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ATP ME Memory Aid > Miscellaneous questions > Flashcards

Miscellaneous questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is one limitation when filing a random RNAV route on an IFR flight plan?

A
  • The entire route must be within radar environment
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2
Q

For turbulence avoidance, you would do well to avoid areas:

A
  • Where the horizontal wind shear exceeds 40kts per 150 miles
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3
Q

TIME TO ALTERNATE through to completing the approach?
Figure 52 L
330 nm

A

330 nm = LOW

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4
Q

When the approach involves a procedure turn the maximum speed that should be observed from first overheading the course reversal IAF through the procedure turn?

A
  • 200 knots IAS
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5
Q

What is the minimum glycol content of Type 2 deicing/anti-icing fluid?

A
  • 50 percent
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6
Q

ATC clears you to taxi to RWY 28L for a takeoff that will follow a B-737 landing on RWY 28R. The winds are 350/5. You know that

A
  • The northerly crosswinds will blow the vortices safely to the southeast

(Runway 28R starts before 28L, the landing vortices won’t affect 28L)

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7
Q

An airport “hot spot” is

A

An area of increased risk

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8
Q

An increase in airspeed following a decrease in control effectiveness may result in

A

Decrease in downwash on the horizontal tail resulting in tuck under

(talking about an increase in airspeed close to Mcrit)

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9
Q

What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an instrument runway as compared to a VFR only qualified runway light system?

A

Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of the runway for a caution zone

(don’t confuse with centreline lights)

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10
Q

What is the lowest Category IIIA minimum?

A

RVR 700 feet

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11
Q

Convective SIGMETs are issued for a line of thunderstorms at least

A

60 miles long with thunderstorms affecting 40 percent of its length

(60/40)

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12
Q

In normal cruise speed range, the propulsive efficiency of a turboprop

A

Increases as speed DECREASES

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13
Q

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft operating below 10,000 feet?

A

210 knots

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14
Q

Downdrafts in a thunderstorm may exceed

A

24 knots

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15
Q

When flying in high level cirriform cloud, you know clear air turbulence is

A

likely in the clouds

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16
Q

Storm gust fronts often move as much as

A

15 miles ahead of the associated precipitation

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17
Q

The white ‘D’ in a black box under the frequencies section of the airport diagram indicates

A

Runway declared distance information is available

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18
Q

Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not exceed how many DUTY hours in a calendar month period?

A

100 hours

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19
Q

Flightcrew members must receive fatigue education and awareness training **

A

Annually for flightcrew member schedulers, operational control individuals and flightcrew members and dispatchers

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20
Q

If a visual descent point (VDP) is published on a GPS approach, it

A

Will not be included in the sequence of waypoints

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21
Q

What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 9L approach at PHL in your CAT C turbine-powered airplane (no MEL items?)

A

440 feet

Question is actually referring to LANDI mins

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22
Q

When saturated air moves downhill, it’s temperature increases

A

At a SLOWER rate than dry air because vaporisation uses heat.

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23
Q

For an airplane with a relatively low thrust to weight ratio, a 10% increase in takeoff gross weight would result in a takeoff distance increase if approximately

A

25 to 30% or MORE

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24
Q

(Figure 175) Four airways (V298, V25, V448 and V204) near YKM have a series of dots that overlay the airway. What do these dots indicate?

A

That the airways penetrate a Prohibited and Restricted Airspace.

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25
Q

Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?

A

Outer compass locator

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26
Q

A typical takeoff error is

A

Premature rotation degrades takeoff performance due to increased induced drag

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27
Q

Which IFR fix(es) should be entered on a composite flight plan?

A

The fix where the IFR portion is to be terminated

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28
Q

What is the result when water vapor changes to the liquid state while being lifted in a thunderstorm?

A

Latent heat is released to the atmosphere

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29
Q

What is a definition of ‘severe wind shear’?

A

Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes GREATER than 15 knots

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30
Q

UNREL

A

The predicted level of service, within the time parameters of the NOTAM, may no support LPV approaches.

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31
Q

The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a flag air carrier may schedule a pilot in an unaugmented two-pilot crew without a rest period that must report for duty is

A

8 hours

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32
Q

‘Window of circadian low’ means a period of maximum

A

Sleepiness that occurs between 0200 and 0559 during physiological night

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33
Q

What action is recommended if jetstream turbulence is encountered with a direct headwind or tailwind?

A

Change altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area

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34
Q

An aircraft certificate holder is required to make immediate notification to the NTSB when

A

MORE than 50% of the total cockpit displays are lost

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35
Q

Convective SIGMETs are issued for severe thunderstorms

**

A

occurring for more than 30 minutes of the valid period

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36
Q

The minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are

A

those specified in the certificate holder’s OPERATIONS SPECIFICATIONS for that airport, when the flight arrives

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37
Q

Within how many days must the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident file a report to the NTSB?

A

10 days.

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38
Q

Runway centerline lights on an instrument runway are all white until the

A

Last 3000 feet of the runway length.

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39
Q

What is the total time from starting to the ALTERNATE through completing the approach for operating conditions L-2?

A

190 nm = HIGH

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40
Q

Doppler wind measurements indicate that the windspeed change a pilot may expect when flying through the peak intensity of a microburst is approximately

A

45 knots

41
Q

The “age 65 rule” of FAR Part 121 applies to

A

any required pilot crewmember

42
Q

An alternate airport is not required to dispatch a flag air carrier airplane for a flight of less than 6 hours when the visibility for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination airport is forecast to be

A

at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable minimum

43
Q

How should an off-airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?

A

All radio fixes over which the flight will pass

44
Q

A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least

A

3 months

90 DAYS

45
Q

Which procedure increases holding time when deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step process?

A

Heated type 1 fluid following by cold Type 2

(hot 1, cold 2)her

46
Q

The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbo-propeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the 48 contiguous United States is

A

30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet AGL over the airport

47
Q

At what speed does drag divergence occur relative to the critical Mach number?

A

5-10 percent higher.

48
Q

Downdrafts in thunderstorms can be expected to exceed

A

2,500 feet per minute.

49
Q

What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport?

A

copy of the flight plan.

50
Q

Which altitude (box 2) is applicable to the base of the outer circle (now called the shelf area)?

(Class C airspace)

A

1,200 feet AGL

51
Q

GBAS approaches provide for:

Note: GBAS is the ICAO term for Local Area Augmentation System

A

PRECISION navigation alignment and descent of aircraft to a runway.

52
Q

How does the minimum landing distance increase if the airplane landing weight increased by 10%?

A

10%

53
Q

A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts:

A

Does not preclude a rejected landing

preclude = prevent

54
Q

Vertical wind shear can be determined by comparing winds on vertically adjacent constant pressure charts. The vertical wind shear that is critical for probability of turbulence is:

A

6 knots per 1,000 feet.

55
Q

‘Drag divergence’ usually occurs

A

5% to 10% above the critical Mach number.

56
Q

What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)? **

A

It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours.

57
Q

A rule of thumb states that a 1,000 foot increase in density altitude for a turbojet with a low thrust-to-weight ratio will cause a takeoff distance increase of

A

10%.

58
Q

The increase in specific range with altitude of the turbojet airplane can be attributed to three factors. One of those is

A

Increased engine turbine RPM producing more thrust.

59
Q

High clouds are considered to be the clouds between

A

16,500 - 45,000 feet.

60
Q

The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of

A

SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW), and Center Weather Advisories (CWA).

61
Q

Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a seven consecutive day period?

A

32.

62
Q

Maximum turbulence potential charts (GTG-2) are issued

A

hourly.

63
Q

(Refer to appendix 2, figure 126.) Which altitude (box 2) is applicable to the base of the outer circle (now called shelf area)?

A

1,200 feet AGL.

64
Q

For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system,

A

a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased.

65
Q

All ATC facilities using Radar Weather processors with the ability to determine precipitation intensity will describe the intensity as

A

light, moderate, heavy, extreme

no such thing as intense or severe precipitation intensity

66
Q

When climbing above the tropopause, the specific fuel consumption of a turbojet will

A

begin to increase much above the tropopause

67
Q

A bank angle of 30 degrees will increase drag by

A

33%

68
Q

A bank angle of 15 degrees will increase drag by

A

7%

69
Q

What weather feature occurs at altitude levels near the tropopause?

A

Maximum winds and narrow shear zones

70
Q

Pilot management of risk can be improved

A

With practice and consistent use of basic and practical risk management tools.

71
Q

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft operating below 10,000 feet?

A

210 knots.

72
Q 
What is the approximate landing weight?
Weight (Start to alternate): 70,000
Distance (NAM): 190
Wind component (KTS): 40 TW
Holding time at alt (min): 15
A

MID:

65,800

73
Q

A pilot would consult a Convective Outlook (AC) to determine

A

the probability of convective or severe convective activity over the next 3 days.

74
Q

It is important to combine the boundary layer control with flaps since

A

the flap deflection tents to reduce the angle of attack for maximum lift.

75
Q

For an airplane with a relatively high thrust to weight ratio, a 10% increase in takeoff gross weight would result in a takeoff distance increase of approximately

A

21%

76
Q

Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard ailerons and outboard ailerons use the outboard for slow flight only?

A

During low-speed flight, all lateral control surfaces operate to provide maximum stability

77
Q

In addition to the localizer, glide slope, marker beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL?

A

TDZL, RCLS, RVR

TRR - TERRific

78
Q

Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in the new position after the controls have been neutralized.

A

Neutral longitudinal static stability

79
Q

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of

A

80 knots

80
Q

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport?

A

230 knots.

81
Q

In the mid-latitudes, wind speed in the jet stream averages considerably less in the

A

summer.

82
Q

United States, in a geographical sense, means

A

The States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and the possessions including the territorial waters and the airspace above those areas.

83
Q

Constant Pressure Analysis Charts contain contours, isotherms, and some contain isotachs. The contours depict

A

ridges, lows, troughs, and highs aloft.

84
Q

What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave?

A

Rotor cloud.

85
Q

Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact?

A

Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach

86
Q

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 51 and 52.) What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions L-2? **

A

HIGH (55 minutes)

87
Q

What type of frontal system is normally crossed by the jetstream?

A

Occluded front

88
Q

What is the minimum en route altitude on V210, when crossing the POM VORTAC Southwest bound and continuing on the same airway?

A

5,300 feet.

89
Q

When may a category II ILS limitation be removed?

A

When three CAT II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing

90
Q

While holding short of runway 36 at taxiway C, Tower clears you to ‘line up and wait runway 36.’ You should

A

advise tower you are at taxiway Charlie and taxi into position for take off

91
Q

(Refer to appendix 2, figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time for Operating X-5?

A

2 hours 55 minutes

92
Q

The most likely condition in which to experience severe in-flight icing with ambient temperature below 0 degrees Celcius is

A

rain.

93
Q

Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier find the latest FDC NOTAM’s?

A

Any company dispatch facility.

94
Q

The horizontal wind shear, critical for turbulence (moderate or greater) per 150 miles is

A

greater than 18 knots.

95
Q

What is ‘RIL’ the acronym for?

A

Runway INTERSECTION lights.

96
Q

On the airway J10 between OBH and LBF, the MAA is 41,000 feet. What is that MAA on J197 between FSD and OBH?

A

45,000 feet.

default

97
Q

On a t-tail airplane, which control surface feature reduces overcontrolling the airplane during ground effect?

A

Antiservo trim tab.

98
Q

A Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) approach may require:

A

monitoring of two communication frequencies simultaneously.

ATP ME Memory Aid (8 decks)

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