Miscellaneous

Question 1

Name the 5 DC electrically heated components of the airplane.

Answer 1

1. Pitot Tubes
2. Static Ports
3. AOA Vane Base
4. TAS Probe
5. T0(zero) probe when engine anti ice is on (OM 2-50 in the note)

Question 2

Name the six components that receive data from the left pitot tube

Answer 2

1. Pilot Airspeed
2. Pilot Altitude
3. Pilot Vertical Speed
4. # 1 Transponder
5. # 1 Flight Director
6. Pressure Controller

Question 3

Name the 1 AC electrically heated component of the airplane

Answer 3

Windshields and side windows.

Question 4

Name the 3 components that receive heat when the pitot static switch is turned on while on the ground.

Answer 4

1. Pitot Tubes
2. Static Ports
3. AOA Vane Base

Question 5

Name the five components that receive data from the right pitot tube

Answer 5

1. Co-pilots airspeed
2. Co-pilots altitude
3. Co-pilots vertical speed
4. # 2 transponder
5. # 2 flight director

Question 6

On the annunciator panel if the P/S HTR L/R, STBY P/S HTR, or AOA HTR FAIL light illuminates, what 3 conditions could cause this?

Answer 6

1. Damaged heating element
2. Loss of electrical power to the heating element
3. The switch is in the off position

Question 7

Name the three times when the landing gear warning horn will sound when the gear is not down and locked.

Answer 7

1. Both throttles set below 70% N2 and flaps are greater than 15°
2. Both throttles set below 70% N2 and the radio altimeter indicates an altitude less than 500 ft AGL
3. Both throttles set below 70% N2 and the radio altimeter signal is invalid and airspeed is below 150 knots.

Question 8

Name the 4 components that receive data from the standby pitot tube

Answer 8

1. Meggitt airspeed
2. Meggitt altitude
3. Gear warning horn
4. Stab speed sensor

Question 9

Name the element that receives electrical heat after the weight is off wheels

Answer 9

True airspeed probe (Rosemont probe)

Question 10

What is the volume of bleed air provided to the cabin from each engine?

Answer 10

6 lbs per minute per engine

Question 11

At what altitude is the cabin generally depressurized?

Answer 11

1500 feet AGL

Question 12

What does the pressurization controller being in isobaric mode indicate has happened?

Answer 12

The signal coming from the air data computer has become invalid.

Question 13

What 2 times do you have to use manual mode to control cabin pressurization?

Answer 13

1. When the pressurization controller fails

2. When DC power is lost

Question 14

Name the 3 components that receive data from the AOA vane

Answer 14

1. Pilot and co-pilot AOA indications on their PFD’s
2. AOA indexer on Pilot side
3. Stick shaker

Question 15

Name the 8 thrust reverser limitations

Answer 15

1. Takeoff on a wet runway is limited to a minimum of 75ft width when using TR’s for performance credit.
2. Must be at idle power by 60 knots on landing roll
3. Max deployed time is 3 minutes in any 10 minute period.
4. Max deployed time with APU running is 30 seconds
5. Static ground operation is limited it idle power
6. Use is prohibited during touch and go landings
7. Use is prohibited to back up the airplane
8. Use on sod or gravel runways is prohibited

Question 16

What switch will disable the rudder bias system?

Answer 16

Emergency stow switch for the thrust reversers

Question 17

If the auto-pilot does not pass the EFIS test then the auto-pilot may not be used above what altitude?

Answer 17

14,500 feet MSL

Question 18

True or False: The airplane can launch without rudder bias as long as the procedures in corresponding AFM supplement are followed.

Answer 18

False. Rudder bias and the rudder bias heater must be operational for takeoff.

Question 19

What is the acceptable ambient temperature range for operating the APU?

Answer 19

-54° to +54° centigrade

Question 20

What sub modes does the pressurization controller have in auto schedule mode?

Answer 20

1. Ground mode
2. Take off mode
3. Flight mode
4. Descent mode
5. High altitude mode

Question 21

What 2 components get their temperature information from the T0(zero) probes?

Answer 21

1. Ram Air Temperature gauge in the cockpit (from right engine T0 probe only)
2. The respective electronic engine control (EEC)

Question 22

When does the T0(zero) probe get anti-ice protection and how is it heated?

Answer 22

Whenever the engine anti-ice switch is on and it is electrically heated.

Question 23

How many pounds of pressure does the rudder bias provide in the event of an engine failure?

Answer 23

110 lbs

Question 24

When the airplane is cold soaked to what temperature does the cabin need to be heated for proper operation and why?

Answer 24

13° C (56° F) to allow for proper operation of the oxygen masks and lines.

Question 25

Once fuel is introduced into the start sequence how long must ITT appear before aborting the start?

Answer 25

10 seconds

Question 26

Name the events that trigger a boost pump coming on?

Answer 26

1. Engine start
2. APU operation - RH boost pump only
3. Fuel cross feed
4. Low fuel pressure
5. Switch is turned on

Question 27

The maximum demonstrated crosswind of 24 knots is measured where?

Answer 27

10 meters above the runway surface (operating manual introduction – 7)

Question 28

True or false…

The limitation for the crosswind component of landing is 24 knots.

Answer 28

False. The maximum demonstrated crosswind component of 24 knots is not limiting (operating manual introduction – 7)

Question 29

1. How much thrust does each engine generate at sea level on a standard day at takeoff power?
2. How much thrust does each engine generate at maximum continuous power?

Answer 29

1. 3804 lbs
2. 3767 lbs

(Operating manual 1-3)

Question 30

Up to what temperature do the engines produce 3804 lbs of thrust on a standard day at sea level?

Answer 30

83°F

Operating manual 1–3

Question 31

The Ram Air Temperature display is accurate only when?

Answer 31

After the right engine has been started.