inhibitory process. The death of the striatum cells causes decreased amounts of GABA which leads to an overproduction of dopamine and results in chorea (uncontrollable and irregular muscle movements, especially of the arms, legs, and face).
Wernicke’s, Broca’s and conduction aphasia share which of the following difficulties:
a. repeating what is said. b. word prosody. c. reception. d. expression.
Difficulty repeating words just spoken and recalling the name of familiar objects are characteristic of all three disorders. Conduction aphasia is due to damage to the nerve fibers that connect Broca’s to Wernicke’s area and the most typical result is difficulty repeating what one has heard. Wernicke’s, or receptive aphasia, primarily affects comprehension which results in impairment in spoken and written language, and anomia or problems recalling words. Broca’s aphasia is characterized by difficulty expressing language, including difficulty repeating what is said.
Which of the following models of leadership provides a “decision tree” to help a leader determine whether an autocratic, consultative, or consensual decision-making approach is best given the nature of the work situation:
a. Fiedler's contingency model. b. Hersey and Blanchard's situational model. c. Vroom and Yetton's normative model. d. House's path-goal model.
- C– You may have been able to answer this one through the process of elimination if you knew that the models described by Fiedler, Hersey and Blanchard, and House don’t include a decision-tree, which is provided by the Vroom and Yetton model.
A psychologist who obtained a Ph.D. in experimental psychology wants to change her specialty to clinical psychology. To meet the requirements set forth by the General Guidelines for Providers, the psychologist must:
a. complete an internship in clinical psychology under the supervision of a professional clinical psychologist.
b. complete appropriate doctoral-level classes and supervised post-doctoral training.
c. obtain a Ph.D. in clinical psychology from an accredited college or university.
d. meet her state’s requirements for licensure in clinical psychology.
The licensing exam often contains questions such as these, and in approaching them, you should remember these buzzwords: training AND experience. Specifically, the Specialty Guidelines state that “professional psychologists who wish to qualify as clinical psychologists meet the same requirements with respect to subject matter and professional skills that apply to doctoral and postdoctoral education and training in clinical psychology.” Choice “B” is the only one that includes an element of both training and experience, and is therefore the best answer. Moreover, unlike as stated by choice “C”, a second Ph.D. would not be necessary – doctoral level coursework in clinical psychology would be sufficient to meet the academic training aspect of this requirement.
The validity coefficient of a new job selection test is 0.25. This test would most likely be useful when:
a. the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very low. b. the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very high. c. there are many applicants for few job openings. d. there are few applicants for many job openings.
This question is referring to a test’s incremental validity. Incremental validity is the increase in decision-making accuracy resulting from the use of a particular predictor. Three factors influence the incremental validity of a test: 1) the base rate, or the percentage of correct hiring decisions made when the test is not used; 2) the test’s validity coefficient; and 3) the selection ratio, or the ratio of job openings to total applicants (for instance, if 100 people are applying for 5 positions, the selection ratio is 5/100, or .05).
Incremental validity is greatest when the base rate is moderate, the validity coefficient is high, and the selection ratio is low. The Taylor-Russell tables can be used to determine a test’s incremental validity, given specific values for the base rate, validity coefficient, and selection ratio. We can eliminate Choices A and B because a moderate base rate maximizes the usefulness of a selection test more than a low or high base rate does. Contrary to Choice D, a low selection ratio (many applicants for few job openings) is better than a high selection ratio.
One of the most consistent findings of the research on client factors in the therapy process is that:
a. more seriously disturbed clients have better outcomes in therapy. b. higher levels of intelligence predict better therapy outcomes. c. age is significantly related to therapy outcome. d. men are more likely to seek therapy.
One of the most consistent findings of the research on client factors is that higher levels of intelligence predict better therapy outcome (Luborsky, 1989). Answer A is incorrect because seriously disturbed individuals actually have poorer outcomes (Garfield, 1994). In regard to answer C, age appears to be unrelated to therapy outcome and answer D would have to state that women are more likely to seek therapy to be correct (Luborsky et al., 1989).
The friend of a psychologist is the owner of a small publishing firm. The friend offers the psychologist substantial compensation if she would lend her name to endorsements for his publications, and at times advise and consult on book acquisitions and marketing plans. The psychologist:
a. could accept this as long as APA affiliation is not mentioned in the endorsements. b. could accept this only if the publications she would be dealing with are in her area of competency. c. could accept this only if the publications she would be dealing with are in her area of competency, and the endorsements will be based on the psychologist's honest opinion of the publications. d. should consult the local ethics committee before making her decision.
- C– The ethical standards say that psychologists cannot make false, deceptive, fraudulent, or misleading statements. Unless the psychologist’s endorsements were based on sound expertise and her honest opinion of the publications in question, these standards would be violated.
- Of the following ethnic groups which group is not considered a race:
a. Hispanic.
b. Native American.
c. African-American.
d. Asian-American.
Hispanics are an ethnic group like African-Americans, Asian-Americans, and Native Americans. Unlike these groups, Hispanics are not a specific race. According to the 1998 Census Bureau, the total Hispanic population of the US accounts for 11% of the total population. Sixty-three percent are of Mexican origin, 14.4% are of Central and South American origin, 10.6% of mainland Puerto Rican origin, 4.2% of Cuban origin, and 7.4% other (Alfredo Ardilis, Testing Hispanic Populations, Texas Psychologist, Winter 2000).
In children, positive outcome following a traumatic event is most likely if the child:
a. has adequate social support and a high level of skill in at least one activity. b. has a high level of intelligence. c. is male. d. has experienced a traumatic stressor.
- A– In both children and adults, high levels of social support is one of the best predictors of positive psychological outcome following a traumatic event. Having skill in at least one activity is associated with self-efficacy beliefs, which are also associated with positive outcome following a trauma in both children and adults.
. A Hypomanic Episode would most likely result in:
a. decreased productivity, decreased efficiency, and decreased creativity. b. decreased productivity, decreased efficiency, and increased creativity. c. increased productivity, decreased efficiency, and decreased creativity. d. increased productivity, increased efficiency, and increased creativity.
- D– According to DSM-IV-TR, a Hypomanic Episode is characterized by a period of persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood that lasts at least 4 days and is accompanied by three or more symptoms including: inflated self-esteem or grandiosity; decreased need for sleep; talkativeness; racing thoughts; distractibility; excessive involvement in high-risk pleasurable activities; and increase in goal-directed activity. The symptoms are not severe enough to cause marked impairment in functioning and there are no psychotic features. During a Hypomanic Episode many individuals exhibit increased productivity, efficiency, and creativity.
You are an organizational process consultant hired by a hospital. Several nurses tell you they feel they’re being overworked and underpaid. In this case, your most likely intervention would be to:
a. explain the nurses' concerns to the hospital administrators. b. conduct a job analysis to determine how much the nurses deserve to be paid and present your results to the hospital administrators. c. act with the best interests of the hospital's patients in mind. d. help the nurses organize regular meetings with the physicians and administrators to discuss their concerns.
A process consultant, rather than merely correcting problems for his or her client, focuses on an organization’s underlying processes, with the goal of making changes in processes so that individuals within the organization can solve their own problems. Thus, choice D is the best answer, as it is the only one which offers a way in which the nurses and administrators can work together to solve the problem of dissatisfaction with work conditions. By comparison, choices A and B would have the consultant diagnose and “fix” the problem; these interventions would be consistent with the medical rather than the process model of consultation.
The part of the brain that is compromised in Parkinson’s Disease is the:
a. basal ganglia. b. substantia nigra. c. hypothalamus. d. frontal lobe.
The substantia nigra is a group of neurons that is part of the extrapyramidal motor system. Parkinson’s disease, which is characterized by tremors and other disorders of voluntary movement, is caused by degeneration of substantia nigra neurons. When substantia nigra neurons degenerate, the amount of dopamine they provide to neurons in the basal ganglia (also part of the extrapyramidal motor system) is reduced. In other words, basal ganglia neurons are also involved in Parkinson’s disease – the disease occurs when they get a lower than normal quantity of dopamine. Thus, if substantia nigra were not a choice, the basal ganglia would be the best answer. Note, however, that, unlike substantia nigra neurons, basal ganglia neurons remain intact in Parkinson’s disease.
The tendency to rate all using the low end of the rating scale is referred to as:
a. floor effect. b. contrast effect. c. central tendency bias. d. severity error.
- D– Another term for the strictness bias or error is severity error. This rater bias refers to the tendency of raters to rate all ratees using the low end of the rating scale. A rater rating all individuals using the middle range of a rating scale is exhibiting the central tendency bias (c.). If the ratings of one individual is affected by the ratings given to another, then the rater bias is a contrast effect (b.). A floor effect is not a rater bias. Characteristic of a measuring instrument, floor effect refers to the inability to distinguish between individuals who have low levels of what is being measured.
According to the theory underlying Gestalt therapy, introjections involve:
a. viewing other people's emotions as one's own. b. failing to develop a healthy "social interest". c. blaming oneself for the problems of others. d. interpreting the values of the larger society as one's own.
- D– Introjection involves absorbing the values or behaviors of others, including the larger society, without really understanding or assimilating those values or behaviors. Introjection represents a disturbance in the boundary between self and others – the person does or believes things that are not reflective of a self that is clearly distinct from others in the environment. Choice A is incorrect because it is primarily values, not emotions, that are absorbed from the environment in Gestalt therapy’s view of introjection.
- Delinquency in adolescence is most associated with:
a. low income families and low IQ score.
b. a mother who works outside the home and an unemployed father.
c. weak parental supervision and parental rejection.
d. harsh physical punishment and unreasonable rules.
- C– The research is far from consistent on this issue. However, lack of parental supervision is frequently found as a correlate of delinquency along with a hostile relationship between parent and adolescent and parental rejection. Low SES, low IQ score, single-parent homes, and harsh discipline have weaker relationships with delinquency.
The best initial strategy for teaching complex motor skills that require speed and accuracy to be successfully performed is to:
a. emphasize accuracy over speed. b. emphasize speed over accuracy. c. emphasize accuracy and speed equally. d. emphasize an alternation between speed and accuracy.
- B– Research on speed and accuracy in learning complex motor skills suggests the best approach is to emphasize speed of performance initially although, to a certain degree, the optimal approach depends on the specific skill. (See: Engelhorn, R. (1997). Speed and accuracy in the learning of a complex motor skills, Perceptual and Motor Skills, 85, 1011-1017.)
To reduce a child’s aggressive behavior, the best approach is to:
a. punish the aggression consistently and harshly. b. use differential reinforcement of alternative behaviors. c. identify the consequences of the behavior and alternatives to it. d. have the child vent his or her aggressive feelings by hitting a pillow.
C: There are a variety of approaches to the treatment of aggression in children; the cognitive-behavioral approach is probably most common. In children who are older or developmentally advanced enough to understand, cognitive approaches tend to focus on helping the person accurately interpret external cues, so that he or she does not respond inappropriately with aggression. In younger children, the goal is often to identify the child’s goals, the negative consequences of using aggression to meet those goals, and alternatives to aggression. The other choices are not as likely to be helpful: consistent discipline is good, but contrary to choice A, overly harsh discipline can serve to increase the child’s aggression. Reinforcement for alternative behaviors is not a proven method of directly addressing aggression. And the notion that aggression is something that can be released through venting it on a safe target (or, by the way, watching it on TV) has not been supported – apparently, engaging in aggressive behavior only leads to more of the same.
Which of the following is not true about members of self-directed work teams:
a. Each member of a self-directed team has unique, specialized works skills to contribute to the group product.
b. Members plan the group’s work processes and set the group’s work goals.
c. Members may be authorized to hire their own replacements.
d. Members of self-directed work teams tend to be absent more than members of traditional work groups.
- A– Self-directed work teams are self-directed; i.e., they determine their own goals, plan their own work processes, and may even hire their own replacements. A distinguishing characteristic of self-directed work teams is that members are generalists (versus specialists), and each member has (or learns) a broad range of skills. A possible downside of self-directed work teams is that they are associated with higher absenteeism than more traditional work groups.
Which of the following disorders is most likely to respond to pharmacotherapy alone:
a. Bipolar I Disorder. b. Major Depressive Disorder. c. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. d. Anorexia Nervosa.
- A– Pharmacotherapy (specifically, Lithium therapy in most cases) is the treatment of choice for manic-depressive illnesses such as Bipolar I Disorder. Pharmacotherapy may be supplemented with adjunctive psychotherapy (e.g., to provide support and coping skills). However, psychotherapy is not considered that useful in treating the core symptoms of Bipolar I Disorder. By contrast, although the disorders in the other choices are commonly treated with medication, they also respond to psychotherapy.
Recent longitudinal studies investigating the relationship between menopause and psychological well-being have suggested that:
a. women experiencing menopause are more likely to report significant depression than pre-menopausal or post-menopausal women.
b. post-menopausal women are likely to have higher general levels of psychological well-being than either pre-menopausal women or women in the midst of menopause.
c. pre-menopausal are likely to have higher general levels of psychological well-being than either post-menopausal women or women in the midst of menopause.
d. there is no evidence that menopause is linked to either depression or psychological well-being.
- D– Choice D describes the results of a longitudinal study published in 1994. Though the study did not concern itself with short-term mood swings that may be caused by the menopausal transition, it did suggest that menopause does not have any effect on long-term psychological functioning.
According to recent meta-analyses of child psychotherapy outcome studies, which of the following statements is most true:
a. There are no differences between the effectiveness of behavioral and non-behavioral interventions in the treatment of children.
b. Girls respond better to psychotherapy than boys, with adolescent girls responding best.
c. Girls respond better to psychotherapy than boys, with younger girls responding best.
d. At all age levels, boys respond better to psychotherapy than girls.
- B– This is one of the many areas where the results of research are contradictory and somewhat controversial. However, the most recent meta-analyses of research in this area have found that across treatment approaches, girls respond better than boys, with adolescent girls responding best of all. This is somewhat contradictory to earlier research, which found that younger children respond better than older children.
Because the findings of research sometimes contradict each other, it can be frustrating to decide which is the best answer to questions such as these. Of course, you’d want to find an answer that is consistent (or not inconsistent, at least) with the results of all the research. However, if such a response is not available, you should go with the results of more recent research.
The symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder can be alleviated through cognitive-behavioral treatments and medication interventions that reduce activity in the:
a. reticular activating system. b. inferior colliculus. c. caudate nucleus. d. locus coeruleus.
- C– The caudate nucleus appears to be overactive in people diagnosed with OCD. L.R. Baxter reports that both behavioral interventions and drug therapy affect metabolic rate in the caudate nucleus (Caudate glucose metabolic rate changes with both drug and behavior therapy for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, Archives of General Psychiatry, 1992, 49, 681-689). The reticular activating system (answer A), which you should remember by now, is involved in attention and arousal. The inferior colliculus (answer B), controls auditory reflexes, and the locus coeruleus (answer D) may be associated with Depression and Panic Disorder.
The factor loading for Test A and Factor II is .80 in a factor matrix. This means that:
a. only 80% of variability in Test A is accounted for by the factor analysis. b. only 64% of variability in Test A is accounted for by the factor analysis. c. 80% of variability in Test A is accounted for by Factor II . d. 64% of variability in Test A is accounted for by Factor II.
- D– The correlation coefficient for a test and an identified factor is referred to as a factor loading. To obtain a measure of shared variability, the factor loading is squared. This example, the factor loading is .80, meaning that 64% (.80 squared) of variability in the test is accounted for by the factor. The other identified factor(s) probably also account for some variability in Test A, which is why (b.) is not the best answer.
Which of the following is one of the first signs of AIDS-related dementia:
a. loss of abstract thinking functions. b. mild memory loss for recent events. c. seizures. d. apathy.
B–AIDS dementia complex occurs in about 2/3 of all AIDS patients. Usually, one of the first cognitive signs of dementia (both in AIDS and non-AIDS patients) is a loss of concentration and a mild memory loss, especially for recent events.
___________________ may result in a job performance measure having low validity, even though it is reliable.
a. differential validity. b. criterion contamination. c. criterion deficiency. d. researcher deficiency.
- C– Criterion deficiency refers to what is missed or deficient in the criterion used. For example, if typing speed is used as the sole criterion for determining successful job performance by a secretary, it would be a deficient criterion, since typing speed is only one of several skills needed to be a successful secretary. Differential validity (“A”) refers to a test which has significantly different validity coefficients for different subgroups. Criterion contamination (“B”) occurs when a rater’s knowledge of an employee’s performance on a predictor biases how the employee is rated on a criterion.
Behavioral assessments are useful for determining behavioral:
a. contingencies. b. consequences. c. constraints. d. interventions.
- A– A behavioral assessment identifies “contingencies,” which is a term for the antecedents of and consequences that maintain the behavior one is planning to alter. While a behavioral assessment may be undertaken to determine the best behavioral treatment, it may also be done for research purposes with no goal of offering treatment, or to see if a previous treatment was effective. Behavioral contingencies is more inclusive than consequences (response “B”) or interventions (response ”D”), and therefore the correct answer.
Which of the following structures develops last:
a. cerebellum. b. frontal lobe. c. occipital lobe. d. temporal lobe.
- B– The brain develops in a predictable sequence from the least complex functions to the most complex. Although many areas of the brain are nearly fully developed at birth, the frontal lobe, which is responsible for higher-level thinking, motor behavior, and expressive language does not fully develop until young adulthood. The prefrontal cortex, located at the most anterior part of the frontal lobe, is responsible for most executive functions, and is the very last area of the brain to develop.
Decisions made by a group are typically better than those made individually when:
a. the group is highly cohesive. b. the group leader is directive. c. the task requires a high degree of creativity. d. members of the group have complementary skills.
- D– One of the major obstacles to good group decision-making is groupthink. Groupthink is an intensive tendency to seek agreement among members of the group, which prevents full consideration of alternative decisions, to the point where the decisions reached may become irrational. Some of the factors which contribute to groupthink include: high group cohesiveness, homogeneous backgrounds and values, and a strong, directive leader. A group consisting of members with complementary skills is not homogeneous, and would be less likely to succumb to groupthink. Contrary to Choice C, tasks which require a high degree of creativity tend to be performed better by individuals than groups.
Use of which of the following strategies is most likely to increase a person’s level of chronic pain:
a. biofeedback. b. active coping. c. passive coping. d. cognitive-behavioral therapy.
- C– Several studies have found that passive coping strategies (e.g., depending on others, restricting social activities, use of medication for immediate pain relief) result in an increase in subjective pain among chronic pain patients. Conversely, helping patients reduce the frequency of passive coping strategies is believed to result in decreased pain. Active coping strategies (e.g., staying busy or active, distracting attention from the pain), as well as biofeedback and cognitive-behavioral therapy, have most often been found to decrease pain [A. C. Mercado, L. J. Carroll, J. D. Cassidy, & P. Cote, Coping with neck and low back pain in the general population, Health Psychology, 2000, 19(4), 333-338].
- In old age, the best predictor of adaptation would be:
a. health.
b. number of grandchildren.
c. marital status.
d. SES level.
- A– This is tough. All of the distractors mentioned predict good adaptation in our older age. But the best answer is good health, according to the research.
The parents of a child with Mental Retardation are most likely to say that, during infancy, one of the earliest signs that something “was wrong” was:
a. the child’s failure to cuddle. b. the child’s lack of eye contact. c. the child's lack of interest in the environment. d. the persistence of primitive reflexes
- C– Answers A and B are more characteristic of Autistic Disorder, and answer D is more likely in cerebral palsy or other serious motor disorder. Lack of age-appropriate interest in the environment is one of the earliest signs of retardation.
Which of the following is most associated with unusual perceptual experiences:
a. Generalized Anxiety Disorder. b. Panic Disorder. c. Adjustment Disorder. d. Dysthymic Disorder.
- B– Panic attacks are characterized by at least four of ten symptoms. These may include derealization or depersonalization, which are types of perceptual disturbances.
National surveys comparing rural and urban areas rates of mental disorders indicate:
a. prevalence rates are not statistically different. b. prevalence rates are significantly higher in rural areas for most mental disorders. c. prevalence rates are significantly higher in urban areas for most mental disorders. d. prevalence rates are statistically different with some disorders more common in rural or urban areas.
- A– While study to study reported rates of mental illness have varied somewhat, the most consistent finding is that there are few statistically significant differences in the rates of mental disorders in urban and rural areas. Epidemiological surveys like the National Comorbidity Survey, the Epidemiologic Catchment Area Study and a recent Healthcare for Communities (HCC) survey of 9,585 individuals living in rural and urban areas, found no significant differences in the prevalence of the major types of mental illness (See: Tang, L., et al., (2001), Report on the Survey Method for the Household Survey of Healthcare for Communities, 1997-1998, Los Angeles, Health Sciences Research Center, UCLA).
- Research by Sue and his colleagues (1991) suggests that which of the following clients is most likely to return for a second session of psychotherapy:
a. an African-American client.
b. a Latino-American client.
c. an Anglo-American client.
d. an Asian-American client.
- D– Studies on therapy dropout rates have produced inconsistent results. This question is asking about a particular study, however (Sue et al., 1991), which found that African-Americans have the highest dropout rates, while Asian-Americans have the lowest dropout rates.
A patient with right hemisphere damage is most likely to respond to jokes with which of the following reactions:
a. indifference. b. indifference or exaggerated jocularity. c. frustration and irritation. d. rage.
- B– The two hemispheres appear to have different functions in terms of emotions – the left hemisphere governs positive emotions, while the right hemisphere governs negative ones. Consequently, damage to the right hemisphere can produce apathy or undue cheerfulness, which may be reflected in the individual’s response to humor.
An advocate of leader-member exchange theory is most likely to agree that:
• A. leaders have qualitatively different relationships with in-group and out-group subordinates.
• B. leaders have qualitatively different relationships with introverted and extraverted coworkers.
• C. leaders are most effective when they combine a high degree of consideration with a high degree of initiating structure.
• D. leaders are most effective when they tailor rewards and other outcomes to each worker’s needs.
Dansereau, Graen, and Haga’s (1975) leader-member exchange theory is based on the assumption that leader effectiveness and subordinate outcomes are determined by the nature of the interactions between the leader and the subordinate. It proposes that subordinates are treated as in-group or out-group members based on whether or not the leader perceives them as being competent, trustworthy, and willing to assume responsibility.
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that causes degeneration of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ receptors at neuromuscular junctions, resulting in severe muscle weakness and fatigue. • A. acetylcholine • B. glutamate • C. GABA • D. norepinephrine
Acetylcholine (ACh) is important for the control of the skeletal (voluntary) muscles, and disruption of ACh activity at neuromuscular junctions has been linked to myasthenia gravis and several other disorders. ACh also plays a role in learning, memory, attention, and mood.
Which of the following is most responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance? • A. motion parallax • B. interposition of objects • C. retinal disparity • D. linear perspective
Answer C is correct. Retinal disparity refers to differences in retinal images in the left and right eyes and is responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance. In contrast, motion parallax (the quicker movement of closer objects across the visual field), interposition (overlap) of objects, and linear perspective are responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a greater distance.
13.According to Carl Rogers (1951), incongruence between self and experience produces anxiety, which a person may respond to defensively by:
• A. denying or distorting the experience.
• B. adopting an exaggerated sense of self-worth.
• C. becoming fixated at the previous stage of development.
• D. developing a mistaken style of life.
Answer A is correct. Rogers proposed that people often respond defensively to incongruence between self and experience with denial or distortion. Denial involves denying the existence of the experience or its significance, while distortion involves altering the meaning of the experience to make it more consistent with one’s perceived self. Although denial and distortion can provide temporary relief, they fail to resolve incongruence and can lead to psychological disturbance.
The questions included in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ask experienced job applicants to describe how they handled specific job-related situations in the past. • A. a situational interview • B. a behavioral interview • C. a case interview • D. an informational interview
Answer B is correct. Behavioral interviews are based on the assumption that past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior. When conducting a behavioral interview, the interviewer asks job applicants with previous job experience how they responded to specific job-related situations in the past.
The questions included in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ask experienced job applicants to describe how they handled specific job-related situations in the past. • A. a situational interview • B. a behavioral interview • C. a case interview • D. an informational interview
Answer B is correct. Behavioral interviews are based on the assumption that past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior. When conducting a behavioral interview, the interviewer asks job applicants with previous job experience how they responded to specific job-related situations in the past.
The research has found that \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ have the highest rates of mental health service utilization. • A. heterosexual women • B. lesbian and bisexual women • C. heterosexual men • D. gay and bisexual men
Answer B is correct. Consistent with other studies, C. E. Grella, L. Greenwell, V. M. Mays, and S. D. Cochran found that lesbian and bisexual women were most likely to report seeking treatment for substance use and mental health disorders, followed by gay and bisexual men, heterosexual women, and heterosexual men (Influence of gender, sexual orientation, and need on treatment utilization for substance use and mental disorders: Findings from the California quality of life survey, BMC Psychiatry, 9(52), 2009, retrieved from https://bmcpsychiatry.biomedcentral.com/articles/ 10.1186/1471-244X-9-52).
Moffitt’s (1993) “maturity gap” is most useful for understanding the etiology of which of the following disorders?
• A. oppositional defiant disorder
• B. late-onset attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
• C. intermittent explosive disorder
• D. adolescent-onset conduct disorder
Answer D is correct. T. Moffitt distinguished between two types of antisocial behavior in youth: Her life-course persistent type corresponds to the childhood-onset type of conduct disorder, while her adolescence-limited type corresponds to the adolescent-onset type. According to Moffitt, the life-course persistent type is the more serious disorder and is due to inherited or acquired neurobiological and neuropsychological factors, while the adolescence-limited type is due to a “maturity gap,” which is the gap between an adolescent’s biological and social maturity (Adolescence-limited and life-course persistent antisocial behavior: A taxonomy, Psychological Review, 100, 674-701, 1993).
Eight months ago, on the one-year anniversary of the death of her mother due to a brain tumor, 47-year-old Gale began experiencing frequent headaches and dizziness nearly every day. Gale has worried constantly about her health since then and has been spending hours each day searching for information on brain tumors on the Internet. Gale’s worrying and time on the Internet has kept her from spending time with her husband, two teen-age daughters, and friends. Gale has had two MRIs that showed no sign of a tumor, and her doctor has been unable to find an explanation for her headaches and dizziness. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Gale is: • A. conversion disorder. • B. body dysmorphic disorder. • C. somatic symptom disorder. • D. illness anxiety disorder.
Answer C is correct. Gale’s symptoms meet the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for somatic symptom disorder. This diagnosis requires the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that cause distress or substantial disruption of daily activities accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.
An advanced sleep phase is most characteristic of: • A. adults deprived of REM sleep. • B. individuals who are blind. • C. older adults. • D. infants.
EPPP-P1-PHY-Memory and Sleep-165 Answer C is correct. Advanced sleep phase is also known as circadian phase advance and refers to a shift in the sleep-wake cycle that involves falling asleep and waking up earlier than at the conventional times. Many older adults experience an advanced sleep phase.
You receive a letter from a colleague requesting that you send her a copy of the record of Donald D., a former client of yours. The request is accompanied by an authorization to release information signed by Donald. Donald abruptly ended his sessions with you three months ago, at which time he owed you for his past four therapy sessions. You’ve sent two letters to Donald about his unpaid bill, but he has not responded. To be consistent with ethical requirements, you:
• A. must forward the record to the colleague since Donald has signed an authorization allowing you to do so.
• B. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague until you and Donald reach an agreement about how he will pay his outstanding fees.
• C. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if they are not needed for Donald’s emergency treatment.
• D. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if you explained this policy to Donald as part of the informed consent process when he began therapy.
C. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if they are not needed for Donald’s emergency treatment.
Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease and neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies (NCDLB) can be difficult to distinguish, especially in their early stages, but there are differences. Which of the following does NOT accurately describe a difference between the two disorders?
• A. Motor disturbances are more prominent in early Alzheimer’s disease than in early NCDLB.
• B. Memory loss is usually a more prominent early symptom of early Alzheimer’s disease than of early NCDLB.
• C. Nonvisual hallucinations and systematized delusions are more common in early NCDLB than in early Alzheimer’s disease.
• D. Orthostatic hypotension and other autonomic disturbances are more common in early NCDLB than in early Alzheimer’s disease.
A. Motor disturbances are more prominent in early Alzheimer’s disease than in early NCDLB.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-217 Answer A is correct. Motor disturbances are a more important cause of disability in the early stages of NCDLB than in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease and include muscle rigidity, tremors, and other motor symptoms associated with Parkinson’s disease. Although motor problems are also associated with Alzheimer’s disease, they usually do not occur until the disease progresses to the middle or late stage. The other three answers accurately describe differences between the two disorders. See, e.g., Alzheimer’s Association website, http://www.alz.org/dementia/dementia-with-lewy-bodies-symptoms.asp
Minuchin, Rosman, and Baker (1978) found that the parents of children with anorexia were often overprotective of and emotionally overinvolved with the child and discouraged the child’s independence. They referred to this family pattern as: • A. enmeshed. • B. triangulated. • C. skewed. • D. closed.
A is correct. One of the structural elements of interest to structural family therapists are the boundaries between family members, and they distinguish between overly rigid and overly permeable boundaries: Overly rigid boundaries lead to disengagement (a lack of connection and excessive independence between family members), while overly permeable boundaries lead to enmeshment (excessive closeness and dependence between family members).
Mowrer’s (1960) two-factor theory of learning is most useful for understanding which of the following? • A. avoidance conditioning • B. escape conditioning • C. spontaneous recovery • D. operant extinction
EPPP-P1-LEA-Operant Conditioning-053 Answer A is correct. Mowrer’s two-factor theory of learning proposes that some behaviors are the result of a combination of classical and operant conditioning. Avoidance conditioning is an example of two-factor learning because it combines classical conditioning and negative reinforcement (operant conditioning). For example, a rat may learn that it can escape (stop) an electric shock by pressing a bar, which is the negative reinforcement component. Then, if a flashing light signals that the shock is about to occur, the light becomes paired with the shock so that the light elicits anticipatory fear, which is the classical conditioning component. The rat then avoids the shock by pressing the bar as soon as the light starts flashing.
42.The development of depth perception in infancy involves becoming sensitive to three types of information in a predictable order, with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ information being the first type that infants are sensitive to. • A. interposition • B. kinetic • C. binocular • D. pictorial
B. kinetic
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LIF-Physical Development-077 Answer B is correct. In their study on the development of depth perception, A. Yonas and C. E. Granrud found that infants respond to kinetic cues at one to three months of age, binocular cues at three to five months, and pictorial cues at five to seven months (The development of sensitivity to kinetic, binocular, and pictorial depth information in human infants, in D. Ingle, D. Lee, and R. M. Jeannerod (Eds.), Brain mechanisms and spatial vision, pp. 113-145, Amsterdam, Martinus Nijhoff Press, 1985).
48.A young man complains that “everyone at work hates me.” His therapist says it may be true that his coworkers hate him and asks him to list the ways they have expressed their hate. The therapist is using which of the following paradoxical techniques? • A. reframing • B. prescribing • C. restraining • D. positioning
D. positioning
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-149 Answer D is correct. When using positioning, the therapist accepts and exaggerates the client’s concern in order to help the client recognize its absurdity or irrationality.
When a test has a standard deviation of 10, the test’s standard error of measurement will fall between: • A. 0 and 10 • B. 10 and 1.0 • C. 0 and 1.0 • D. -1.0 and +1.0
EPPP-P1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-049 Answer A is correct. A test’s standard error of measurement equals its standard deviation times the square root of 1 minus the reliability coefficient. A test’s reliability coefficient can range from 0 to 1.0, so the standard error of measurement for a test that has a standard deviation of 10 ranges from 0 when the reliability coefficient is 1.0 (10 times the square root of 1 minus 1 equals 0) to 10 when the reliability coefficient is 0 (10 times the square root of 1 minus 0 equals 10).
75.Factor Index scores on the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition (SB5) have a mean of \_\_\_\_\_ and standard deviation of \_\_\_\_\_. • A. 10; 3 • B. 15; 5 • C. 100; 12 • D. 100; 15
EPPP-P1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-029 Answer D is correct. The SB5 provides four types of composite scores that have a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15: Full Scale IQ score, Factor Index scores, Verbal and Nonverbal Domain scores, and Abbreviated Battery IQ score.
Older adults with mild neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease would most likely obtain the highest score on the WAIS-IV __________ Index and lowest score on the __________ Index.
• A. Verbal Comprehension; Working Memory
• B. Working Memory; Perceptual Reasoning
• C. Perceptual Reasoning; Processing Speed
• D. Verbal Comprehension; Processing Speed
The WAIS-IV Technical and Interpretive Manual (Psychological Corporation, 2008) reports the following mean Index scores for individuals with mild Alzheimer’s disease: Verbal Comprehension 86.2, Perceptual Reasoning 85.8, Working Memory 84.3, and Processing Speed 76.6.
- Dr. Cho has been seeing Mr. and Mrs. Giovanni in therapy for four months. Mr. Giovanni is an insurance salesman and Mrs. Giovanni works part-time for a residential cleaning service company. Mr. Giovanni is suddenly laid off from his job and they ask if Mrs. Giovanni can exchange home cleaning services for therapy until Mr. Giovanni finds another job. Agreeing to this arrangement would be:
• A. unethical.
• B. ethical since it’s a temporary arrangement.
• C. ethical since it involves an exchange of services (rather than goods).
• D. ethical as long as Dr. Cho discusses the possible conflicts with the couple.
EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-143 Answer A is correct. Standard 6.05 of the APA Ethics Code permits barter in certain circumstances, but this arrangement would not be acceptable because it creates a potentially harmful multiple relationship – i.e., Dr. Cho will be acting as both therapist and employer and, if he’s dissatisfied with Mrs. Giovanni’s work, this could affect his objectivity in therapy. This answer is also consistent with Standards II.1, II.2, and III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
- Dr. Axelrod’s new client is Michael Moreland, a 35-year-old African American man. Mr. Moreland has worked steadily as a dishwasher since he was 17, but he was laid off six months ago and has been unable to find a job. His presenting symptoms suggest he’s dealing with depression. Dr. Axelrod, a White middle-class cognitive behavioral therapist, specializes in treating depression but hasn’t worked with African American or low-income clients. However, he wants to expand his scope of practice to include members of populations he has not yet worked with. To be consistent with ethical requirements, Dr. Axelrod should:
• A. agree to see Mr. Moreland in therapy as long as he consults while doing so with a colleague who has experience working with African American and low-income clients.
• B. agree to see Mr. Moreland in therapy but monitor his effectiveness and obtain relevant education if needed.
• C. refer Mr. Moreland to another therapist who has experience working with low-income and African American clients.
• D. explain his lack of experience to Mr. Moreland and let him decide whether or not to continue therapy.
EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-032 Answer A is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 2.01 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard II.6 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 2.01 requires psychologists to obtain appropriate education, training, and consultation when they want to provide professional services to members of new populations or use new therapeutic techniques. An alternative would be to make a referral (answer C), but that’s not required in this situation since Dr. Axelrod specializes in treating depression and wants to expand his scope of practice.
93.In a normal distribution of scores, a T-score of \_\_\_\_\_ is equivalent to a z-score of \_\_\_\_\_ and a percentile rank of 84. • A. 50; 0 • B. 50; 1.0 • C. 60; 1.0 • D. 70; 2.0
EPPP-P1-TES-Test Score Interpretation-128 Answer C is correct. In a normal distribution, a percentile rank of 84 is one standard deviation above the mean. The T-score distribution has a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10, so a T-score of 60 is one standard deviation above the mean. And the z-score distribution has a mean of 0 and standard deviation of 1.0, so a z-score of 1.0 is one standard deviation above the mean.
During a couple’s first therapy session, the husband says, “my life would be a lot better if I wasn’t so angry all of the time.” The therapist, a practitioner of narrative family therapy, will most likely respond to the man’s statement by asking him which of the following questions?
A. How has your anger affected your marriage?
B. How long has anger been controlling your life?
C. What would your life be like if you weren’t so angry?
D. Does being angry help you in any way?
EPPP-D1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-06 Answer B is correct. Externalizing the problem is a core strategy of narrative family therapy and involves “reframing the problem from an internal deficiency or pathological condition in the individual to an objectified external and unwelcome narrative with a will of its own to dominate their lives” [H. Goldenberg and I. Goldenberg, Family therapy: An overview (8th ed.), Belmont, CA, 2012, p. 403]. Of the questions listed in the answers, a narrative family therapist is most likely to ask how long the man’s anger has been controlling his life since this would help externalize and objectify the anger.
Which of the following is most useful for understanding McGregor’s (1960) predictions about Theory X and Theory Y management styles? A. self-fulfilling prophecy effect B. Hawthorne effect C. self-serving bias D. ultimate attribution error
EPPP-D1-ORG-Organizational Theories-10 Answer A is correct. According to McGregor, a supervisor’s beliefs about subordinates’ work-related attitudes and behaviors determine how the supervisor acts toward subordinates which, in turn, affects how subordinates behave. In other words, the supervisor’s beliefs about subordinates have a self-fulfilling prophecy effect on their job performance.
Which of the following is not a monocular cue that facilitates depth perception? A. interposition B. convergence C. motion parallax D. linear perspective
EPPP-D1-PHY-Sensation and Perception-07 Answer B is correct. Monocular cues depend on one eye and include the relative size of objects, the overlap (interposition) of objects, linear perspective, texture gradients, and the relative motion of objects (motion parallax). Binocular cues depend on both eyes and include retinal disparity and convergence.
Kluver and Bucy (1938) found that bilateral lesions in which of the following areas of the brain in rhesus monkeys produced a variety of symptoms including visual agnosia, placidity with a loss of normal fear, hyperorality, and indiscriminate hypersexuality?
A. the temporal lobes and most of the medulla and hippocampus
B. the frontal lobes and most of the medulla and hypothalamus
C. the temporal lobes and most of the amygdala and hippocampus
D. the frontal lobes and most of the amygdala and hypothalamus
EPPP-D1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-05 Answer C is correct. The combination of symptoms listed in this question is caused by bilateral lesions in the temporal lobes, amygdala, and hippocampus and is referred to as Kluver-Bucy syndrome.
Sleep abnormalities are considered to be core features of major depressive disorder, with research linking it to all of the following except: A. decreased REM density. B. decreased REM latency. C. reduced slow-wave sleep. D. prolonged sleep latency.
EPPP-D1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-05 Answer A is correct. Decreased REM latency (shortened latency from sleep onset to REM sleep), reduced slow-wave (stages 3 and 4) sleep, prolonged sleep latency (a longer time to fall asleep), and increased REM density (more rapid eye movements per unit of time) have been linked to major depressive disorder, especially in adults.
Research has found that in-group members consistently attribute the behaviors of out-group members to dispositional factors when the behaviors produce undesirable outcomes, but consistently attribute the behaviors of out-group members to situational factors when they produce desirable outcomes. This result is consistent with the predictions of which of the following? A. fundamental attribution error B. actor-observer effect C. ultimate attribution error D. confirmation bias
EPPP-D1-SOC-Social Cognition – Causal Attributions-05 Answer C is correct. The ultimate attribution error applies to attributions made about members of an entire group. It occurs when members of an in-group consistently attribute negative outcomes for out-group members to dispositional factors and positive outcomes to situational factors.
An orthogonal rotation of factors identified in a factor analysis produces a communality of .30 for one of the tests included in the analysis. This means that \_\_\_\_% of variability in scores on that test is explained by the factor analysis. A. 9 B. 49 C. 30 D. 70
EPPP-D1-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-02 Answer C is correct. For the exam, keep in mind that a factor loading is interpreted by squaring it to determine the amount of variability in test scores that’s explained by ONE factor, while a communality is interpreted directly as the amount of variability in test scores that’s explained by ALL of the identified factors: When a test’s communality is .30, this means that the identified factors explain 30% of variability in test scores.
In adulthood, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ memory is most negatively affected by increasing age while \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ memory is relatively unaffected. A. primary; secondary B. secondary; primary C. primary; tertiary D. tertiary; secondary
EPPP-D1-LIF-Cognitive Development-04 Answer B is correct. Secondary memory is another name for recent long-term memory and is associated with the greatest age-related decline. In contrast, primary memory (which is the storage aspect of short-term memory) and tertiary memory (which is another name for remote long-term memory) are relatively unaffected by increasing age.
Which of the following drugs slows the cognitive decline associated with Alzheimer’s disease by blocking the effects of glutamate rather than by increasing cholinergic activity? galantamine. B. memantine. C. rivastigmine. D. donepezil.
EPPP-D1-PHY-Other Psychoactive Drugs-21B_81 Answer B is correct. All four drugs listed in the answers to this question are used to slow the cognitive decline caused by Alzheimer’s disease. Galantamine (Razadyne), rivastigmine (Exelon), and donepezil (Aricept) do so by increasing cholinergic activity (i.e., by preventing the breakdown of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine), while memantine (Namenda) does so by regulating glutamate activity.
The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition (SB5) provides scores on all of the following factors except: A. Visual-Spatial Processing. B. Knowledge. C. Abstract Reasoning. D. Working Memory.
EPPP-D1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-06 Answer C is correct. The SB5 provides scores on five factors: Fluid Reasoning, Knowledge, Quantitative Reasoning, Visual-Spatial Processing, and Working Memory.
When using Meichenbaum’s (1977) self-instructional training to help impulsive children control their behaviors while completing certain tasks, the initial step of training involves which of the following? A. covert modeling B. cognitive modeling C. problem specification D. orientation
EPPP-D1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-21B_77 Answer B is correct. Self-instructional training was originally developed to help impulsive children have greater self-control when completing tasks by teaching them to use helpful self-statements to guide their behaviors. It involves five steps: cognitive modeling, overt external guidance, overt self-guidance, faded overt self-guidance, and covert self-instruction.
Researchers using the mirror task have found that self-recognition emerges in about 50% of children at \_\_\_\_\_ months of age. A. nine B. twelve C. fifteen D. eighteen
EPPP-D1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-02 Answer D is correct. The mirror task involves putting a mark on an infant’s head before placing the infant in front of a mirror. Infants demonstrate self-recognition when they see the mark in the mirror and touch their own foreheads rather than the forehead of the image in the mirror. For about 50% of infants, this first occurs when they’re 18 months of age. See, e.g., M. Nielsen, T. Suddendorf, and V. Slaughter, Mirror self-recognition beyond the face, Child Development, 77(1), 176-185, 2006.
Toward the end of her third date with Cedric, Dr. Sheldon realizes that Cedric is the brother of one of her therapy clients. Dr. Sheldon is very attracted to Cedric, wants to continue dating him, and thinks they might have a future together. To be consistent with ethical requirements, Dr. Sheldon:
A. will continue dating Cedric only if he’s the brother of a former (not current) client of hers.
B. will continue dating Cedric if he’s the brother of a current client only if she discusses the potential for problems with the client and with Cedric.
C. will continue dating Cedric if he’s the brother of a current client only if she terminates therapy with the client.
D. will not continue dating Cedric whether he’s the brother of a current or former client under any circumstances.
EPPP-D1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-03 Answer A is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 10.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 10.06 states that “psychologists do not engage in sexual intimacies with individuals they know to be close relatives, guardians, or significant others of current clients/patients … [and they] do not terminate therapy to circumvent this standard.” The Codes do not prohibit becoming sexually involved with relatives of former clients, although a psychologist would want to consider the potential impact of doing so. However, because none of the answers address this responsibility, answer A is the best answer of those given.
Linking the requirements for successful job performance for all jobs or a subset of jobs within an organization to the organization’s mission, values, goals, and strategies is characteristic of which of the following? A. organizational analysis B. strategic job analysis C. competency modeling D. job evaluation
EPPP-D1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-21B_94 Answer C is correct. Competency modeling is similar to job analysis but focuses on the core competencies that are required to successfully perform all jobs or a subset of jobs within an organization and are linked to the organization’s mission, values, goals, and strategies.
Of the following, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ conditioning produces the fastest acquisition of a conditioned response. A. backward B. trace C. delay D. simultaneous
EPPP-D1-LEA-Classical Conditioning-07 Answer C is correct. Delay conditioning is a type of forward conditioning in which presentation of the conditioned stimulus precedes and overlaps presentation of the unconditioned stimulus. Of the methods for presenting the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli, delay conditioning produces the fastest acquisition of the conditioned response.
A meta-analysis of research on organizational commitment by Meyer and his colleagues (2002) led them to conclude that \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ commitment has the strongest and most favorable correlations with attendance, performance, and other job-related outcomes. A. normative B. affective C. continuance D. structural
Affection for your job (“affective commitment”).
Fear of loss (“continuance commitment”).
Sense of obligation to stay (“normative commitment”).
EPPP-D1-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-21B_94 Answer B is correct. Of the three main types of organizational commitment (normative, affective, and continuance), J. P. Meyer, D. J. Stanley, L. Herscovitch, and L. Topolnytsky found affective commitment to have the strongest and most favorable correlations with a variety of organization- and employee-relevant outcomes [Affective, continuance, and normative commitment to the organization: A meta-analysis of antecedents, correlates, and consequences. Journal of Vocational Behavior, 61(1), 20-52, 2002].
The Privacy Rule of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) states that health care professionals can deny patients access to protected health information when they believe that doing so is:
A. reasonably likely to cause psychological or emotional harm to the client or other person.
B. reasonably likely to endanger the life or physical safety of the client or other person.
C. reasonably likely to endanger the psychological or physical health of the client or other person.
D. not in the best interests of the client or other person.
EPPP-D1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-21B_91 Answer B is correct. Denial of access to protected health information is addressed in 45 CFR 164.524(a)(2)-(4), and the language of this answer is most similar to Section (a)(3)(i). It states that a licensed health care professional can deny an individual access to his/her protected health information, when the “professional has determined, in the exercise of professional judgment, that the access requested is reasonably likely to endanger the life or physical safety of the individual or another person.” Note that, in this situation, the patient has the right to have the denial reviewed by another designated licensed health care professional.
A revised version of the original dopamine hypothesis proposes that the negative symptoms of schizophrenia are due to:
A. hyperactive dopamine transmission in certain subcortical areas of the brain.
B. hypoactive dopamine transmission in certain subcortical areas of the brain.
C. hyperactive dopamine transmission in certain cortical areas of the brain.
D. hypoactive dopamine transmission in certain cortical areas of the brain.
EPPP-D1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-21B_74 Answer D is correct. The research has not provided entirely consistent results but suggests that factors that contribute to the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia differ: One theory is that positive symptoms are due to dopamine hyperactivity in subcortical regions of the brain (especially certain striatal areas), while negative symptoms are due to dopamine hypoactivity in cortical regions (especially the prefrontal cortex). See, e.g., R. Kuepper, M. Skinbjerg, and A. Abi-Dargham, The dopamine dysfunction in schizophrenia revisited: New insights into topography and course, in G. Gross and M. A. Geyer (Eds.), Current antipsychotics (pp. 1-26), New York, Springer, 2012.
The Halstead-Reitan produces an Impairment Index, and the recommended cutoff score for brain impairment for individuals with IQ scores of 100 or higher is: A. .4 B. .8 C. -1.0 D. 5.0
EPPP-D1-PAS-Clinical Tests-03 Answer A is correct. The Halstead-Reitan Impairment Index indicates the proportion of subtests that show evidence of brain impairment and ranges from 0 to 1.0, with higher scores indicating greater impairment. The recommended cutoff score for brain impairment depends on the individual’s IQ: For those with an IQ of 100 or higher, the cutoff score is .4; for those with an IQ less than 100, the cutoff is .5. See, e.g., A. M. Horton, The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery: Past, present, and future, A. M. Horton and D. Wedding (Eds.), The neuropsychology handbook (3rd ed., pp. 251-278), New York, Springer Publishing Company, 2008.
Which of the following best describes ethical requirements regarding debriefing research participants about the nature and results of a research study?
A. Participants must always be debriefed as soon as possible after their participation in a research study.
B. Participants should ordinarily be debriefed as soon as possible but, in some cases, debriefing may be delayed or withheld.
C. Participants must be debriefed only when there’s a chance they were psychologically or physically harmed by the research.
D. Participants must be debriefed as soon as possible only when they were deceived about important aspects of the study.
EPPP-D1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-21B_89 Answer B is correct. Debriefing is addressed in Standard 8.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code and in Principles III.16 and III.25 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.08(a) requires psychologists to promptly debrief research participants “about the nature, results, and conclusions of the research.” However, Standard 8.08(b) states that “if scientific or humane values justify delaying or withholding this information, psychologists take reasonable measures to reduce the risk of harm.” Answer D is not the best answer because it’s not true that participants must be debriefed as soon as possible only when the study involved deception.
Which of the following is most consistent with ethical guidelines for accepting contingent fees when providing professional services in a legal proceeding?
A. Accepting contingent fees is prohibited under any circumstances.
B. Accepting contingent fees should usually be avoided.
C. Accepting contingent fees is acceptable when all parties voluntarily agree to this arrangement.
D. Accepting contingent fees is acceptable only when a psychologist has determined that doing so is in the best interests of all parties.
EPPP-D1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-10 Answer B is correct. The APA Ethics Code does not refer to contingent fees, but they are addressed in Paragraph 5.02 of the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology. It states that, “because of the threat to impartiality presented by the acceptance of contingent fees and associated legal prohibitions, forensic practitioners strive to avoid providing professional services on the basis of contingent fees.” This answer is also consistent with the requirements of the Canadian Code of Ethics regarding fees for professional services and conflicts of interest (e.g., Principle III.28).
The manifest needs identified by Henry Murray are assessed by which of the following? A. 16 PF B. MBTI C. NEO-PI-3 D. EPPS
EPPP-D1-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-05 Answer D is correct. The items included in the EPPS (Edwards Personal Preference Schedule) assess the 15 manifest needs identified in Murray’s theory of needs (e.g., achievement, autonomy, affiliation, dominance).
Myers-Briggs Type Indicator: MBTI
Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF)
When using percent agreement to assess the inter-rater reliability of a behavior observation scale, it’s important to keep in mind that doing so may:
A. underestimate reliability because it’s susceptible to rater biases.
B. overestimate reliability because it’s susceptible to rater biases.
C. underestimate reliability because it’s affected by chance agreement.
D. overestimate reliability because it’s affected by chance agreement.
EPPP-D1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-21B_99 Answer D is correct. A certain amount of chance agreement between two or more raters is possible, especially for behavior observation scales when the behavior occurs frequently. Percent agreement is easy to calculate but, because it’s affected by chance agreement, it may overestimate a measure’s inter-rater reliability. (Note that answers A and B can be eliminated because, while behavior observation scales are often susceptible to rater biases, this question is asking about percent agreement as a measure of inter-rater reliability, not about behavior observation scales.)
